DNA Damaging Agents/Cytotoxics Flashcards

1
Q

__ is a process under the influence of various growth factors by which cells increase in number as a result of cell growth and division

A

cell proliferation

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2
Q

__ is the phenomena by which normal cells cease to divide and are refractory to growth factor stimulation

A

senescence

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3
Q

__ is a programmed destruction of cells that keeps cell numbers in check by eliminating senescent cells or those without useful function

A

apoptosis

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4
Q

__ are regulators of cellular communication with the outside environment derived from mutation of normal proto-oncogenes which induce cancer when stimulated or amplified

A

oncogenes

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5
Q

__ keep oncogenes in check by halting uncontrolled cell growth and their loss of function results in cell immortality

A

tumor suppressor genes

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6
Q

In general, cancer cells undergoing rapid division are most vulnerable to the __ action of anticancer agents

A

cytotoxic

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7
Q

__ and __ atoms of guanine are particularly susceptible to the formation of a covalent bond with alkylating agents

A

N7, O6

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8
Q

All DNA alkylating agents have toxic effects on both male and female reproductive systems

a. true
b. false

A

a. true

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9
Q

Nitrogen mustards have two of what groups attached?

A

chloroethyl

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10
Q

Nitrogen mustards lead to __ cross links on the DNA molecule.

a. intrastrand
b. interstrand

A

b. interstrand

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11
Q

Mutations in __ can lead to tumor cells that are resistant to alkylating agents

A

p53

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12
Q

Monoalkylation is associated with __

a. nitrogen mustards
b. platinum agents
c. DNA methylating agents

A

c. DNA methylating agents

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13
Q

Mustards are alkylated by __ nitrogen of guaning

A

N7

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14
Q

The __ ion is involved in the N7 alkylation of nitrogen mustards

A

aziridinium

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15
Q

Nitrogen mustards with __ groups have a sufficiently controlled reactivity to attenuate the severity of side effects

A

electron withdrawing

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16
Q

Rapid formation of __ with nitrogen mustards leads to indiscriminant alkylation with DNA, electron-rich SH, OH, and NH groups of amino acids of enzymes, and membrane bound receptors

A

aziridinium ion

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17
Q

Which nitrogen mustard is orally available, but absorption can be erratic?

A

melphalan

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18
Q

Which nitrogen mustard has adequate and reliable oral absorption, though food decreases absorption?

A

chlorambucil

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19
Q

Is melphalan (nitrogen mustard) available for IV administration?

A

yes

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20
Q

Which nitrogen mustard is given as a 30 minute IV infusion?

A

bendamustine

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21
Q

Which nitrogen mustard causes less repairable DNA damage?

A

bendamustine

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22
Q

What reaction has been noted to bendamustine therapy?

A

hypersensitivity/anaphylaxis

pretreat with antihistamines and/or corticosteroids

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23
Q

Which nitrogen mustard is the most widely used?

A

cyclophosphamide

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24
Q

Which nitrogen mustard has less effects on peripheral blood platelet counts and less mucosal damage than other DNA alkylating agents?

