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QL4 > DL Test > Flashcards

DL Test Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three grades of strains/sprains?

A

Grade 1: Ligament stretch without rupture
Grade 2: Partial ligament Rupture/tear
Grade 3: Complete Rupture/tear

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2
Q

What is the common diagnosis for anterior knee pain?

A

Patellofemoral Syndrome - Pain on the anterior side of the knee/under patella. Discomfort caused by prolonged sitting, crackling sounds, joint blockage, instable feeling

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3
Q

Describe Candida Equina Syndrome

A

Low back pain, unilateral/bilateral sciatica, parenthesis, loss/decreased sensitivity of bladder and bowels, lower extremity weakness

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4
Q

Define Compartment Syndrome

A

Increased pressure in the fascia, decreases circulation, caused by lesion in a compartment of muscle

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5
Q

What are the five Ps of Compartment Syndrome?

A
  1. Pain
  2. Pallor
  3. Paresthesia
  4. Paralysis
  5. Pulselessness
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6
Q

Describe Migraine pathophysiology

A

Migraine headaches are caused by a spreading wave of depolarization in the brain. This wave is associated with increased blood flow and then gives way to decreased blood flow

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7
Q

List Migraine symptoms

A
  • Photo/Phonophobia
  • Preceding aura in 20%
  • Tender scalp
  • Severe pain
  • Unilateral*
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8
Q

True or false, Tension headaches have an unclear mechanism?

A

True

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9
Q

List Tension Headache symptoms

A
  • Non-pulsatile*
  • Bilateral*
  • Does not worsen with activity*
  • NO associated N/V or Photo/phonophobia*
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10
Q

What are the management strategies for Tension headaches?

A

Tx: ASA 500-1000mg (analgesics) and strategies to reduce stress

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11
Q

Describe Cluster headache pathophysiology

A

Abnormalities with blood supply to the trigeminal nerve

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12
Q

List the symptoms of Cluster headache

A
  • Excruciating unilateral headache with autonomic
    signs*
  • Lacrimation
  • Miosis
  • Ptosis
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13
Q

Describe Sub Arachnoid Hemorrhage

A

Stroke with bleeding into the Sub-arachnoid space. Untreated leads to brain damage/death

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14
Q

List symptoms of Sub Arachnoid Hemorrhage

A

Thunderclap Headache

Look for SUM:
- Sudden
- Unlike previous
- Maximal at onset

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15
Q

Define Deep Vein Thrombosis

A

DVT is a clotting of blood in a deep vein (usually the calf or thigh) #1 cause of Pulmonary Embolism

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16
Q

What criteria should be used for DVT?

A

Wells Criteria

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17
Q

Define Pulmonary Embolism

A

PE is the blockage of 1 or more pulmonary arteries by Thrombi or Emboli which commonly originate from the lower limb

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18
Q

Describe PE presentation

A

Rapid onset dyspnea (SOB),
+/- chest pain (pleuritic),
+/- elevated RR/HR,
+/- anxiety

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19
Q

Define Stable Angina

A

Pattern of transient ExRx/Stress Related angina that is relieved with rest or nitro - no permanent Myocardial damage

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20
Q

Define Angina

A

Chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia (inadequate 02 to heart), imbalance in heart 02 supply/demand

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21
Q

Define Acute Coronary Syndrome

A

Syndrome caused by inadequate oxygenation of the heart muscle

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22
Q

List the three syndromes of ACS

A
  • Unstable Angina
  • Non-ST elevated MI
  • ST elevated MI
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23
Q

List of things that interfere with perfusion of heart muscle

A
  • Blockage or vasospasm, decreased 02 delivery (hypotension, anemia)
  • Increased 02 demand (exercise, sepsis) - death of myocardium*
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24
Q

What is the incubation period for the common cold?

A

Incubation period: 1-3 days

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25
Q

Define Bronchitis

A

Acute inflammation of the lower airway (bronchi)

26
Q

What is the primary cause of nausea/vomiting

A

GI illness

27
Q

What is the secondary cause of nausea/vomiting

A

Pain/systemic issue

28
Q

Define Hemorrhoids

A

Swollen collection of Blood Vessels that may prolapse outside of rectum or remain internal

29
Q

Define dyspepsia (GERD)

A

Dyspepsia is discomfort or pain in the epigastrum (Typically described as burning).

30
Q

What are red flags for GERD?

A

Difficult / Painful swallowing, fever, chest pain, SOB, weight loss, night sweats, hoarseness

31
Q

Define Hepatitis

A

Inflammation of the liver at the cellular level

32
Q

Define the Surgical (Acute) Abdomen

A

Any serious acute intro-abdominal condition (e.g appendicitis) for which emergency surgery must be considered

33
Q

Define impaction

A

Excessive buildup of earwax

34
Q

Define Barotrauma

A

Discomfort and possible damage in the ear due to differences in pressure between the inside and outside of the eardrum

35
Q

Define Acute Otitis EXTERNA (Swimmer’s Ear)

A

Inflammation of external auditory canal (usually Bacterial)

36
Q

Define Acute Otitis MEDIA (Swimmer’s Ear)

A

Inflammation/infection of the middle ear, usually secondary to URTI

37
Q

Define Hordeolums

A

Localized swellings of the eyelid (generally caused by bacterial infection of hair follicle and adjacent sebaceous gland

38
Q

List Rhinosinusitis PODS

A
  • Pain, Pressure/Fullness*
  • Obstruction of the Nose
  • Discoloured (purulent) Discharge
  • Sense of Smell decreased
  • Increased pressure when leaning forward, tenderness upon Palpation of the sinuses, ear pain/pressure*
39
Q

90% of Epistaxis is _

A

Anterior

40
Q

What should be assessed/monitored during epistaxis

A

Hemodynamics (BP/HR/Skin)*

41
Q

Bacterial Pharyngitis etiology

A

Caused by Streptococcus bacteria (Group A)

42
Q

What are the six steps in the Chain of Infection?

A
  • Infectious agent
  • Reservoir
  • Portal of exit
  • Mode of transmission
  • Portal entry
  • Host
43
Q

What are the six steps in the Chain of Infection?

A
  1. Infectious agent
  2. Reservoir
  3. Portal of exit
  4. Mode of transmission
  5. Portal entry
  6. Host
44
Q

List the five types of infectious Agents

A
  1. Viral
  2. Bacterial
  3. Helminths
  4. Fungi
  5. Protozoa
45
Q

List the four stages of infection

A
  1. Incubation period (pathogen enters body)
  2. Prodromal (S&S start)
  3. Illness (Symptomatic)
  4. Convalescence
46
Q

Describe a food-borne illness

A

Two or more people in the household develop GI symptoms at the same time

47
Q

True or False, parasitic worms reproduce in humans?

A

False, they cannot

48
Q

Varicella Zoster Virus (Chickenpox) is contagious for how long?

A

Contagious until all scabs crust over (Infection = ~2weeks)

49
Q

How long after infection do symptoms start for Mononucleosis (Epstein-Barr Virus)?

A

4-6 weeks after infection

50
Q

List the duration of stages for Lyme Disease

A

1st Stage - 3 to 30 days
2nd Stage - 6 months
3rd Stage - Years after infection*

51
Q

What is Dermatophytes(Tinea), and how is it managed?

A

Fungal Infection - Managed with antifungal powders and patient education

52
Q

List the exam findings of Tinea Cruris (Jock Itch)

A
  • Usually bilateral*
  • Well demarcated erythematous plaques*
  • Large, scaling, central clearing*
  • Vesicles may be present at margins
  • Pruritis is common (Often what causes patients
    to seek care)
  • Location: Often begins on the proximal medial
    thigh then spreads to groin and pubic
    regions, penis and scrotum usually clear (Unlike
    yeast infections), occasionally the
    gluteal cleft is affected too
53
Q

What is Tinea Pedis?

A

Athlete’s foot, most common fungal infection in the CAF

54
Q

List the exam findings for Tinea Pedis (Athletes foot)

A
  • Erythema*
  • scaling*
  • maceration*
  • burning*
  • possible bulla formation*
  • frequently asymptomatic*
  • pruritis*
55
Q

What is the common name for Tinea Corporis?

A

Ring Worm

56
Q

List the exam findings for Tinea Corporis (Ring Worm)

A
  • Small well circumscribed plaques with or without
    scaling, pustules or vesicles
  • Peripheral enlargement and central clearing
  • Annular configuration with concentric rings
  • Light to bright red, sharply marinated and occur
    alone or in groups of 3-4
  • Occasionally hyperpigmented
  • Can be mildly pruitic to intense itching
  • Locations: Exposed areas, trunk, limbs, face, neck
    (Excluding the feet, hands and
    groin)
57
Q

Define Tinea Capitis

A

Fungal infection of the head

58
Q

What are the common management strategies for scabies?

A

Wash bedding at high temp and use antihistamines/ steroid creams

59
Q

Describe the exam findings for urticaria/hives

A

defined, pruitic, erythematous plaques with/without angioedema

60
Q

What are Warts (Verrucae) caused by?

A

HPV

QL4 (11 decks)

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