embryology of head and neck Flashcards

1
Q

when does the face form

A

weeks 4-14

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2
Q

when does the thyroid, thymus and parathyroid form

A

weeks 4-7

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3
Q

what are the bones around the brain called

A

the neurocranium (8 bones)

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4
Q

what are the facial bones called

A

the viscerocranium (15 bones)

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5
Q

what are the flat bones of the neurocranium and what is this group called

A

frontal and parietal bones
calvaria

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6
Q

what are the bones of neurocranium that make up the base of the skull

A

the chondrocranium

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7
Q

what is the cellular origin of the facial bones and frontal bone

A

neural crest cells from the dorsal part of neural tube

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8
Q

what is the cellular origin of the skull bones (minus the frontal)

A

the paraxial mesoderm, cells that are cranial to the somites
called: unsegmented, somitic, somitomeric or pre-otic

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9
Q

what is the cellular origin of the laryngeal bones

A

the lateral plate mesoderm

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10
Q

what is endochondral ossification

A

formation of a cartilage template and then formation of bone

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11
Q

what is intramembranous ossification

A

direct formation of bone

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12
Q

what skull bones form via endochondral ossification

A

occipital bone (chondrocranium)

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13
Q

what skull bones form via intramembranous ossification

A

the parietal and frontal bones

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14
Q

what are sutures important for

A

molding at birth

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15
Q

where do sutures arise from

A

sagital: neural crest
coronal: paraxial mesoderm

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16
Q

When do the anterior and mastoid fontanelles close?

A

around 2 years

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17
Q

when do the posterior and sphenoidal fontanelles close

A

after 6 months

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18
Q

what is craniosynostosis

A

premature fusion of sutures

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19
Q

scaphocephaly is what

A

a long AP skull due to early fusion of sagittal suture

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20
Q

bradycephaly is what

A

a short square shaped skull due to early coronal fusion

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21
Q

Crouzon syndrome

A

AD
FGFR2 gain of function mutation
craniosynostosis, ocular proptosis, mandibular prognathism, progressive hydrocephaly

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22
Q

Apert syndrome

A

AD
FGFR2 gain of function mutation
craniosynostosis, syndactyly of hands and feet, mental retardation

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23
Q

Pfeiffer syndrome

A

AD
FGFR2 gain of function mutation
craniosynostosis, syndactly of hands and feet

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24
Q

when do pharyngeal arches form

A

in the 4th week

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25
what are pharyngeal pouches
evaginations of the endoderm between arches
26
what are pharyngeal clefts
invaginations of ectoderm between arches
27
how many arches, pouches and clefts
5 arches, 4 pouches and clefts
28
what does each arch contain
cartilage, muscles, artery and nerve
29
where does the muscle of pharyngeal arches come from
somitic mesoderm
30
where does the artery of pharyngeal arches come from
somitic mesoderm
31
where does the cartilage of pharyngeal arches come from
lateral plate neural crest cells
32
where does the nerve of pharyngeal arches come from
neural tube (ectoderm)
33
how does the mandible form
intramembranous ossification
34
what is and does meckels cartilage form
It is the first pharyngeal arch the mandible, incus and malleus
35
what is and does Reicherts cartilage form
It is the 2nd pharyngeal arch the lesser horn of hyoid, styloid process, stapes
36
what does the 3rd pharyngeal arch form
the greater horn of hyoid bone
37
what is the origin of the 1, 2 and 3rd pharyngeal arches
the neural crest cells
38
what is the origin of the IV and VI pharyngeal arches
lateral plate mesoderm
39
what do the 4th and 6th pharyngeal arches form
thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage and arytenoid cartilage
40
what nerve innervates the 1st arch
trigeminal nerve (CN V)
41
what nerve innervates the 2nd arch
facial nerve (CN VII)
42
What nerve innervates the 3rd arch
glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
43
what nerve innervates the 4th and 6th arch
the superior laryngeal branch and the recurrent branch of the vagus (CN X)
44
what does cleft 1 form
the external auditory meatus and the external part of the tympanic membrane
45
what forms the cervical sinus
cleft 2 migrates and 3 and 4 curl up
46
what does pouch 1 form
the tubotympanic recess that becomes the Eustachian tubes
47
what does pouch 4 form
the ultimobranchial body and superior paraythyroid
48
what does pouch 2 form
the tonsil
49
what does pouch 3 form
the inferior parathyroid and the thymus
50
when is the thymus active
during perinatal period and childhood and then involutes after puberty
51
what does PTH do
increases Ca2+ levels in the blood
52
where is the thyroid gland derived from
not from a pouch from the floor of pharynx between pouch 1 and 2 (endoderm)
53
what are the hypoglossal ducts
they connect the foramen cecum to the thyroid gland
54
when does thyroid function begin
week 10-12
55
what does the ultimobranchial body do
fuses with thyroid gland and creates calcitonin producing 'C' cells
56
what is the derivative of C cells
endoderm
57
what does calcitonin do
reduces calcium levels in the blood
58
first arch syndromes
insufficient migration of neural crest cells into pharyngeal arch 1 - treacher-collin syndrome - Pierre robin syndrome
59
treacher collins syndrome
AD TCOF1 gene mutation, treacle protein mutation causes: hypoplasia of mandible, external ear abnormalities
60
Pierre robin syndrome
SOX9 gene associated u shaped cleft palate, glossoptosis and airway obstruction
61
DiGeorge syndrome cause
failure of pouches 3 and 4 to differentiate into thymus and parathyroid glands - micro deletion of chromosome q22 - abnormal neural crest migration
62
DiGeorge syndrome symptoms
facial anomalies immunosuppression (thymus) hypocalcemia (parathyroid)
63
Pharyngeal fistula
persistence of pouch 2 or cleft 2 anterior border of SCM
64
pharyngeal cyst
persistence of clefts 2, 3, 4 along angle of mandible drainage in palatine tonsil
65
thyroglossal cysts and sinuses
if the thyroglossal duct persists and forms a cyst - located in midline near hyoid
66
thyroglossal cyst under the tongue
lingual cyst
67
derivative of frontal nasal prominance
forehead, dorsal and apex of nose
68
derivative of lateral nasal prominance
alae (sides) of nose
69
derivative of medial nasal prominance
nasal septum, ethmoid bone, cribriform plate
70
derivative of intermaxillary segment
philtrum and primary plate
71
derivative of maxillary prominance
upper cheek region and lip
72
derivative of mandibular prominance
chin, lower lip and cheek
73
derivative of fusion of Fr. nasal and max pr
nasolacrimal duct
74
what is the name of the opening form the nasal cavity to the mouth
choana
75
how does that hard palate form
intramembranous ossification
76
what is in the soft palate
muscles vagus and trigeminal nerves
77
what is choanal atresia
cyclical period of cyanosis due to a closed choana
78
the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is formed by what
the first arch
79
the posterior 1/3 of the tongue is formed by the what
the third arch
80
what forms the epiglottis
the 4th arch
81
what is ankyloglossia
tongue tied
82
innervation of anterior 2/3 of tongue
trigeminal ganglion
83
innervation of taste buds
facial nerve
84
innervation of posterior tongue and epiglottis
vagus nerve
85
innervation of posterior 1/3 of tongue and vallate apillae
glossopharyngeal nerves
86
tongue musculature innervation
hypoglossal nerve cranial nerve XII
87
what is the dental papilla
a transient signalling structure that signals to form the enamel knot
88
precursor of enamel
ameloblasts
89
precursor of predentin
odontoblasts
90
morphogen means
dose dependent signalling
91
defect resulting in loss of Shh defects
severe midline defects
92
low Shh activity
cyclopia
93
very high Shh activity
facial duplications
94
holoprosencephaly
cyclopia
95
what is the cause of cleft lip
failure of maxillary prominance and medial nasal prominance joining
96
cleft palate cause
failure of palatal shelves (primary and secondary) fusing together along midline
97
cleft lip is where in relation to incisive foramen
anterior
98
cleft palate is where in relation to incisive foramen
posterior
99
clefts distribution among sexes
lip more common in men palate more common in females