Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2/Level 2 > EM and Surgery > Flashcards

EM and Surgery Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Certified Sommelier Exam (CMS 2) flashcards
1
Q

Bugs most commonly associated with dog/cat bites?

A

-Pasteurella multocida and S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What types of animal bites should NOT be sutured closed?

A
  • puncture and other bites to the hand
  • Cat bites (more likely to be dirty)

-DO suture facial wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PPX ABX given to animal bites?

A
  • Amoxicillin-clavulanate

- Doxy + metronidazole or clinda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If a patient has a dirty, contaminated, puncture or crush injury wound but they had their last tetanus booster 6 years ago, do they need a booster?

A

-YES! In these situation, give a booster if >5 years since last dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a patient has a dirty, contaminated, puncture or crush injury wound and does not know their immunization history, what should they be given?

A
  • Td + complete the series

- Also give tetanus immune globulin if person was unimmunized or not sure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What degree burn is painful, erythematous with blisters but does NOT blanch with pressure?

A

Deep partial thickness 2nd degree (epidermis and partial dermis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Burn that is painless, white or shared and does not blanch with pressure?

A

3rd degree (epidermis and full dermis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Burn that is painful, erythematous, no blisters and cap refill is in tact?

A

1st degree (just epidermis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the parkland formula?

A

4ml x (weight in kg) x (%BSA burned)

  • Half of this amount is given in the first 8 hours.
  • Second half given over the next 16 hours
  • In addition, need maintenance fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 2 features that distinguish heat stroke from heat exhaustion?

A

Heat stroke: body temp >104F and brain dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a J wave? When can it be seen?

A

small positive deflection after QRS complex

-hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is peak LFT elevation seen after an acetaminophen OD?

A

stage III (72 -96 hours after ingestion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tx of acetaminophen OD?

A
  • activated charcoal within 4 hours

- N-acetylcysteine (within 8 hours)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Treatment of beta blocker and CCB toxicity?

A
  • IV fluids
  • atropine
  • glucagon
  • calcium
  • insulin and glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tx for anticholinergic toxicity?

A

Physostigmine (you can FIX atropine OD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Digoxin toxicity?

A

change in color vision

  • prolonged PR
  • bradycardia
  • PVCs* (most common)
  • hyperkalemia (indicates severity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Heparin antidote?

A

protamine sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Isoniazid antidote?

A

Vitamin B6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sulfonylurea antidote?

A

octreotide and dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

TCA antidote?

A

sodium bicarbonate (QRS >100ms) and diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

First sign of aspirin overdose?

A

tinnitus

22
Q

Tx of aspirin toxicity?

A

charcoal, dialysis, sodium bicarbonate

23
Q

Treatment of methanol and ethylene glycol toxicity?

A

Fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor) or Ethanol

24
Q

At what INR do you consider vitamin K in a warfarin OD? What about FFP?

A
  • INR >5 –> oral vit K

- INR >20 –> IV Vit K and FFP

25
Q

What should NOT be given in a caustic ingestion?

A
  • anti-emetics
  • neutralizing agents
  • NG tube

can all lead to further damage.

26
Q

Symptoms of organophosphate poisoning?

A 
DUMBBELSS
Diarrhea
Urination
Mitosis
Bronchospasm
Bradycardia 
Emesis and Excitation of skeletal muscle 
Lacrimation 
Sweating 
Salivation
27
Q

Tx or organophosphate poisoning?

A
  • Atropine (anticholinergic)

- Pralidoxime (reactivates acetylcholinesterase)

28
Q

Tx for moderate lead toxicity in a kid (45-69mcg/dL)?

A

Succimer

29
Q

Tx for severe lead toxicity in a kid (>70mcg/dL)?

A

dimercaprol and calcium disodium edetate

30
Q

Tx of arsenic toxicity?

A

dimercaprol, succorer, penicillamine

31
Q

Tx of copper toxicity?

A

penicillamine

32
Q

Almond scented breath after exposure to a fire?

A

Cyanide toxicity

33
Q

Tx of cyanide toxicity?

A
  • sodium thiosulfate (facilitates conversion to thiocyanate to be excreted)
  • Hydroxocobalamin (form cyanocobalamin to be excreted)
  • Amyl nitrate and sodium nitrate (causes cyanometemoglobin)
34
Q

GCS Scale

A 
Eyes: 
4-open spontaneously
3-open to voice
2-open to pain
1-no opening 
Verbal 
5-oriented
4-confused
3-inappropriate words
2-incomprehensible sounds 
1-Nothing 
Motor
6-obey commands
5-localize
4-withdrawal 
3-flexion (decorticate) 
2-extension (decerebrate --> brainstem damage) 
1-Nothing
35
Q

What is Cushing’s triad?

A

-hypertension
-bradycardia
-bradypnea
(2/2 increased ICP)

36
Q

Treatment of elevated ICP after trauma?

A
  • Head of bed to 30 degrees
  • Mannitol
  • intubate and hyperventilate
  • Craniectomy
37
Q

Absent breath sound and hyper resonance on the left, distended neck veins and hypotension? Tx?

A
  • tension pneumothorax

- chest tube placement (preferred) or needle decompression

38
Q

What can an IV pyelogram detect?

A

injury to the renal pelvis

39
Q

What can a retrograde urethrogram detect?

A

urethral or bladder injury

40
Q

Blood seen at urethral meatus or high riding prostate on rectal exam? What should you NOT do?

A
  • suspect urethral rupture
  • Do NOT put in a foley
  • Retrograde urethrogram=imaging needed
41
Q

Next step in a pelvic fracture with DPL showing urine int he pelvis?

A

Urgent laparotomy

42
Q

Blunt abd trauma + unstable vitals +FAST showing no fluid in pelvis?

A

Ex lap

43
Q

Blunt abd trauma + unstable vitals + FAST inconclusive?

A

DPL

44
Q

Blunt abd trauma + stable vital signs?

A

CT abd/pelvis

45
Q

Signs of Elder abuse?

A

Can be malnutrition and bed sores

46
Q

What antibiotic prophylaxis should be given to a rape victim?

A
  • Ceftriaxone (gonorrhea)
  • Azithromycin or Doxycycline for chlamydia
  • Metronidazole for trichomoniasis
  • Heb B vaccine if not vaccinated
  • HIV prophylaxis for 3-7 days
47
Q

Post-op fever causes?

A 
Wind: pneumonia
Water: UTI
Walking: DVT and PE
Wound: infection 5-8 days later
Wonder drugs; antimicrobials, heparin, SSRIs
48
Q

What 2 infections are more common in neurosurgery?

A

Meningitis and DVT/PE (less anti-coagulation)

49
Q

During surgery, muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, rise in end-tidal CO2, cyanosis, tachycardia, DIC, acidosis…Cause?

A

Malignant hyperthermia (from inhaled anesthetics or succinylcholine)

50
Q

Treatment of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene
Cool the body
O2

Step 2/Level 2 (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions