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Policy > DPM424, DP425, DP334, DP361, DPM363, DP705, DPM900, DP307, DP740, DP741, DP742, DM703, DP745, DP747, DM-740, CPM-4211 > Flashcards

DPM424, DP425, DP334, DP361, DPM363, DP705, DPM900, DP307, DP740, DP741, DP742, DM703, DP745, DP747, DM-740, CPM-4211 Flashcards

1
Q

Criminal barricade?

A

suspected of crime
refused to submit to authority
denying them entry or approach
DPM424

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2
Q

Will the mere presence of a senior officer imply command on a tac situation?

A

NO

DPM424

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3
Q

On a tac response what does the supervisor do?

A 
assesses
reinforces perimeter/ removes unauthorized persons
confirms evac and medical
determines need for special units
est CP
crisis entry team
DPM424
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4
Q

In case of department mobilization how do subordiantes get notified?

A

Via phone from there supervisor

DP425

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5
Q

ON a level 3 mobilization what is the average % of special units used?

A

50%

DP425

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6
Q

Staging areas for dept mobilization

A 
East - Black Mtn rec
west - silver springs rec
North - whitney ranch rec
For a level 3 where directed by IC
DP425
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7
Q

Where is the mass arrest Kit?

A

East Station

DP425

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8
Q

Reasons for Amber ALert 5

A 
missing under 18 (includes adult with mental issues)
LE thinks child in danger
Confirmed abduction
Enough descriptive info, car etc
activated within 2 hours
DP334
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9
Q

Amber alert does the parent have to agree to amber alert

A

NO if not avaliable, but must ask for consent to release photos
DP334

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10
Q

Who can authorize an AMBER alert?

A

IC or Detective Dureau supervisor
DP334
Elvis lives

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11
Q

ICS

A 
Command - CP
Operations - evac/ perimeters
Logistics - comms/ med/ supplies
Planning - IAP
Finance - recording tim/ geting resouces
DP361
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12
Q

Who else reports to IC? 3

A

Info, Liaison, Safety

DP361

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13
Q

Who determines if and when forced entry will be made to conduct and evac?

A

IC
DPM363
Misd for disobeying a lawfull evac request

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14
Q

where is the MCV stored

A

Station 97 on amador
DP705
Traffic LT incharge

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15
Q

Who takes control of a Mass arrest scene?

A

Lt or watch commander

DPM900

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16
Q

What is the purpose of a mass arrest?

A

to return order ASAP

DPM900

17
Q

What equipment can be used to transport passive arrestees at a mass arrest situation?

A

strecher

DPM900

18
Q

how long for the IC to complete report for mass arrest?

A

10 days

DPM900

19
Q

how often do you need OC spray training

A

Bi-anually

DP307

20
Q

When may OC be used? 2

A

verbal attempts have failed
signaled that intend to activly resist
DP307

21
Q

acidental OC sprays are they reported to supervisor?

A

Yes

DP307

22
Q

When can an officer carry his firearm concelaed?

A

After off probation

DP740

23
Q

Can an officer remove his loaded firearm from his holster for a supervisor inspection?

A

Yes

DP741

24
Q

For Dom Bat suspect, protection order service or dom bat convictions who must you notify?

A

Supervisor for suspect in dom bat and protction order, immediatly and chief via memo by chain for conviction, drop off guns upon conviction
DP743

25
Q

When is a report required when discharging a firearm? 4

A

-Anytime invoke their police powers on or off duty
-accidental discharge, any fire arm includes Less lethal
-accidental discharge off-duty in CoH facility
DP742
Not tasers

26
Q

Some info included in HPD#14? 5

A

-weapon info
-direction of shots
-description of thing fired at, race, descriptors
-moving standing
-results
DP742
Routed up to chief via chain

27
Q

Upon conviction of Dom Bat who do you give firearms to?

A

IA

DM703

28
Q

non-lethal training can be conducted by:

A

Sims or marking cartridges - firearms instructor only (fire arm instructors must load)
Paint ball or air soft - supervisor
DP745
must have safety brief before

29
Q

Somethings Officer needs or should do when deploying Low Lethality Munitions?

A

-advises super if possible
-alerts all officers on scene, if possible
-seek immediate med attention
DP747

30
Q

Adult: 16 years old is an adult if?

A

16 or older when the sexual assault or attempted assult was committed
DP1099

31
Q

CALEA what does it stand for?

A

Commission on Accreditaditon for Law Enforcment Agencies

DP1099

32
Q

CHRI what does it stand for?

A

Criminal History Record Information

DP1099

33
Q

General Order?

A

Directive which establishes a rule regultaiton, policy or procedure
DP1099

34
Q

“Saint Clinic”

A

CCJH for sexual abuse investigations team

DP1099

Policy (13 decks)

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