Drugs - Mechanisms II Flashcards

1
Q

methylcellulose

A

bulk forming laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Desvenlafaxine

A

SNRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tiagabine

A

GABA reuptake inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

magnesium compounds

A

osmotic laxatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Gabapentin

A

inhibits high voltage activate Ca channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ketoconazole

A

inhibits 17-alpha hydroxylase –> decreased steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Imipramine

A

TCA –> SNRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

-azine

A

1st gen antipsychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

chlorpheniramine

A

1st gen H1 blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Entacapone and tolcapone

A

inhibits COMT –> reduced peripheral L-DOPA degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Anastrozole

A

Aromatase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sucralfate

A

binds to peptic ulcer base –> protects –> bicarb secretion reestablishes pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Sevelamer

A

non-absorbable phosphate binder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Riluzolone

A

decreased glutamate excitotocity in ALS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

doxylamine

A

1st gen H1 blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Bromocriptine

A

Ergot dopamine agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Levetiracetam

A

SV2A receptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Procarbazine

A

mechanism unknown, weak MAO inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Selegiline

A

Selective MAO-B inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Liraglutide

A

(GLP-1 analog) decrease glucagon release, decrease gastric emptying, and increase glucose dependent insulin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Methimazole

A

thionamide, blocks thyroid peroxidase (teratogenic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

-raf-enib

A

BRAF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Conivaptan

A

ADH antaogonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Afitinib

A

EGFR inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Acarbose

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitor in brush border –> decreased absoprtion –> decreased postprandial hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ketamine

A

NMDA antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Fluoxetine

A

SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Megestrol

A

Progestin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Succinylcholine

A

strong ACh receptor agonist –> sustained depolarization –> prevents contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

benzodiazapenes

A

increase GABAa activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Probenecid

A

Inhibits uric acid reabsorption in the PCT and inhibits secretion of penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sulfasalazine

A

combo antibacterial and anti-inflammatory (used for crohns and colitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Etoposide, teniposide

A

topoisomerase II inhibitors –> DNA degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

SGLT2 inhibitors (-gliflozins)

A

block reabsorption of glucose in PCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Finasteride

A

5-alpha reductase inhibitor –> decreased conversion of testosterone to DHT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Baclofen

A

GABAb agonist in spinal cord –> decreased spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Allopurinol

A

xanthine oxidase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Dabigatran

A

Direct factor IIa inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Carbadopa

A

inhibits DOPA decarboxylase –> reduced peripheral L-DOPA degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Levomilnacipran

A

SNRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cation exchange resins (e.g. patiromer)

A

bind K in colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Argatroban

A

Direct factor IIa inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Venlafaxine

A

SNRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Arepitant

A

Substance Pantagonist, blocks NK1 receptors in brain –> antiemetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Odansetron

A

5-HT3 antagonist –> decreased vagal stimulation –> antiemetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Vilazodone

A

Atypical antidepressant; inhibits 5-HT reuptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Phenobarbital

A

increases GABAa activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Mifepristone

A

anti-progestin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Selegiline and rasagiline

A

MAO-B inhibitor –> prevents dopamine degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Acetazolamide

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor –> bicarb diuresis and alkaline urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Sertlraline

A

SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Metoclopramide

A

D2 receptor antagonist –> increased resting tone and contractility –> promotes motility and gastric emptying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Propofol

A

potentiates GABAa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Escitalopram

A

SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Bisacodyl

A

enteric nerve stimulation –> laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Senna

A

enteric nerve stimulation –> laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Cyclobenzaprine

A

Acts mainly in brain stem to reduce spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Abiraterone

A

inhibits 17-alpha hydroxylase –> decreased steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Vigabatrin

A

inhibits GABA transaminase –> increased GABA (black box for vision loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Histrelin

A

GnRH analog (agonist when pulsatile, inhibitory when continuous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Amoxapine

A

TCA –> SNRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Nafarelin

A

GnRH analog (agonist when pulsatile, inhibitory when continuous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Danazol

A

synthetic androgen –> partial agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

polyethylene glycol

A

osmotic laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

-curonium

A

competetive ACh antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Torsemide

A

loop diuretic; inhibits Na/K/2Cl cotransporter in TAL (also Ca loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Alectinib

A

ALK inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Prasugrel

A

Blocks ADP receptor –> decreased expression of GpIIb/IIIa –> decreased platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Busulfan

A

alkylating agent –> cross-links DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Fludrocortisone

A

aldosterone analog with glucocorticoid effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Teriparatide

A

PTH analog; pulsatile dose activates osteoblasts (used in osteoporososis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Ruxolitinib

A

JAK1/2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Letrozole

A

Aromatase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Erlotinib

A

EGFR inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Midazolam

A

facilitates GABAa (benzodiazapine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Clomiphene

A

Estrogen receptor modulator; antagonist in hypothalamus –> blocks negative feedback –> increased LH and FSH –> ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Butorphanol

A

kappa-opioid agonist and partial mu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Bisphosphonates (-dronate)

A

pyrophosphate analogs –> bind hydroxyapatite –> inhibit osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

GLP-1 analogs

A

decrease glucagon release, decrease gastric emptying, and increase glucose dependent insulin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Carbamazapine

A

blocks Na channels (anti-epileptic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Thiopental

A

facilitates GABAa (barbiturate)

82
Q

Orlistat

A

inhibits gastric and pancreatic lipase –> decreased absorption of dietary fat

83
Q

Spironolactone

A

Competitive aldosterone antagonist; K sparing Diuretic; also androgen receptor and synthesis inhibitor

84
Q

Tetrabenzine

A

inhibits monamine transporter –> decreased dopamine (in HD)

85
Q

-gliptin

A

DPP-4 inhibitors –> prevents GLP-1 inactivation –> decrease glucagon release, decrease gastric emptying, and increase glucose dependent insulin release

86
Q

Levonorgestrel

A

Progestin

87
Q

Loperimide

A

mu-opioid agonist with poor CNS penetration –> slows gut mobility

88
Q

Leuprolide

A

GnRH analog (agonist when pulsatile, inhibitory when continuous)

89
Q

Pramipexole

A

non-ergot dopamine agonist

90
Q

dipyridamole

A

blocks platelet phosphodiesterase –> decreased cAMP –> decreased aggregation

91
Q

Duloxetine

A

SNRI

92
Q

Mirtazapine

A

Atypical antidepressant; alpha2 antagonist –> increased NE and 5-HT release; potent 5-HT2/3 antagonist; H1 antagonist

93
Q

Pramlintind

A

Amylin analog –> decreased glucagon release and gastric emptying

94
Q

bismuth

A

binds to peptic ulcer base –> protects –> bicarb secretion reestablishes pH

95
Q

Platinum compounds

A

cross-link DNA

96
Q

Palbociclib

A

CDK 4/6

97
Q

Liothyronine

A

T3 replacement

98
Q

Cochicine

A

binds and stabilizes tubulin –> impaired neutrophil chemotaxis

99
Q

Endothelin antagonists (e.g. Bosentan)

A

decreased PVR

100
Q

Doxorubicin

A

anthracyline; free radical formation, DNA intercalation, and inhibition of topoisomerase II

101
Q

Suggamadex

A

reverses ACh receptor blockade

102
Q

Memantine

A

NMDA antagonist –> decreased excitotoxicity in AD

103
Q

-adine

A

2nd gen H1 blockers

104
Q

Pegloticase

A

Recombinant uricase, converts uric acid to allantoin (more water soluble)

105
Q

Flutamide and Bicalutamide

A

competitive inhibitor at androgen receptor

106
Q

Paroxetine

A

SSRI

107
Q

Goserelin

A

GnRH analog (agonist when pulsatile, inhibitory when continuous)

108
Q

Bumetanide

A

loop diuretic; inhibits Na/K/2Cl cotransporter in TAL (also Ca loss)

109
Q

Local anasthetics

A

bind voltage gated N channels –> block neurotransmission

110
Q

Ethosuximide

A

Blocks thalamic T-type Ca channels (absence seizures)

111
Q

Pentazocine

A

kappa-opioid agonist and weak mu antagonist (or partial agonist)

112
Q

Ironotecan. and topotecan

A

topoisomerase I inhibitors –> DNA degradation

113
Q

Eplerenone

A

Competitive aldosterone antsagonist; K sparing Diuretic

114
Q

Isocarboxazid

A

MAO-I

115
Q

Diphenhydramine

A

1st gen H1 blocker

116
Q

-prazole

A

Proton pump inhibitors

117
Q

Exemestane

A

Aromatase inhibitor

118
Q

Ticlopidine

A

Blocks ADP receptor –> decreased expression of GpIIb/IIIa –> decreased platelet aggregation

119
Q

buspirone

A

partial 5HT agonist (used for anxiety)

120
Q

Democlocycline

A

interferes with ADH signalling

121
Q

Edoxaban

A

Direct factor Xa inhibitor

122
Q

Dimenhydrinate

A

1st gen H1 blocker

123
Q

Clopidogrel

A

Blocks ADP receptor –> decreased expression of GpIIb/IIIa –> decreased platelet aggregation

124
Q

Citalopram

A

SSRI

125
Q

Cinacalcet

A

Sensitizes CaSR in parathryoid to Ca –> decrease PTH

126
Q

Dextromethorphan

A

antagonizes NMDA receptors, mild opioid in excess

127
Q

Febuxostat

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

128
Q

Lamotrigine

A

Blocks voltage gated Na channels, inhibits glutamate release

129
Q

Bivalirudin

A

Direct factor IIa inhibitor

130
Q

Clomipramine

A

TCA –> SNRI

131
Q

Ethacrynic acid

A

non-sulfa loop diuretic (no allergy but more ototoxicity)

132
Q

Levothyroxine

A

T4 replacement

133
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide

A

Thiazide diuretic; inhibits NaCl reabsorption in early DCT (decrease Ca excretion and diluting capacity)

134
Q

Zileuton

A

5-Lipoxygenase inhibitor –> decreased Leukotrienes

135
Q

Ticagrelor

A

Blocks ADP receptor –> decreased expression of GpIIb/IIIa –> decreased platelet aggregation

136
Q

Tranylcypromine

A

MAO-I

137
Q

Metolazone

A

Thiazide diuretic; inhibits NaCl reabsorption in early DCT (decrease Ca excretion and diluting capacity)

138
Q

Psyllium

A

bulk forming laxative

139
Q

Desipriamine

A

TCA –> SNRI

140
Q

Amantadine

A

increased dopamine release and decrease uptake

141
Q

-sartan

A

ARBs

142
Q

Pseudoephedrine

A

alpha agonist in nasal mucosa

143
Q

Bleomycin

A

free radicals –> DNA strand breaks

144
Q

Amitriptyline

A

TCA –> SNRI

145
Q

Chlorthalidone

A

Thiazide diuretic; inhibits NaCl reabsorption in early DCT (decrease Ca excretion and diluting capacity)

146
Q

Phenytoin

A

Blocks Na channels (zero order kinetics)

147
Q

Sumatriptan

A

5HT agonist –> inhibits trigeminal nerve activation (treats headaches)

148
Q

Cell cycle specificity of antimetabolites

A

S phase

149
Q

Trazadone

A

Atypical antidepressant; blocks 5-HT2, alpha1 and H1

150
Q

norethindrone

A

Progestin

151
Q

-glinide

A

Meglitinides, like sulfonylureas, close K channels –> depolarize –> Ca influx –> inulin release

