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NAVLE > Dog/Cat > Flashcards

Dog/Cat Flashcards

1
Q

Cat presents with head tilt, circling, horizontal nystagmus- what should you do first

A

Otic exam- vestibular dz can be peripheral or central

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2
Q

Besides an otic exam, what is another quick diagnostic that should be performed on a vestibular-presenting patient

A

Blood pressure- vascular accident important to r/o

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3
Q

What is the risk increase of delayed spay

A

8% greater risk after one heat, 26% greater risk after 2, no decrease in risk if spayed after 3rd

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4
Q

What feline URT pathogen causes oral ulcers

A

Calicivirus

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5
Q

Herpes virus in cats causes

A

ocular and dendritic ulcers

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6
Q

Name 4 guidelines for when to treat VPCs

A

HR >180, >20 seconds run, pulse deficits, clinically affected

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7
Q

What class of drug is mexilitine

A

oral class I anti-arrhythmic

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8
Q

What pre-med causes marked splenic dilation with blood and a corresponding decrease in hematocrit concentration

A

Acepromazine- splenomegaly and decreased Hgb concentration

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9
Q

The most commonly reported organisms recovered in animals with endocarditis include :

A

Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus sp., Corynebacterium sp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Erysipelothrix, E. coli, and Bartonella sp.

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10
Q

Describe boxer cardiomyopathy

A

electrical disease causing frequent VPCs to occur. Dilation of the heart may occur in 10-15% of cases. The best way to diagnose Boxer cardiomyopathy is with a 24 hour cardiac Holter monitor.

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11
Q

Why are cats particularly sensitive to acetaminophen

A

Decreased glucuronyl transferase activity which conjugates acetaminophen to glucuronic acid for excretion

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12
Q

Warfarin tx goal

A

1.5-2x normal PT

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13
Q

Name a tumor which is often testosterone-dependent

A

Perianal adenoma

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14
Q

Doxy in young- SE

A

Delayed bone growth, teeth discoloration

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15
Q

Major SE cyclophosphamide, cause of it, prevention

A

Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis from breakdown product acrolein, keep hydrated, freq urination (think bladder is round- cyclo)

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16
Q

Doxorubicin major SE

A

Cardiotoxicity

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17
Q

L-asparginase major SE

A

Anaphylaxis

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18
Q

Major SE carboplatin

A

nephrotoxicity

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19
Q

Major SE vinctistine

A

Ileus

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20
Q

Normal water intake

A

10-60mL/kg/d

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21
Q

Cushings avg water intake

A

80-100 mL/kg/d

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22
Q

Chemo drug causes cardiotoxicity

A

Doxo

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23
Q

Chemo drug causes anaphylaxis

A

L-spar

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24
Q

Chemo drug causes sterile hemorrhagic cystitis

A

cyclophosphamide

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25
Q

Chemo drug causes ileus

A

Vincristine (think- vincrisTINE intesTINE)

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26
Q

Chemo drug causes nephrotoxicity

A

Carboplatin

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27
Q

Ketoconazole SE

A

HEpatotoxic- elev liver enz, p450 inhibitor, adrenal insufficiency (remeber: tx for cushings), anoerxia (esp cats)

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28
Q

Which mites cause pustules

A

ONLY demodex

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29
Q

Effects of phenothiazines

A

Sedation, hypotension, decreased hematocrit d/t splenic sequestration, decreased myocardial sensitivity to catecholamine induced arrhythmias

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30
Q

Most common ear pathogen and the three next most frequent

A

Staph. pseudintermedius; often: pseudomonas, e.coli, proteus

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31
Q

Drug of choice- myasthenia gravis

A

Pyridostigmine (Ach inhibitor- anticholinesterase); can also use corticosteroids to reduce immune attack on Ach receptors

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32
Q

What direction do GDVs rotate

A

Counter clockwise when looking at patient from cr-cau

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33
Q

Four components of nephrotic syndrome

A

proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, hypercholesterolemia, ascites/edema

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34
Q

Why is hypercoaguability seen in PLNs

A

loss of antithrombin III

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35
Q

Name drugs causing KCS

A

Sulfas, atropine (chronic), etodolac

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36
Q

Human rabies exposure vax protocol

A

Human IG injection then 4 RV vax

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37
Q

What is pannus

A

Chronic superficial keratitis, GSDs with UV light exposure altering corneal proteins leading to corneal melanosis

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38
Q

Result of tx with too much allopurinol, explain physiology

A

Xanthine stones- this Rx treats urates in dalmatians by inhibiting xanthine oxidase which makes xanthine metabolites, stops purine metab preventing high uric acid production, but if too high xanthine accumulates

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39
Q

Pradofloxacin contraindications, SE

A

Dogs! Causes bone marrow suppresison

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40
Q

What kind of drug is PPA, actions

A

weak alpha agonist; increased urethral sphincter tone

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41
Q

What breed is predisposed to Canine familial dermatomyositis

A

Collies and shelties

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42
Q

Name an adrenergic vasoconstrictor

A

Epinephrine, phenylephrine

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43
Q

Function of isoproterenol

A

Vasodilation

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44
Q

Vasopressin- type of drug, effect

A

non-adrenergic (V-1 receptor) vasoconstrictor

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45
Q

What nerve is responsible for lacrimation

A

CN 7 (Facial)

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46
Q

Most common skin tumor in the dog

A

Sebaceous gland tumor- (seb hyperplasia, esp epithelioma, seb adenoma, seb adeno carc)- wart/cauliflower appearance, limb/trunk/eyelids, <1cm, cocker, beagle, poodle, mini schnauz

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47
Q

What agent is most common bacterial cause of pyoderma

A

Staph pseudintermedius

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48
Q

Sex predilection for agasaca and addisons

A

Female

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49
Q

Three common organisms in kennel cough

A

Bordetella, mycoplasma, influenza

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50
Q

Max safe K supplementation rate dog

A

0.5 mEq/kg/hr (higher = fatal arrhythmia)

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51
Q

What part of the bone is most common in OSA

A

Metaphysis- most metabolically active

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52
Q

Spherules on cytology pathognomonic for

A

Coccidiomycosis

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53
Q

Any pre healthy dog with acute dyspnea and unremarkable rads should have what as a ddx

A

PTE (split second heart sound from pulmonary hypertension)

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54
Q

What org is best seen on dark field microscopy and why

A

Lepto- poorly staining gram neg

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55
Q

Ddx lytic/proliferative lesions that cross joint

A

Fungal/bacterial osteomyelitis, neo (synovial cell sarc crosses joint)

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56
Q

Positive pinnal pedal reflex indicates what

A

Sarcoptic mange (70%, but can be positive in any pruritis)

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57
Q

Tx lead poisoning

A

Ca-EDTA (chalates lead), can also use succimer or d-penicillamine

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58
Q

Most common usage for D-penicillamine, others

A

Copper toxicity; lead, copper, iron, mercury

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59
Q

Tx acetaminophen toxicity

A

n-acetylcysteine

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60
Q

What drug should be used when Sx requires no respiratory motion

A

Neuromuscular blocking agents- succinylcholine (depolarizing), pancuronium, d-tubocuraine, atracurium (all non-depolarizing)

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61
Q

What parasite causes hydatid cyst disease in humans which can be fatal; tx

A

Echinococcus granulosus- hydatid tapeworm (non pathogenic in dogs); tx: praziquantel

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62
Q

Chemo tx for cutaneous MCT

A

vinblastine, lomustine alternating; tyrosine kinase inhibitors (palladia/toceranib)

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63
Q

Effect of diltiazem

A

slows HR via inhibition of CA influx into myocardial cells- Ca Channel blocker

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64
Q

CS of Familial Shar Pei Fever (FSF)

A

high fever, tarsal swelling; predispose to amyloidosis leading to proteinuria

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65
Q

What kind of arrhythmia can lead to a-fib

A

Supraventricular tachycardia

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66
Q

What adverse reaction are Dobermans predisposed to when using trimethoprim-sulfa?

A

Hypersensitivity reaction- III- arthritis, nephritis, uveitis

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67
Q

What severe side effect is seen with cats and diazepam

A

Fulminant hepatic necrosis

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68
Q

What test has the highest negative predictive value for FIP (best at ruling it out)

A

Rivalta’s test- >90% (

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69
Q

In a feline subtotal colectomy- what vessel limits the amount of colon you can remove

A

Ileocolic a.

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70
Q

Tx feline polycystic kidneys; name breed

A

Fluids, low protein diet, gastric protectants; Persians, himalayan, British shorthair

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71
Q

What type of diet should be fed to panceratitis cats

A

Normal- no low fat needed

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72
Q

Ab tap findings- cat with FIP

A

yellow, high protein (close to serum) and moderate cell counts

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73
Q

B blood type cats

A

Rex, rags, folds, shorthairs, himalayan

74
Q

What antibiotic is not absorbed well in feline GI tract

A

Neomycin (aminoglycosides)

75
Q

Tx tritrichomonas foeus in cats

A

Ronidazole

76
Q

Tx carpal hyperextension injury

A

Arthrodesis

77
Q

Zinc tox causes

A

Hemolysis, heinz body anemia

78
Q

Salmon poisoning dz- etio, vector

A

Neorickettsia helminthoeca via ung fluke nanophyetus salmincola

79
Q

Most common ddx for cough in 2 month puppy

A

Toxocara canis- roundworm passed transplacentally

80
Q

Most common cause of cervical ventroflexion weakness

81
Q

Transmission of cytauxzoon, cyto appearance

A

tick, signet ring shaped org in RBC

82
Q

Classic FIP lesion

A

pyogranulomatous vasculitis from Ag-Ab complex deposition- peritoneal and pleural effusion

83
Q

Dx vertical nystagmus

A

central vestibular dz

84
Q

Circling and head tilt go ____ the lesion

85
Q

What cell lines are affected by FIV

A

T helper, macrophage, B cell, cytotoxic T-cell (NOT platelets)

86
Q

Two sequelae of taurine deficiency in cats

A

Retinal degeneration, HCM

87
Q

Hepatic lipidosis cat findings

A

mod ALP, norm GGT, elev bili

88
Q

Common SE- metronidazole

A

Facial pruritis

89
Q

Feline lungworm, tx

A

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus, ivermectin

90
Q

E. canis- trophism, main CS

A

Mononuclear cells, thrombocytopenia

91
Q

E. ewingii- trophism, main CS

A

granulocytes (look in buffy coat for morula in WBC), poly arthropathy

92
Q

Tx erlichia in puppies

A

Chloramphenicol (avoid teeth discoloration)

93
Q

Erlichia ticks

A

RAD- C/E-C/C (rhip- canis; ambly- ewing and chaff; dermacentor- chaff)

94
Q

Anaplasma ticks

A

Platys- rhip; phago- ixodes

95
Q

Anaplasma platys- trophism

A

Platelets!

96
Q

Ana phagocyto- trophism

97
Q

Patomac horse fever- agent

A

Neoricketsia ricketsii

98
Q

CS- salmon poisoning

A

fever then hypothermia

99
Q

RSMF- vector, CS

A

dermacentor, vasculitis (consumptive thrombocytopenia) leading to hypotension, edema, death

100
Q

Tick Dx

A

serology (elisa Ab) and PCR

101
Q

Rabies- vectors by region

A

East- raccoons; skunks- central and west; foxes south west

102
Q

Rabies- patho, timing of shedding

A

bite- saliva to myocytes to peripheral nerves, up spinal cord, to brain, then to peripheral tissues/ salivary glands- shedding 1-5 days before CS (this is why 10d quarantine)

103
Q

RV- CS

A

furious (1-7 d)- forebrain; pralytic (2-4d post-1st CS)- LMN paralysis progressing from bite site

104
Q

Dx RV

A

Brain tissue direct fluorecent Ab- negri bodies found

105
Q

Parvo- transmission, incubation period, risk timing

A

oronasal; 2-7 days (shedding during and 7-10 days after resolution); starting at 6 weeks (maternal Ab)

106
Q

Parvo- effects

A

intestinal crypts, bone marrow- granulocytes (lymphoid cell necrosis and neutropenic)

107
Q

Coronavirus

A

Shed in feces, most get from mother

108
Q

Coronavirus- CS, tx

A

(villi tip blunting) mild yellowish diarrhea- no blood; usually self limiting

109
Q

Present: respiratory and GI signs

A

Think distemper

110
Q

Distemper- trophism, pathophys

A

macrophages (inclusions seen in RBCs- larger than HJ body); respiratory to lymphoid tissue to macrophages to more lymphoid tissue then circulating

111
Q

Distemper CS phases, signs

A

Resp/GI signs –> +/-Acute encephalitis (1-3 weeks later, chewing gum seizures, myoclonus- rarely rsolve) –>

subacute/chronic –> +/- rare old dog recrusdescence encephalitis; Upper resp, pneumonia, then GI, occasional dermal lesions (vesicular/pustular dermatitis with no CNS; digital hyperkeratosis with CNS), dental hypoplasia