A

cyclophosphamide

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25
What is required for cyclophosphamide to have alkylation activity?
metabolic activation this hepatic metabolism contributes to kidney and bladder toxicity
26
Which cyclophosphamide metabolite is highly nephrotoxic and neurotoxic?
chloroacetaldehyde
27
Which cyclophosphamide metabolite is highly reactive and causes damage to kidneys and bladder?
acrolein
28
Which is the most neurotoxic of the DNA alkylating agents?
ifosfamide due to chloroacetaldehyde
29
What can help reduce ifosfamide bladder toxicity?
adequate hydration increased chloroacetaldehyde leads to increased bladder toxicity and nephrotoxicity
30
Which nitrogen mustard is used for Tx of relapsed testicular cancer and some sarcomas?
ifosfamide
31
__ is employed as adjuvant or prophylactic therapy wit ifosfamide and high dose cyclophosphamide
Mesna
32
Delivery of the ___ conjugate to the bladder for excretion causes toxicity due to a variety of mechanisms
acrolein-GSH
33
Busulfan can cause severe and prolonged ___ with recovery taking up to two years
pancytopenia
34
__ toxicity is a risk at high doses of busulfan
pulmonary
35
Busulfan: One or both of the __ esters can be displaced by the nucleophilic N7 of guanine, leading to monoalkylated and cross-linked DNA
methylsulfonate
36
Nitrosoureas: ___ carbocation can alkylate DNA (O6 guanine) to form an intermediate poised for the formation of cross-linked DNA
2-chloroethyl
37
What DNA repair enzyme can reverse the alkylation of nitrosoureas?
MGMT methyl guanine methyltransferase
38
__ and __ are highly lipophilic nitrosoureas that cross the blood-brain barrier → used in the treatment of a variety of brain tumors, but can cause CNS toxicity at higher doses
carmustine, lomustine
39
Which is more stable lomustine or carmustine?
lomustine can be dosed orally
40
Which DNA methylating agent requires metabolic demethylation by CYP1A1 or CYP1A2 to generate MTIC, the precursor to diazomethane (the methylating agent)?
dacarbazine
41
Which DNA methylating agent generates MTIC via simple non-enzymatic hydrolysis?
temozolomide
42
__ expression is associated with resistance to DNA methylating agents (dacarbazine, temozolomide
MGMT
43
Women clear __ less effectively than men and have a higher incidence of neutropenia and thrombocytopenia
temozolomide
44
__ is a hydrazine-containing molecule that is metabolically converted to diazomethane, which reacts with the O6 of guanine nucleobases
procarbazine
45
Which hydrazine DNA methylating agent is metabolically converted to diazomethane?
procarbazine reacts wit the O6 of guanine nucleobases
46
__ expression is associated with resistance to procarbazine.
MGMT
47
Like the nitrogen mustards, ___ agents are bifunctional and can accept electrons from two DNA nucleophiles
platinum
48
What kind of cross links are most common with platinum agents? a. interstrand b. intrastrand
b. intrastrand
49
__ agents contain an electron-deficient metal atom that acts as a magnet for electron-rich DNA nucleophiles
platinum
50
Platinum agents enter the cell via what transporter?
active copper transporter (CTR1)
51
The __ poor intracellular environment facilitates the displacement of __ ligands on cisplatin by water
chloride, chloride
52
What form of platinum agents is the active cytotoxic?
hydrated
53
Platinum agents must not come into contact with infusion equipment containing __
aluminum
54
Which platinum agent is photosensitive?
cisplatin packaged in amber bottles
55
Cisplatin causes significant damage to the __
renal tubules
56
What is used to mitigate the renal toxicity of cisplatin?
aggressive hydration with chloride containing solutions establishes chloride diuresis
57
Which platinum agent can cause irreversible ototoxicity?
cisplatin manifested by tinnitus and high frequency hearing loss
58
What is used to reduce the renal toxicity of cisplatin?
amifostine use for reducing ototoxicity is controversial
59
Which platinum agent forms the cytotoxic hydrated intermediate at a slower rate, cisplatin or carboplatin?
carboplatin
60
What protein can confer resistance to cisplatin and carboplatin?
MMR
61
Which platinum agent is most likely not affected by MMR proteins?
oxaliplatin
62
Which platinum agent has a different DNA adduct formed?
oxaliplatin
63
Why does oxaliplatin often retain activity in pts who have stopped responding to other platinum agents?
less dependent on CTR1
64
Two drug classes that have N7 of guanine as alkylation site?
nitrogen mustards | methylsulfonate ester
65
Two drug classes that have O6 of guanine as alkylation site?
nitrosoureas | DNA methylating agents
66
3 drug classes that form INTERstrand DNA cross links?
nitrogen mustards methylsulfonate ester nitrosoureas
67
MGMT can cause resistance to which two drug classes?
nitrosoureas | DNA methylating agents
68
Bleomycin hydrate is found in all tissues except which two?
lungs | skin
69
What is the cytotoxic agent of bleomycin?
bleomycin ferric peroxide Fe2 complex reacts with molecular oxygen to form bleomycin ferric peroxide complex
70
The bleomycin ferric peroxide abstracts a hydrogen atom from __ to form a DNA radical
deoxyribose The DNA free radical is unstable and its formation initiates a cascade of events that leads to DNA strand breaks
71
Bleomycin causes accumulation of cells with chromosomal aberrations in which phase of the cell cycle?
G2
72
5-10% of pts will experience potentially fatal ___ with bleomycin
pulmonary fibrosis can occur as late as several months after therapy has ceased
73
The risk for pulmonary toxicity is enhanced in patients of what age?
> 40 related to total dose
74
Topoisomerase inhibitors are most toxic to cells in which phase of DNA replication?
S phase
75
How do topoisomerase inhibitors work?
bind/stabilize DNA topoisomerase complex and block resealing of strand breaks
76
Which camptothecin topoisomerase I inhibitor has modification at C10?
irinotecan incorporate basic amines that permit salt formation and enhance solubility
77
Which camptothecin topoisomerase I inhibitor has modification at C9?
topotecan incorporate basic amines that permit salt formation and enhance solubility
78
What enzyme converts irinotecan to its active metabolite, SN-38?
hepatic carboxyl esterases
79
Conjugation of irinotecan SN-38 by __ at C10 yields an inactive metabolite
UGT1A1
80
Polymorphisms in UGT1A1 (irinotecan) is more prevalent in pts of what heritage?
Asian
81
What therapy should be initiated immediately with irinotecan diarrhea?
vigorous loperamide
82
Irinotecan's anti cholinesterase activity can be treated with what?
atropine
83
Epipodophyllotoxin topoisomerase II inhibitors: Etoposide and teniposide require what for IV dosing?
solubility enhancers ex. polysorbate, polyoxyethylated castor oil can cause hypersensitivity rxns
84
What CYP catalyzes O-demethylation of etoposide?
3A4 CYP3A4 inducers/inhibitors have significant impacts on metabolism topoisomerase II inhibitor
85
What metabolite of etoposide may be linked to therapy induced leukemia in children?
orthoquinone
86
What etoposide metabolite further oxidizes to a reactive orthoquinone metabolite?
catechol
87
Serious side effects have been noted in children with what diseases treated with etoposide?
acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
88
2-12% of pts treated for childhood ALL will develop __ within two years of etoposide therapy
acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
89
Therapy induced AML with etoposide is thought to be related to what?
drug induced chromosomal translocation
90
Anthracycline topoisomerase II inhibitors generate free radicals that can cause what type of irreversible toxicity?
cardiotoxicity doxorubicin, epirubicin, valrubicin, daunorubicin, idarubicin
91
Aldoketoreductase catalyzes the reduction of which carbon in doxorubicin to produce secondary alcohol metabolite linked to cardio toxicity?
C13
92
Anthracyclines such as doxorubicin generate what toxic substance?
hydrogen peroxide form semiquinone radical intermediates that react with oxygen to form superoxide anion radicals which form H2O2
93
Anthracyclines (ex. doxorubicin) are potent binders of what?
iron cardiac tissue has low levels of defensive enzymes to combat oxygen radicals
94
What iron chelating drug is used for cardio protection with doxorubicin?
dexrazoxane
95
What is the most important toxicity associated with doxorubicin?
cardiomyopathy
96
Which is less cardiotoxic, doxorubicin or mitoxantrone?
mitoxantrone Mitoxantrone has limited ability to form semiquinone radicals and lacks the C13 ketone found in the anthracyclines, thus, it is less cardiotoxic than the anthracycline topoisomerase II inhibitors
97
Conjugated metabolites of what drug lead to blue-green feces and urine and sometimes in the skin and sclera?
mitoxantrone anthracenedione topoisomerase II inhibitor
98
Arsenic trioxide is used for treating which cancer?
acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL)
99
What characterizes acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL)?
reciprocal translocation of chromosomes 15 and 17 treated with arsenic trioxide
100
Arsenic trioxide induces remission in APL how?
destruction of fusion protein, induction of apoptosis in malignant cells
101
Hydroxyurea blocks the catalytic site/action of what enzyme?
ribonucleotide reductase the enzyme that catalyzes the rate limiting step in the biosynthesis of DNA
102
Which drug is used as a radiation sensitizer?
hydroxyurea The inhibition causes cell-cycle arrest at the G1-S interface, the stage at which cells are most sensitive to irradiation, thus hydroxyurea is used as a radiation sensitizer
103
Which stage are cells most sensitive to irradiation?
G1-S interface hydroxyurea inhibits cell cycle arrest at this interface and is used as radiation sensitizer