Embryology of the GI tract Flashcards

1
Q

Regional specification of the gut tube into different components occurs as

A

lateral folding brings the 2 sides of the tube together

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2
Q

Specification in the gut tube is initiated by ______ that causes transcription factors to be expressed in different regions of the tube. It also requires interaction between the epithelium (endoderm) and mesenchyme (splanchnic mesoderm) initiated by ___

A

RA gradient (not that the gradient increases as you move down the tube). SHH

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3
Q

_____ specifies the esophagus

A

SOX2

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4
Q

_____ specifies the duodenum and pancreas

A

PDX1

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5
Q

_____ specifies small intestine

A

CDXC

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6
Q

______ specifies large intestine

A

CDXA

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7
Q

In addition to regionalization development of the gut tube also involves

A
  • continuous elongation
  • herniation past the body wall (into the umbilical cord)
  • Rotation and folding for efficient packing
  • Histiogenesis and further maturation of the epithelial lining
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8
Q

The gut tube becomes suspended by a ______ layered fold of peritoneum-dorsal mesentery

A

2-layered

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9
Q

the mesenteries are elections of ______ onto gut tube

A

parietal peritoneum

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10
Q

components of the foregut

A
  • Esophagus
  • Stomach and 1/2 duodenum
  • Liver
  • Gallbladder
  • Pancreas
  • Spleen
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11
Q

Components of the midgut

A
  • 1/2 of duodenum
  • jejunum
  • Ileum
  • Cecum and appendix
  • Ascending colon
  • 2/3 transverse colon
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12
Q

Components of the hindgut

A
  • 1/3 transverse colon
  • descending colon
  • sigmoid colon
  • rectum
  • upper part anal canal
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13
Q

Foregut derivatives are supplied by branches of the _____

A

celiac artery

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14
Q

Midgut derivatives are supplied by branches of the

A

superior mesenteric artery

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15
Q

Hindgut derivatives are supplied by branches of the

A

inferior mesenteric artery

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16
Q

Sympathetics innervation: Preganglionic cell bodies for foregut

A

T5-T9

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17
Q

Sympathetics innervation: Preganglionic cell bodies for Midgut

A

T9-L2

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18
Q

Sympathetics innervation: Preganglionic cell bodies for Hindgut

A

T12-L2

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19
Q

Splanchnic nerve of foregut

A

Greater splanchnic nerve

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20
Q

Splanchnic nerve of Midgut

A

Lesser splanchnic nerve

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21
Q

Splanchnic nerve of Hindgut

A

Least splanchnic nerve

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22
Q

Preaortic ganglion for Foregut

A

Celiac

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23
Q

Preaortic ganglion for midgut

A

Superior mesenteric

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24
Q

Postganglionic axons of the foregut follow

A

Celiac artery

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25
Q

Postganglionic axons of the midgut follow

A

Superior mesenteric artery

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26
Q

Innervation of the hindgut is the least splanchnic nerve to the _____ and the lumbar splanchnics form L1 and L2 to the ______

A

aorticorenal plexus, inferior mesenteric plexus

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27
Q

Parasympathetics for the foregut and midgut have preganglionic cell bodies in the

A

brainstem

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28
Q

Parasympathetics for the hindgut have preganglionic cell bodies in

A

S2-S4

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29
Q

What is the nerve of the parasympathetics of the foregut and midgut

A

Vagus nerve (CN X)

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30
Q

What is the nerve for parasympathetics of the hindgut

A

Pelvic splanchnic nerves

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31
Q

What is the location of parasympathetic ganglia of the foregut and midgut

A

Organ walls

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32
Q

What is the location of parasympathetic ganglia of the hindgut

A

Organ walls

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33
Q

At the allantois becomes the

A

urachus (median umbilical ligament)

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34
Q

narrowed or occluded esophagus (esophageal stenosis or atresia) may be due to the incomplete ______, usually found in the lower 1/3

A

recanalization (in week 5 you have a open tube in week 6 it overgrows with epithelial tissue and you have apoptosis foreign the tube again)

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35
Q

Successful esophageal anastomoses may be performed in those few with “long gap” esophageal atresia greater than ___between the proximal and distal esophageal remnants using various lengthening techniques

36
Q

what is colon interposition

A

a section of colon is taken from its normal position in the gut and transposed, with its blood supply intact, into the chest, where it is joined to the esophagus above and the stomach below.

37
Q

What is gastric tube esophagoplasty

A
  • A longitudinal segment is taken form the stomach, which is then swung up into the chest and joined to the esophagus
38
Q

Gastric transposition

A

the whole stomach is freed, mobilized and moved into the chest attached to the upper end of the esophagus

39
Q

what is zenke’s diverticulum

A

esophageal diverticulum posterior to the top half of the esophagus

40
Q

what is barrettes esophagus

A

acid backing up from the stomach changes esophagus lining

41
Q

The ____ surface of the stomach grows relatively faster than the _____ surface

A

dorsal, ventral

42
Q

The abdominal esophagus and stomach start as a straight tube suspended by dorsal and ventral mesentery. The dorsal side of the tube grows rapidly, expands and there is a simultaneous _______ rotation of ____ degrees

A

Clockwise, 90 degrees

43
Q

After the clockwise 90 degree rotation of the stomach the left side of the stomach now lies anterior and the right side posterior. Therefore, the left vagus becomes the _____ vagus and the right vagus becomes the _____ vagal trunk

A

Anterior, posterior

44
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis usually presents ____ weeks after birth. And are the characteristics of the emesis

A

2-3 weeks. Projectile emesis with no bile

45
Q

Duodenal atresia has a _____ sign

A

double bubble sign (gas distended stomach and proximal duodenum with no distal gas.)

46
Q

What is a duplication cyst

A

is a tubular structure with an internal lining of gastrointestinal epithelium, smooth muscle in its wall and adherence to some portion of the alimentary tract

47
Q

The liver, gallbladder, and bile ducts develop in the ____ mesentery

48
Q

Does the pancreas start as two and then fuse together

49
Q

______ coalesce around extra embryonic veins to form sinusoids

A

Hepatic cords (cells)

50
Q

____ and _____ are outgrowths of the bile duct

A

Gallbladder and cystic duct

51
Q

Growth of liver divides ventral mesentery into _____ and ______

A

Falciform ligament and lesser omentum

52
Q

The ________ is the fibrous remnant of the ductus venous.

A

ligamentum venosum

53
Q

________ is the obliterated left umbilical vein

A

Ligamentum teres hepatis

54
Q

Extrahepatic biliary atresia

A
  • incomplete canalization of the bile duct
  • 1/15,000 live births
  • Jaundice- high levels of bilirubin in bloodstream
  • Dark urine- bilirubin filtered by kidney and excreted in urine
  • Pale stool- no bile or bilirubin is being emptied into the intestine
  • Tx- surgical correction or transplant
55
Q

______ gene development of pancreas and duodenum

56
Q

Paired _____ genes specify endocrine cell lineages

57
Q

_____ gene produces cells secreting insulin, somatostatin and pancreatic polypeptide

58
Q

____ gene produces cells that secrete glucagon

59
Q

Islets of Langerhans appear in ____ fetal month

60
Q

Insulin is secreted by the ____ month of fetal development

61
Q

The biliary system (gallbladder and cystic duct) initially develops as a tubular structure (pars cystica) arising from

A

elongation and molding of the caudal portion of the hepatic diverticulum

62
Q

The dorsal and ventral pancreas fuse after

A

clockwise rotation of the ventral bud around the caudal part of the foregut

63
Q

The pancreas is predominantly drained through the ______ , which joins the common bile duct at the level of the major papilla. The _______ empties into the common bile duct at the level of the minor papilla. The ________ comprises the duct shared between liver and the ventral pancreas. The main pancreatic duct derives form the merger of the dorsal and ventral pancreatic ducts

A

Vental pancreatic duct. Dorsal pancreatic duct. Hepato-pancreatic common duct

64
Q

Annular pancreas

A
  • Vental and dorsal pancreatic buds form a ring around the duodenum
  • Presents as duodenal obstruction
65
Q

Accessory or ectopic pancreatic tissue can be found

A
  • form distal esophagus through the primary intestinal loop (roughly distal part of transverse colon)
  • Most common in stomach or ileum (ileal or Meckel’s diverticulum)
66
Q

What are the derivatives of the midgut

A
  • Duodenum distal to entrance of bile duct
  • Free small intestine (jejunum, ileum)
  • Cecum and appendix
  • ascending colon
  • right (proximal) 2/3 of transverse colon
  • superior mesenteric artery
67
Q

Gut atresia and stenosis caudal to the duodenum are probably due to

A

vascular compromise

68
Q

Gut atresia and stenosis in the upper duodenum is usually due to failure to

A

recanalize

69
Q

Rapid growth of the midgut starts at about

70
Q

Rotation and Fixation of the Midgut produces a

A

normal physiologic herniation. gut loops into the umbilical cord and as this happens, the loop rotates 90 degrees counterclockwise around the superior mesenteric artery. This occurs at about 6 weeks

71
Q

The cranial end of the primary intestinal loop forms the ______. The caudal end forms the ____

A

distal duodenum to ileum, lower ileum to proximal 2/3 transverse colon

72
Q

at about the ____ week, the herniated loop returns to the abdominal cavity and orated an additional _____ degrees

A

10th, 180 degrees (note that this is 270 degrees in total)

73
Q

What is malrotation

A
  • Partial rotation of the intestines
  • abnormally positioned viscera
  • increased risk of entrapment of portions of the intestine
  • Usually presents within first week as duodenal obstruction with bilious vomiting
  • infants- recurrent abdominal pain, intestinal obstruction, malabsorption/diarrhea, peritonitis, septic shock, solid food intolerance, common bile duct obstruction, abdominal distention, and failure to thrive
74
Q

Symptoms of malrotation in infants

A
  • Usually presents within first week as duodenal obstruction with bilious vomiting
    recurrent abdominal pain, intestinal obstruction, malabsorption/diarrhea, peritonitis, septic shock, solid food intolerance, common bile duct obstruction, abdominal distention, and failure to thrive
75
Q

What is a volvulus

A
  • abnormal twisting of the intestines causing obstruction

- compromises the intestine or the blood flow

76
Q

Omphalocele

A
  • Herniation of abdominal contents through enlarged umbilical ring
  • this is normal if it is temporary
  • The gut should return into the abdomen as the embryo grows
  • 25/10,000
  • Midgut loop fails to return to abdominal cavity
  • pale, shiny sac protrudes from base of umbilical cord
  • often involved with other abnormalities such as: cardiac, neural tube, and chromosomal
77
Q

Gastroschisis

A
  • Failure of anterior abdominal wall musculature to close during folding
  • gut contents not surrounded by membrane
  • 1-2/10,000 but frequency is increasing in young women
  • 15-19 years, incidence increased from 4/10000 to 26/5/10000
  • Not associated with chromosomal abnormalities or other malformations
  • Survival rate is excellent
78
Q

What is Meckel’s diverticulum

A
  • Ileal diverticulum
  • remnant of vitelline duct
  • asymptomatic
  • gastric or pancreatic tissue
  • failure of vitelline duct to close
  • rule of 2’s (2% prevalence, 2:1 female predominant, location 2 feet proximal to the ileocecal valve in humans, and half of those who are symptomatic are younger than 2 years of age
79
Q

If there is a fistula present in the ideal diverticulum then there is

A

fecal discharge through the umbilicus

80
Q

what forms the majority of the enteric nervous system

A

Neural crest cells

81
Q

Hirschsprung’s disease

A
  • congenital aganglionic megacolon, is a motor disorder of the colon that causes a functional intestinal obstruction
  • both plexuses are affected
  • it occurs in 1/5,000 infants with a male to female predominance of 4:1
  • The pathogenesis of the disease is failure of migration of the neural crest cells that form the colonic ganglion cells
  • Without parasympathetic innervation, the colon cannot relax or undergo peristalsis, resulting in a functional obstruction
  • 70-80% of the time the defect is in the descending or sigmoid colon, 1-20% are in the transverse colon, 3% entire colon
  • decreased occurrence in more proximal parts b/c these are associated with higher mortality rate and/or increased incidence of multiple congenital abnormalities
    tx: surgical: pull-through surgery and involves removing the section of the colon that has no ganglia cells, then connecting the remaining healthy end of the colon to the rectum
82
Q

Primary retroperitoneal means

A
  • any organ that developed outside the abdominal cavity which never had a mesentery to begin with
83
Q

Secondary retroperitoneal means

A

portion of the gut tube whose mesentery has fused with the lining peritoneum

84
Q

Intraperitoneal means

A

organs with mesentery

85
Q

Rotation of the gut tube causes

A
  • will change the size of the two original peritoneal cavities
  • will change the anatomical relationship of the organs to one another (no longer a straight tube)
  • Will cause changes (loss) of some of the dorsal mesenteries
  • Structures will be primarily or secondarily retroperitoneal