112
Q

Distemper- exposure, shedding

A

aerosol or droplet; 7 days PI for up to 60-90 d

113
Q

Presenting: D and leukopenia

114
Q

Dx distemper-

A

CS, RBC inclusion; Ab (blood CSF), PCR of CSF, urine, blood, oral swab)

115
Q

Present: blue eye, cervical LN, hemorrhage

A

Canine infectious hepatitis

116
Q

Canine infectious hepatitis- agent/type, dz, trans

A

CAV-1 (adenovirus dsDNA), infectious canine hepatitis, oronasal fomite

117
Q

CAV-1- pathogenesis

A

oronasal to tonsil, to LN, viremia in blood, spread to liver and vascular endothelium

118
Q

Canine influenza- virus, lineage; new strain; shedding times

A

H3N8 (7-10d shedding even when asymp); via equine H3N8); new H3N2 (up to 21 d)

119
Q

Dx Canine influenza

A

PCR- nasal or pharyngeal (but small window, might need serology convalescent titers)

120
Q

Histoplasma- geo area,

A

Mississ/Ohio

121
Q

Histoplasma, appearance

A

Round, budding yeast in macs > neuts, others

122
Q

Histoplasma- trans and pathogen

A

Inhaled from ubiquitous in soil, convert to yeast at body temp in lung, spread via blood/lymph (may also be in skin/GI only, rare)

123
Q

Histoplasma- signs

A

GI primarily- (large bowel D with weight loss) > pulmonary, occasional lameness, hepatosplenomegaly, BM

124
Q

Dx histoplasma

A

Cytology for organisms of blood, TTW, rectal scrape, CSF, etc - DONT send to lab to culture- ZOO

125
Q

Tx histoplasma

A

Itraconazole (in worse- amphoteracin B) for 4-6m or more; anti-inflam pred in pulmonary cases

126
Q

Large broad based budding

A

Blastomyces

127
Q

Blasto- trans; patho

A

Spore inhalation; lung then everywhere-
resp, skin, eye, bone, LN, brain- EXCEPT intestine (v rare) — all via BAD-1 (blasto adhesion Ag- depresses TNFa and allows dissemination)

128
Q

Dx blasto

A

Cytology- LN, fluid, lesion impression smear; ELISA (x-rxn with histopl)

129
Q

Tx blasto

A

Itra 60-90d or more, 20% recur in first year

130
Q

Coccidiomycosis- transmission

A

Inhalation of airborne arthroconidia, SPHERULE replicates and spreads; infectious but not contagious

131
Q

Coccidio- CS

A

Dry cough- hilar LN’pathy; roductive cough- alveolar; Usually stays lung/hilar, but can disseminiate- MSkel, LN, seizure, skin, *CHF restrictive pericarditis

132
Q

Coccidio- dx

A

Ab (latex, ELISA) are best, follow titers

133
Q

Coccidio tx-

A

8-12m with itraconazole

134
Q

PResent: dog with nasal signs and depigmentation

A

Aspergillosis

135
Q

Asper- trans, patho

A

respiratory epithelium, produce gliotoxin which inhibits macs

136
Q

Aspergillosis- types/trophism

A

Fumigatus- sinonasal; terreus- disseminated

137
Q

Asper- CS

A

Nasal (sneeze, d/c, epistaxis- turbinate/crib plate osteomyelitis), depigmentation, ocular d/c, neuro signs (cavernous sinus syndrome can take out nerves)

138
Q

Dx asper

A

FUNGAL PLAQUES, Turbinate destruction on CT/rhinoscopy; histo -septal branching hyphae on cytology/histo (ddx from penicillium)

139
Q

Tx sinonasal asper

A

Topical clotrimazole long term/life; (or enilconazole) +/- trephination

140
Q

Disseminated Asper- breed, locations

A

GSD: IVD (diskospondylitis 2-3 weeks post CS), renal glomeruli (can find hyphae in urine), uveal tract in uveitis

141
Q

Dx disseminated Asper

A

Systemic: voriconazole ($) > itra, terbina, amphoteracin B, for 6-12m but usually life

142
Q

Why dont -azoles work well in pythium

A

No chitin in cell wall (has beta glucan)

143
Q

Dx pythium

A

Intestinal wall/mass&raquo_space; LN (rarely find here)

144
Q

Pythium tx

A

Itra + terbinafine; capsofungin inhibits B-glucan synthase but $$$ (10k/month)

145
Q

Toxoplasma gondii- DH

A

Cats, oocysts shed in feces for 2-3 weeks PI, then rare/never after

146
Q

Toxoplasma- pathogenesis

A

ingest oocyst/tissue cyst –> excyst in intestine –> form tachyzoite –> intracellular multiplication in mm. (>brain, liver, lung, eye)

147
Q

Toxoplasma in dogs- CS

A

Young: general infection, fever, generalized GI; Older: neuro/muscular

148
Q

Dx toxoplasma

A

Serum Paired Ab titer- IgM and IgG

149
Q

Tx toxoplasma

A

clindamycin or TMS- suppress replication/shedding, not eliminate

150
Q

Neospora- pathogenesis, progresses like toxo

A

ingestion of bovine placenta

151
Q

Neospora- CS, age differences

A

Neuro and mm. (>lier, lung, myocardial); young <6m (rarely seen): severe, disseminated; >6m: CNS, polymyositis

152
Q

Neospora- tx

A

Clindamycin, TMS

153
Q

What form of hepatozoonosis is in NA

A

Hepatozoon americanum (v canis)

154
Q

Hepatozoon transmission, pathophys

A

Ingest rhipicephalus- releases sporocysts in intestines where they reproduce

155
Q

Hepatozoon CS

A

SEVERE neutrophilia, muscle pain, fever, weight loss

156
Q

Dx hepatozoon

A

Organism location in blood smear/cyto

157
Q

Tx hepatozoon

A

Imidocarb + doxycycline

158
Q

Present: AKI with TCP and/or signs of vasculitis/uveitis

159
Q

Leptosporosis- trans

A

Indirect (most common)- water/soil/food; Direct: urine, venereal, transplacental, bite, ingest tissue

160
Q

Leptosporosis- pathogenesis

A

Start with AKI, then progress to liver

161
Q

Leptosporosis CS

A

Renal and liver, fever, +/- petechia/ecchy from vasculitis, uveitis

162
Q

What group of Leptosporosis is pathogenic

A

Interrogans senu lato

163
Q

Dx lepto

A

MAT (micro agglutinationtest)- convalescent titers with 4 fold increase (use same lab); PCR of blood (short early window) or urine (negative early)

164
Q

Tx lepto

A

Start with IV penicillin (elim leptoviremia, but are still shedding); doxy to eliminate carrier state

165
Q

Ddx- diskospondylitis

A

Asper, brucella, common bacterial (staph)

166
Q

Brucellosis - transmission

A

THINK INTACT: oronasal contact of vaginal/seminal/urine fluids, or aborted materials, ZOONOTIC, reportable in FL

167
Q

CS- brucella canis

A

Abortion, epididymitis, , splenomegaly, LN, diskospon

168
Q

Dx brucella canis

A

Rapid slide agglutination test (RSAT) (false + possible, but negative reliable)- do Tube Agglutination Test (TAT) if RSAT +

169
Q

Tx brucella-

A

difficult- multiple via tatra, aminog, FQs; castrate/spay; consider euthanasia due to zoonosis

170
Q

Bartonella- transmission, zoonosis

A

A lot we dont know: flea, cat scratch, ticks, ZOO: endocarditis in humans

171
Q

Dx bartonella

A

Special culture media followed by PCR of culture- can get false negative if treated

172
Q

Tx bartonella

A

? doxy + FQ, cant eliminate

173
Q

Cyto appearance of hemotrophic mycoplasma

A

epicellular- dogs: chains on RBC, cats: single on RBC

174
Q

Transmission- mycoplasma

A

Rhipicephalus, blood transfusions

175
Q

CS mycoplasma canis

A

Splenectomized dogs: IMHA, anemia

176
Q

Dx: mycoplasma

A

PCR, boood smear WITHOUT edta

177
Q

Tx mycoplasma

A

Tetracyclines like Doxy +/- pred for IMHA

178
Q

HW life cycles

A

L1-3 in mosquito, L3 infects, L4 is adult (Ag presence)

179
Q

Caval syndrome- describe pathogenesis

A

Obstruction of venous flow to heart due to obstruction- leading to RBC hemolysis from turbulence (may se Hgb’uria)

180
Q

Dx- HW

A

MF’a: direct smear, Modified knots (Dirofilaria- straight, with tapered head; reconditum- swirly, blunted top); Ag testing of F

181
Q

Tx HW

A

Melarsomine with split treatment after 2-3 m macrocytic lactones and 30 d of doxy; pred for dogs with bronchial dz, heavy worm load

NAVLE (10 decks)

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