Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 DIT > DIT Warm-Up Questions > Flashcards

DIT Warm-Up Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What embryonic structure (derived from the hypoblast) serves as a secondary energy source?

A

Endodermal yolk sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What embryonic structure serves as a reservoir of nonspecialized (undifferentiated) stem cells?

A

Endodermal yolk sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 3 germ layers that derive from epiblast?

A

ecto, meso, endo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the embryologic origin of the tissue just proximal to the pectinate line?

Tissue just distal?

A

endoderm

surface ecto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What effect might ACE inhibitor have on developing fetus?

A

renal abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What effect might aminoglycosides have on developing fetus?

A

ototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What effect might DES have on developing fetus?

A

vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What effect might tetracyclines have on developing fetus?

A

discolored teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What effect might valproic acid have on developing fetus?

A

neural tube defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which vitamin should not be supplemented in large acts during pregnancy

A

vitamin A (high risk for spontaneous abortions and birth defects - cleft palate, cardiac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which amino acids are found in nuclear localization signals?

A

PAL: proline, arginine, lysine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most common cause of intellectual disability in infants?

A

alcohol (fetal alcohol syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do Rb protein and p53 regulate the cell cycle?

A

prevents G1 –> S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During what weeks of fetal development does organogenesis take place?

A

week 3-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What molecules provide the structural framework for DNA and the nuclear envelope?

A

nuclear lamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is deficient in I-cell disease?

A

phosphotransferase

tags lysosomal enzymes with mannose-6-phosphate so it will go to lysosome and be sequestered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the stages that an embryo goes through between conception and the development of an inner cell mass?

A

zygote –> morula –> blastocyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What drugs interfere with microtubule functioning?

A
  • anti-cancer (vincristine, vinblastine, paclitaxel)
  • colchicine
  • benzimidazoles (mebendazole, albendazole)
  • griseofulvin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which cell types are constantly regenerating themselves due to an absence of the G0 phase and a short G1 phase? (3)

A
  • skin
  • hair follicles
  • bone marrow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the characteristic features of a cell undergoing apoptosis? (5)

A
  1. cellular shrinkage
  2. pyknosis (nuclear shrinkage)
  3. membrane blebbing
  4. karyorrhexis, karyolysis
  5. apoptotic bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do Bax and Bcl-2 affect apoptosis?

A

Bax = pro-apoptotic (activated by DNA damage or apoptotic signals)

Bcl-2 = anti-apoptotic regulator of mitochondrial permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What protein is involved in transporting endocytose vesicles from the plasma membrane to the endosome?

A

clathrin (via receptor mediated endocytosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which metals are known to facilitate the generation of oxygen free radicals? (2)

A

iron and copper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which tumor suppressor proteins prevent the progression of the cell into S phase

A

Rb, p53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What developmental structure matches each of the following descriptions?

a. the fetal placental structure that secretes hCG
b. maternal component of the placenta

A

a. syncytiotrophoblast

b. decidua basalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does having a HIGH cholesterol content in the plasma membrane affect the function of the plasma membrane?

A
  • decrease fluidity

- increase melting temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A patient presents with an aganglionic colon and other neural crest derivative deficiencies. What other findings would you expect to see?

A
  • PNS abnormalities
  • autonomic dysfunction
  • conductive hearing loss (b/c ossicles aren’t formed properly)
  • anterior chamber eye problems
  • dental abnormalities
  • albinism
  • heart defects (truncus arteriosus, transposition)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which amino acids are modified in the Golgi apparatus? (4)

A
  1. Serine
  2. Threonine
  3. Asparagine
  4. Tyrosine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Failure of what process results in I-cell disease?

A

failure of addition of mannose-6-phosphate marker to lysosomal enzymes (thus goes to the outside of the cell instead of to lysosome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What organelle becomes hypertrophied in hepatocytes with chronic phenobarbital use?

A

smooth ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What enzyme mitigates the aging effects on cellular division by maintaining chromosomal length?

A

telomerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which types of proteins are responsible for fostering the progression through the cell cycle?

A

Cyclins + CDKs (cyclin-dependent kinases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which neurotransmitters have altered levels in anxiety disorder?

A

Decreased GABA

Increased NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which collagen is typically deficient in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

A

type 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which collagen is typically deficient in osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What regulates the progression of G1 –> S?

A

Rb, p53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What arachidonic acid product has actions that oppose that of prostacyclins (PGI-2)?

A

thromboxane (pro-thrombotic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In what disorder is there an abnormal breakdown of elastin?

A

alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency (elastase uninhibited; leads to emphysema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Whats the defect in Marfan syndrome?

A

defect in fibrillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What organelle and cytochrome are particularly important in intrinsic apoptosis?

A

mitochondria, releases cytochrome C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What prenatal testing is abnormal in a fetus with a neural tube defect?

A
  • increased AFP in maternal serum and amniotic fluid

- increased Ach in amniotic fluid

42
Q

What effect might aminoglycosides have on a developing fetus?

A

ototoxicity

43
Q

What molecule targets proteins in the ER for lysosomes?

A

mannose-6-phosphate

44
Q

What birth defects can result from ACE inhibitors?

A

renal damage

45
Q

What birth defects can result from folate antagonists?

A

neural tube defects

46
Q

What birth defects can result from tetracyclines?

A

discolored teeth

47
Q

What birth defects can result from lithium?

A

Ebstein’s anomaly (displacement of septal and posterior tricuspid leaflets towards the apex)

48
Q

What group of genes is responsible for skeletal development

A

HOX genes (homeobox)

49
Q

What is required for a molecule to enter into the nucleus through a nuclear pore?

A

nuclear localization signals (PAL = lysine, arginine, proline)

50
Q

Which amino acids are modified by the Golgi apparatus?

A

STAT

  • serine
  • threonine
  • asparagine
  • tyrosine
51
Q

In which diseases are levels of GABA altered? (2)

A

decreased in

  • anxiety
  • huntington
52
Q

Which cytokine is particularly important in maintaining granulomas?

A

TNF-alpha

53
Q

What is the function of lysosomes?

A

breakdown cellular waste and debris

54
Q

What information is communicated at the:

a. Nucleus solitarius?
b. Nucleus ambiguus?
c. Dorsal motor nucleus?

A

a. sensory CN10 (taste), baroreceptor, chemoreceptor, GI distention
b. speech + swallow
c. parasym

55
Q

Which areas of the hypothalamus regulates the autonomic nervous system?

A
  • anterior: para

- posterior: sym

56
Q

Which hypothalamic nucleus produces ADH to regulate water balance?

A

supraoptic

57
Q

Which hypothalamic nucleus regulates the release of gonadotropic hormones? (2)

A

arcuate, preoptic

58
Q

Which CN relays hypoxia measured by the carotid body?

A

CN9

59
Q

Which CN relays BP from the aortic arch?

A

CN10

60
Q

Which CN controls salivation from the sublingual and submandibular glands?

A

CN7

61
Q

Which CN controls salivation from the parotid glands?

A

CN9

62
Q

Which CN relays BP from the carotid?

A

CN9

63
Q

Which type of collagen is abnormal in Alport syndrome?

A

type 4

64
Q

A 43 yo male presents with symptoms of dizziness and tinnitus. CT shows an enlarged internal acoustic meatus. What is the diagnosis?

A

acoustic schwannoma

65
Q

Which portions of the hypothalamus are inhibited by leptin? which are stimulation by leptin?

A

a. lateral

b. ventromedial

66
Q

What substances are utilized by natural killer cells to induce apoptosis in other cells? (2)

A
  • perforin

- granzyme B

67
Q

Which intracranial tumor best fits each of the following descriptions?

  • polycythemia
A

hemangioblastoma

68
Q

Which intracranial tumor best fits each of the following descriptions?
- psammoma bodies

A

meningioma

69
Q

Which intracranial tumor best fits each of the following descriptions?
- perivascular pseudorosettes

A

ependymoma

70
Q

What brain structure is responsible for extraocular moments during REM sleep?

A

PPRF (paramedian pontine reticular formation)

71
Q

What are the endogenous agonists to the different opioid receptors? (3)

A
  1. mu receptor - beta-endorphin
  2. delta receptor - enkephalin
  3. kappa receptor - dynorphin
72
Q

A patient comes to your office and before you notice any other symptoms, you see that the patient’s uvula deviates to the right when she says “Ah.” What neurological areas might be damaged in order for this abnormality to be seen?

A
  • left vagus
  • left nucleus ambiguus

note: a lesion above nucleus ambiguus won’t cause uvula to deviate

73
Q

A patient cannot adduct her left eye on lateral gaze, but convergence is normal. What structure is damaged?