152
Q

Misoprostol

A

PGE1 analog –> increased gastric mucous barrier and decreased acid production

153
Q

Vortioxetine

A

Atypical antidepressant, inhibits 5HT reuptake

154
Q

Topiramate

A

Blocks Na channels, increases GABA action

155
Q

Tramadol

A

weak opioid and SNRI

156
Q

Desmopressin

A

ADH analaog

157
Q

Bupropion

A

Atypical antidepressant; inhibits NE and D uptake

158
Q

Milnacipran

A

SNRI

159
Q

Pomozide

A

1st gen antipsychotic

160
Q

Tamoxifen

A

Estrogen receptor modulator; Antagonist in breast, partial agonist in uterus and bone

161
Q

Cilostazol

A

blocks platelet phosphodiesterase –> decreased cAMP –> decreased aggregation

162
Q

Degarelix

A

GnRH antagonist (no start up flare –> good for cancer)

163
Q

octreotide

A

somatostatin analog

164
Q

Nitrosoureas (-mustine)

A

alkylating agent –> cross-links DNA (cross BBB)

165
Q

Furosemide

A

loop diuretic; inhibits Na/K/2Cl cotransporter in TAL (also Ca loss)

166
Q

Tolvaptan

A

ADH antagonist

167
Q

Propylthiouracil

A

thionamide, blocks thyroid peroxidase and T4 –> T3 conversion

168
Q

Cimetidine

A

H2 blocker –> decreased H+ secretion by parietal cells

169
Q

Leflunomide

A

reversibly inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase –> prevents pyrimidine synthesis –> suppresses T cell proliferation

170
Q

Abciximab

A

blocks GpIIb/IIIa on activated platelets (fibrinogen receptor)

171
Q

Doxepin

A

TCA –> SNRI

172
Q

ulipristal

A

anti-progestin

173
Q

Aliskiren

A

direct Renin inhibitor

174
Q

Varenicline

A

Atypical antidepressant; nicotinic Ach receptor partial agonist (smoking cessation)

175
Q

Celoxib

A

Selective COX-2 inhibition (spares GI lining unlike other NSAIDS)

176
Q

Raloxifene

A

Estrogen receptor modulator; Antagonist in breast and uterus, partial agonist in bone –> used for osteoperosis

177
Q

Aripiprazole

A

2nd gen (atypical) antipsychotic (partial agonist though)

178
Q

cyclophosphamide

A

alkylating agent –> cross-links DNA

179
Q

Amiloride

A

Block Na channels in cortical CT; K sparing diuretic

180
Q

-apine and -idone

A

2nd gen (atypical) antipsychotics

181
Q

Exantide

A

(GLP-1 analog) decrease glucagon release, decrease gastric emptying, and increase glucose dependent insulin release

182
Q

Fluvoxamine

A

SSRI

183
Q

etonogestrel

A

Progestin

184
Q

Gefitinib

A

EGFR inhibitor

185
Q

lactulose

A

osmotic laxative

186
Q

Miglitol

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitor in brush border –> decreased absoprtion –> decreased postprandial hyperglycemia

187
Q

Phenelzine

A

MAO-I

188
Q

Rivaroxaban

A

Direct factor Xa inhibitor

189
Q

Docusate

A

emmolient laxative (incorporation of water and fat)

190
Q

Ropinorole

A

non-ergot dopamine agonist

191
Q

Apixaban

A

Direct factor Xa inhibitor

192
Q

Nizatidine

A

H2 blocker –> decreased H+ secretion by parietal cells

193
Q

phenylephrine

A

alpha agonist in nasal mucosa

194
Q

haloperidol

A

1st gen antipsychotic

195
Q

Mestranol

A

estrogen

196
Q

Famotidine

A

H2 blocker –> decreased H+ secretion by parietal cells

197
Q

Valproic Acid

A

Na channel activation, inhibits GABA transaminase –> increased GABA

198
Q

Nortriptyline

A

TCA –> SNRI

199
Q

-pril

A

ACE inhibitors

200
Q

Triamterine

A

Block Na channels in cortical CT; K sparing diuretic