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E-8C 2015 Pilot MQF Flashcards

1
Q

Do not pressurize _____ while servicing hydraulic reservoir. Injury to personnel may result.

A

bleed air system

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1C-7

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2
Q

Operation of APU bleed air in parallel with _____ or a ground air supply is prohibited.

A

either main engine bleed air

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1C-11

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3
Q

When an external DC power source is used to start APU, _____.

A

disconnect the APU battery prior to applying DC power.

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1C-19

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4
Q

Should the APU duct OVHT indicator not illuminate during the test, the detection system is _____.

A

considered inoperative and the APU should only be operated to generate electrical power.

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1C-19

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5
Q

When setting RUDDER switch to ON in flight, _____.

A

make sure rudder is in neutral (centered) position

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1H-12

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6
Q

Do not use wing anti-ice in flight at more than maximum cruise power if the total air temperature is above _____.

A

10 degrees C

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1K-7

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7
Q

Do not use wing anti-ice for takeoff or until reaching _____ feet above ground level (AGL).

A

1000

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1K-7

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8
Q

Use of the ignition system should not exceed _____ minutes.

A

10

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1K-10

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9
Q

For best results when engaging the autopilot, limit the rate of climb or descent to _____ feet per minute when engaging the altitude mode to prevent excessive overshoot of altitude.

A

500

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1T-10

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10
Q

During takeoff, windshear alerts are inhibited from the time the aircraft reaches _____ knots ground speed until the aircraft reaches _____.

A

100
50’ AGL

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1U-17

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11
Q

If sticking anti-icing valve does not open within 1 second at _____ N1, valve has failed.

A

40%

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1K-9

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12
Q

Failure to synchronize Baroset values between the _____ and _____ could result in unreliable operation of the altitude alerter.

A

CDU
Altimeters

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1L-8

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13
Q

If the weather radar is operating on the ground, maintain a _____-foot clearance from nose radome to any equipment being refueled or defueled to prevent possible ignition of fuel vapors. Also, maintain a _____-foot clearance from nose radome to ungrounded electro-explosive devices.

A

10
40

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1U-23

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14
Q

On a precision approach, do not inhibit glide slope alert [on GPWS] until _____.

A

clear of all clouds, and the runway is clearly in view

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1W-5

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15
Q

Diluter lever shall be set to _____ when setting SUPPLY lever to OFF. Failure to do so could cause ambient air/moisture to enter system.

A

100% OXYGEN

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1V-10

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16
Q

If possible, launch rafts over _____ to avoid damage from flaps. Do not allow raft to contact vortex generators.

A

leading edge of wing

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1X-11

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17
Q

Applicable takeoff and obstacle clearance data shall be recomputed if any weather or configuration change occurs greater than as follows:

A

Runway temp +/-2 degrees C
pressure altitude +/-500 feet
Gross weight +/-5000 lbs
Center of gravity (CG) +/-0.5%.

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-4

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18
Q

The manually operated valve on the utility hydraulic system shall be safety-wired to the_____ position prior to flight.

A

CLOSED

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-7

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19
Q

Do not shut down _____ system if INS/GPS/PME is receiving cooling from the VCM. Damage to equipment may result.

A

vapor cycle

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-12

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20
Q

During engine start, the first sign of combustion is a rise in EGT which should occur within _____ after start lever is advanced.

A

20 seconds

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-31

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21
Q

If there is no observed oil pressure within _____, start should be terminated.

A

30 seconds

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-32

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22
Q

Terminate start if no oil pressure is observed within _____ of start initiation.

A

30 sec

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-32

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23
Q

If blast deflector not available, clear area behind airplane a minimum of _____ feet for power settings up to 1.2 EPR and _____ for power settings above 1.2 EPR.

A

200
500

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-34

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24
Q

Ensure throttles are _____ and bleed valves are closed, prior to clearing ground crew to remove external air. Ground crew personnel may be injured if bleed air manifold is pressurized and the external air check valve fails.

A

idle

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-36

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25
Q

Fuel flow at light off above _____ pph (indicates impending hot start) and start lever should be set to CUTOFF.

A

1400

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-37

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26
Q

If EGT is rising rapidly or above _____, shut down the engine for Hot Start.

A

450 degrees C

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-37

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27
Q

Setting the draw thru system control switch to OVRD in-flight will cause the OVBD valve _____.

A

to open resulting in loss of cabin pressurization

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1J-41

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28
Q

(True/False) The PME temperature monitoring system provides a warning and automatically shuts down equipment to obtain Acceptable Performance Level (APL).

A

False

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1J-46

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29
Q

To prevent the possibility of the first generator tripping due to high generator loads and subsequent damage of equipment, advance throttle on corresponding engine to the first generator brought on line to a minimum of _____ % N2.

A

62

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-42

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30
Q

Do not operate ANTI-SKID TEST switch during taxi, takeoff, or landing. If brakes are in use, _____.

A

ANTI-SKID TEST switch releases one set of brakes

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-45

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31
Q

Using differential braking with nose gear steering causes excessive side loads on the _____.

A

nose strut

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-45

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32
Q

Minimum recommended turn width for a 180 degree turn is _____ feet.

A

120

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-46

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33
Q

Operate window heat in _____ for 10 minutes (if time permits) before setting to _____ to avoid damage to window.

A

LOW
HIGH

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 5-28

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34
Q

Do not engage yaw damper unless _____.

A

RUD indicator is centered

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-47

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35
Q

A rolling takeoff will be made with crosswinds greater than _____ knots.

A

20

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-49

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36
Q

Rolling takeoffs are permitted at all gross weights and are recommended for gross weights under _____ pounds.

A

230,000

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-49

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37
Q

(True/False) When refueling to a CG at or near the forward limit, the aircraft becomes pitch sensitive at airspeeds below 280 knots. A severe pitch oscillation can develop which, if not corrected, could cause tanker/receiver contact.

A

True

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 6-16

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38
Q

Check the rudder pressure drops to _____ psi when flaps are fully retracted.

A

2250

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-56

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39
Q

If one of the CADCs fails or is delivering erroneous data as indicated on the applicable altimeter, ensure the proper CADC is selected for _____.

A

IFF altitude reporting

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1L-7

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40
Q

Recommended turbulence penetration airspeed is _____ Mach or _____ KIAS whichever is lower.

A

.80(+/- 0.01)
290

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-62

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41
Q

Engine flameout can occur if airplane pitch attitude exceeds _____ degrees nose up or _____ degrees nose down when any main tank contains less than 2500 pounds.

A

8
10

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 7-4

42
Q

Minimum fuel procedures are required when any main tank contains less than _____ lbs.

A

2500

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-70

43
Q

If total wind adjustment for headwind and gust exceeds _____ knots, add only _____ knots to Vref.

A

20
20

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-72

44
Q

Touchdown during landing should occur approximately _____ knots below Vref at a body angle slightly above the approach body angle.

A

5

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-79

45
Q

Use of excessive reverse thrust below _____ knots will result in ingestion of exhaust gases causing engine surges.

A

60

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-81

46
Q

At normal landing speeds, each second of delay in brake application adds approximately _____ feet to landing distance.

A

250

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-81

47
Q

Normal maximum landing weight is _____ pounds at a maximum sink rate of 600 feet per minute (structural limit).

A

247,000

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-82

48
Q

If brake energy exceeds _____ million foot-pounds per brake, replacement of tires, wheels, and brakes is required.

A

28

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-82

49
Q

Engine acceleration from idle to go-around thrust can take up to _____ seconds.

A

10

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-86

50
Q

Ensure the TURBOFAN EXIT VALVE OVRD switches are placed to _____ prior to passing _____.

A

NORMAL
5,000 feet AGL

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-56

51
Q

For crash landing or ditching, personnel in forward facing crew rest seats take bracing position with _____.

A

seat belt fastened
head down
feet flat on floor
arms clasped under knees.

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1W-40

52
Q

For crash landing or ditching, personnel in aft facing crew rest seats take bracing position with _____.

A
  • back against back rest
  • feet flat on floor
  • arms braced against knees

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1W-40

53
Q

During recovery from unusual attitudes, maximum roll rate can be obtained by using partial speed brake as follows:

A
  • If airspeed is above 310 KIAS, use 30 degrees setting.
  • If airspeed is between 275 and 310 KIAS, use 35 degrees setting.
  • If airspeed is between 250 and 275 KIAS, use 40 degrees setting.

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 7-5

54
Q

If the LOW RPM light illuminates on the ground (or fails to extinguish during engine start), _____.

A

shut down the engine and call maintenance

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 3A-15

55
Q

The maximum N1 limit (red line) is _____%.

A

110

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 5-5

56
Q

The maximum allowable EGT (red line) is _____ degrees C.

A

575

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 5-5

57
Q

The Continuous Operation (Green) EGT is _____ degrees C.

A

340-510

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 5-5

58
Q

The normal operating range for the utility system is _____ psi.

A

2850-3150

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 5-6

59
Q

The normal pressure operating range (interconnect off) for the rudder hydraulic pressure gage (auxiliary system) is _____ psi.

A

2750-3150

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 5-6

60
Q

The maximum oil temperature for continuous operation is _____ degrees C.

A

132

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 5-7

61
Q

The maximum in-flight weight with reserve tanks empty is _____ pounds.

A

280,000

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 5-8

62
Q

The maximum speed for emergency gear operation is _____.

A

320 KIAS - 0.83M

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 5-8

63
Q

Maximum hydraulic system pressure is _____ PSI.

A

3,500

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 5-9

64
Q

(Cabin) Pressure relief valve differential pressure limitation is _____ (+0.15) psi.

A

9.42

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 5-9

65
Q

During touch-and-go maneuvers, the PWS may not cycle from takeoff to approach modes unless the landing gear is cycled and the airplane climbs above _____ for longer than _____.

A

2,400 feet AGL
35 seconds

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 7-6

66
Q

Dutch roll damping is degraded at _____ settings with the yaw damper inoperative. Combined with turbulence or loss of an engine, aircraft control may be impossible.

A

higher altitudes
lower airspeeds
greater flap settings

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 6-11

67
Q

Takeoff Rated Thrust (TRT) and Go-around Thrust are limited to _____ minutes of operation.

A

5

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 5-10

68
Q

The engine oil temperature may indicate in the range between 132 degrees C and 143 degrees C for a period not to exceed _____.

A

10 minutes

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 5-10

69
Q

Crews will request _____ approval to land when thunderstorms are within 10 NM.

A

OG/CC

Ref: 11-2E-8 Vol. 3 116 Sup 1 Pg: 21 Para: 1.11.17

70
Q

(True/False) Speed bugs may be set at the pilots discretion provided one bug is set at V1 for takeoff and Vref for approaches.

A

True

Ref: 11-2E-8 Vol. 3 116 Sup 1 Pg: 16 Para: 1.11.5.2

71
Q

Crews will enter an AFTO 781A write up any time EGT reaches _____.

A

570 degrees Celsius

Ref: 11-2E-8 Vol. 3 116 Sup 1 Pg: 16 Para: 1.11.6.2

72
Q

A certified aircraft commander touch and go may be accomplished with the following minimums:

A

1000/3
RCR 23

day, three engine full stop only

Ref: 11-2E-8 Vol. 3 116 Sup 1 Pg: 17 Para: Table 1.1

73
Q

During Air Refueling, as the aircraft closes to within _____, the IFF will be set to STBY and the TCAS will enter STANDBY mode, eliminating the aircraft target diamond on the display. If unable to establish/maintain radar contact by _____, TCAS may be left on up to _____.

A

3 NM
3 NM
1 NM

Ref: 11-2E-8 Vol. 3 116 Sup 1 Pg: 21 Para: 1.11.16.6.2

74
Q

The E-8 may operate in RNP-10 airspace when the following conditions are met:

A
  • The INU-only navigation mode is selected for the steering solution. Other navigation modes may not be used for operations in RNP-10 airspace.
  • Updates will be IAW RNP/BRNAV update and contingency procedures in this volume.

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 26 Para: 4.21.9.1

75
Q

Seat swaps to assist in the accomplishment of training events are allowable with the following criteria:

A
  • One pilot guards controls and throttles during swap.
  • Two of the three flight deck primary seats will be occupied throughout the swap.
  • During air refueling, aircraft is stabilized aft of the pre-contact position

Ref: 11-2E-8 Vol. 3 116 Sup 1 Pg: 14 Para: 1.11.1.5

76
Q

(True/False) All normal full stop landings will be planned to not exceed the normal brake energy or landing distance limits.

A

True

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 17 Para: 4.2.13.1

77
Q

Takeoff maximum crosswind on a wet runway is _____ knots.

A

20

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 16 Para: 4.2.9.2

78
Q

Aircraft will not takeoff or land when reported RCR is less than _____. The OG/CC has the authority to waive the minimum RCR to _____ when operational necessity warrants.

A

10
7

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 16 Para: 4.2.8

79
Q

Minimum taxiway width is _____ feet, unless waived by the OG/CC or higher.

A

75

Ref: Pg: 15

80
Q

(True/False) Simulated engine failure takeoff continued maneuvers are prohibited above 200’ AGL.

A

False

Ref: 11-2E-8 Vol. 3 116 Sup 1 Pg: 17

81
Q

(True/False) Vref is 120% of the stall speed at any flap setting and is used as the basis for computing approach and threshold speeds.

A

False

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1-1 Pg: 7-3

82
Q

During night parking, _____ should be avoided until after the aircraft is chocked.

A

overhead flight deck lighting

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 21 Para: 4.9.3

83
Q

(True/False) Prior to descent or approach, E-8 aircraft using visual requirements only must have visibility of 2400 feet (800 m) or published minimums, whichever is higher, to start a published straight-in, sidestep approach or en route descent.

A

True

Ref: 11-202 Vol 3 Pg: 91 Para: 8.17.1

84
Q

Emergency landing fuel is _____ pounds.

A

10,000

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 19 Para: 4.5.4.2

85
Q

Minimum landing fuel is _____ pounds.

A

12,000

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 19 Para: 4.5.4.1

86
Q

Pilots will neither file a flight plan route nor fly into an area of known or forecast thunderstorm activity when the _____ is inoperative or unusable and thunderstorm activity cannot be visually circumnavigated.

A

Weather radar

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 15 Para: 4.1.3

87
Q

With any axis of the autopilot inoperative, limit the aircrew duty period to _____ hours and the augmented aircrew duty period to _____ hours.

A

12
16

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 8 Para: 3.3.1

88
Q

(True/False) Due to the long flights and numerous time zone changes involved in flying to and from overseas locations, ground time between landing and subsequent takeoff will not be planned for less than 18 hours, unless waived by OG/CC or equivalent.

A

True

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 8-9 Para: 3.3.1.2

89
Q

(True/False) Once all tech order emergency procedures are completed, aircrew may conduct in-flight troubleshooting.

A

False

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 18 Para: 4.3.3

90
Q

Critical phases of flight are defined as takeoff, air refueling, approach, landing, emergencies and flight below _____ feet AGL.

A

5000

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 11 Para: 3.8

91
Q

Do not fly in _____ icing conditions any time.

A

Reported severe

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 15 Para: 4.1.1.5.3

92
Q

(True/False) Do not fly in areas of forecast or reported moderate turbulence.

A

False

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 15 Para: 4.1.2

93
Q

No crewmember will use the term _____ when communicating with external agencies, until specifically authorized by the AC.

A

Emergency

Ref: 11-2E-8 Vol 3 Pg: 18 Para: 4.3

94
Q

If at any time on final approach an aural “Go
Around, Windshear Ahead” is sounded or the
red WINDSHEAR warning annunciator is
displayed, the pilot _____ go around.

A

Will

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1U-18

95
Q

(True/False) The AC is responsible for active monitoring of fuel status (normally record fuel state at each turn point or every hour as applicable).

A

True

Ref: 11-2E-8 Vol. 3 116 Sup 1 Pg: 19

96
Q

Before actuation of the gear or flaps, the pilot flying _____ call for the movement of the gear or flaps as applicable.

A

Will

Ref: AFI 11-2E8V3 Pg: 21

97
Q

Evacuate airplane using ground evacuation checklist anytime brake energy_____.

A

Above 28 million foot pounds

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 5-21

98
Q

If aircraft is moved prior to INU entering NAV mode, a realignment is necessary after a minimum_____ shutdown period.

A

30 Second

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 1Q-17

99
Q

Prior to selecting mission mode, coordinate with _____ . Once mission mode is selected, normal radio control will be lost until _____ is complete if not previously accomplished.

A

ART/CST
CPOD download

Ref: T.O. 1E-8C-1 Pg: 2-57

100
Q

Do not taxi an aircraft within _____ of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _____.

A

25ft
10ft

Ref: 11-2E-8 Vol 3 Pg: 23 Para: 4.13.1

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