A

left MLF (INO)

74
Q

A mother brings in her 2yo child who has had multiple viral and fungal infections and is found to be hypocalcemic. Which of the 3 germ layers gives rise to the missing structure in this child?

A

missing 3rd/4th branchial pouches –> endoderm

remember, CAP
Cleft –> ecto
Arch –> meso
Pouch –> endo

75
Q

Describe the sensory innervation of the tongue (sensation and taste)

A

ant 2/3 sensation: V3
ant 2/3 taste: CN7

post 1/3 taste+sensation: CN9

76
Q

What structures are derived from the branchial pouches?

A

1: mastoid air cells, middle ear cavity, eustachian tubes

  1. lining of palatine tonsils
  2. thymus, inf. parathyroid glands
  3. sup parathyroid glands
77
Q

What structures run through the cavernous sinus?

A

CN 3, 4, 6, v1, v2

internal carotid artery

78
Q

What are the clinical features of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • blue sclera
  • brittle bones –> multiple fractures
  • dental problems
  • hearing loss
79
Q

What are the 3 diff. mechanisms cells employ to break down proteins?

A
  1. ubiquitin
  2. lysosomes
  3. ca2+ dependent enzymes
80
Q

Which medication is an opioid cough suppressant commonly used with the expectorant guaifenesin?

A

dextromethorphan (cough suppression)

–> DM

81
Q

Which medication is an opioid used in the treatment of diarrhea? (2)

A

loperamide

diphenoxylate

82
Q

Which medication is a non-addictive weak opioid agonist?

A

tramadol

83
Q

Which medication is a partial opioid agonist that causes less respiratory depression

A

butorphanol

84
Q

What neoplasm are patients with TS at risk of developing?

A

multiple hamartomatous tumors (benign)

  • giant cell astrocytoma
  • renal angiomyolipoma
  • cardiac rhabdomyoma

*note, tumors may become malignant

85
Q

What artery is involved with aneurysm causing the eye to look down and out?

A

Pcomm aneurysm

86
Q

What artery is involved with aneurysm that may cause b/l loss of lateral visual fields

A

Acomm (pressing optic chiasm)

87
Q

Which diuretic is used in the treatment of pseudotumor cerebri?

A

Acetazolamide

88
Q

When does implantation of the zygote take place?

A

6 days after fertilization

89
Q

In what disorder is there an abnormal breakdown of elastin?

A

alpha1 anti-trypsin deficiency

90
Q

Which regions of the brain are included in the limbic system? (6)

A
  • amygdala
  • hippocampus
  • septal nucleus
  • mammilary body
  • fornix
  • cingulate gyrus
91
Q

When performing a LP for anesthesia administration, where is the anesthesia dosed? Where is CSF found?

A
  • b/w L3-4 in epidural space

- CSF found in subarachnoid space

92
Q

Which agents are often used in the treatment of urge incontinence?

A

On The Damn Toilet

  • oxybutynin
  • tolterodine
  • darifenacin, solifenacin
  • trospium
93
Q

Outline the pathway by which stimulation of Gq receptor activates protein kinase C

A

Gq –> phospholipase C

  • converts PIP2 into IP3 and DAG
  • DAG –> protein kinase C
94
Q

a 30 yo schizophrenic man now has urinary retention due to his neuroleptic. What do you treat it with?

A

cholinergic agonist (bethanechol)

95
Q

What is the equation for volume of distribution (Vd)

A

Vd = amt of drug given (in IV form) / conc of drug in plasma

96
Q

What effect does changing Km and Vmax have on potency and efficacy

A

increased Vmax –> increased efficacy

decreased Km –> increased potency (inverse relation)

97
Q

What drug class does vecuronium fall under?

A

non-depolarizing NMJ blocker (paralytic)

-curium, -curonium

98
Q

What drug class does desipramine fall under?

A

TCA

-ipramine, -triptyline

99
Q

What drug class does terazosin fall under?

A

alpha1 antagonist

-zosin

100
Q

What is the clinical use for tiotropium?

A

inhaled anti-cholinergic drug for COPD, asthma

101
Q

What enzyme catalyses the conversion of tyrosine to L-DOPA

A

tyrosine hydroxylase

Step 1 DIT (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions