Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 DIT > 2. Neuro > Flashcards

2. Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What abnormalities are often found with a Chiari malformation?

A

Type 1: cerebellar tonsil herniates down; syringomyelia

Type 2: lumbosacral myelomeningocele, hydrocephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the classic presenting sxs of a syringomyelia? (2)

A
  • capelike dist. loss of p/t in upper extremities

- hand weakness + atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What amniotic fluid lab abnormalities might point you to a diagnosis of anencephaly?

A

increased AFP (in mom’s serum and amniotic fluid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

From which branchial pouch are each of the following structures derived?

a. middle ear and eustachian tubes
b. superior parathyroid
c. inferior parathyroids
d. epithelial lining of the palatine tonsil
e. thymus

A

a. 1st pouch
b. 4th pouch
c. 3rd pouch
d. 2nd pouch
e. 3rd pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which nervous system cell looks like fried eggs under histo staining?

A

oligodendrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which nervous system cell forms multinucleated giant cells in the CNS when infected with HIV?

A

microglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which nervous system cell is damaged in GBS?

A

schwann cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which nervous system cell is the macrophages of the CNS?

A

microglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In which neurological diseases is Ach altered? (3)

A

Alzheimers (decreased)
Huntington (decreased)
Parkinson (increased)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In which diseases are levels of GABA altered? (2)

A

Anxiety (decreased)

Huntington (decreased)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the components of the BBB? (3)

A
  1. non-fenestrated capillary endothelial cells with tight junctions
  2. BM
  3. foot process of astrocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A lesion to which area of the brain is responsible for hemispatial neglect?

A

non-dominant parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A lesion to which area of the brain is responsible for poor repetition?

A

Arcuate fasciculus (conductive aphasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A lesion to which area of the brain is responsible for poor comprehension?

A

Wernicke’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A lesion to which area of the brain is responsible for poor verbal expression?

A

Broca’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A lesion to which area of the brain is responsible for personality changes and disinhibition?

A

frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A lesion to which area of the brain is responsible for dysarthria?

A

cerebellar vermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A lesion to which area of the brain is responsible for agraphia and acalculia?

A

angular gyrus in dominant parietal lobe (Gerstmann syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What typically is the cause of a lesion to the mammillary bodies?

A

Thiamine deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where is the pathology located in each of the following scenarios?

a. right anopsia
b. bilateral hemianopsia
c. right homonymous hemianopsia

A

a. right optic nerve
b. optic chiasm
c. left optic tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What 2 nerves are tested with the gag reflex?

A

9 (aff)

10 (eff)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A 19yo man presents with a furuncle on his philtrum, and the cavernous sinus becomes infected. What neurological deficits might you see in this patient?

A

CN 3, 4, 6 –> ophthalmoplegia, diplopia

CN5 –> pain, numbness of upper face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How can a stroke of the facial motor cortex be distinguished from Bell’s palsy?

A

Facial motor cortex = contralateral paralysis of lower face, with forehead/eyebrow sparing (central)

Bell’s palsy = paralysis to both upper and lower face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What artery supplies the medullary pyramids and the medial lemniscus in the medulla?

A

anterior spinal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What artery supplies the inferior cerebellar peduncle, nucleus ambiguus, and the lateral spinothalamic tract in the medulla?

A

PICA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the triad of Horner syndrome?

A
  1. Ptosis
  2. Anhidrosis (decreased sweating)
  3. Miosis (constriction)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A patient comes to the ER with double vision and left-sided weakness. On p/e, she cannot abduct her right eye. In addition to motor weakness of the left arm and leg, she also has loss of fine touch, proprioception, and vibration sense in the left arm and leg. Where is the lesion and what vessel is most likely involved?

A

Right medial pontine syndrome

paramedian branches of basilar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A patient presents with vertigo, nystagmus, and slurred speech. P/e reveals right-sided ptosis and miosis, decreased gag reflex on the right, deviation of the uvula to the left, diminished P/T on the right side of his face, and left side of his body. Where is the lesion and what vessel is most likely involved?

A

Right lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg)

Right PICA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A patient presents with double vision, slurred speech, hoarse voice and acute right-sided weakness. P/e shows weakness of the right arm and leg, and left eye is depressed and abducted. Where is the lesion and what vessel is most likely involved?

A

Left anterior midbrain (Weber syndrome)

L PCA

  1. cerebral peduncle lesion leads to
    - corticobulbar tract damage (dysphagia, dysphonia, dysarthria)
    - corticospinal tract damage
    (contralateral spastic hemiparesis)
  2. CN3 palsy –> down and out
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

savage behavior and obesity result from STIMULATION of which hypothalamic nuclei?

A

dorsomedial (regulates hunger)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

savage behavior and obesity result from DESTRUCTION of which hypothalamic nuclei?

A

ventromedial (regulates satiety; stimulated by leptin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which hypothalamic nuclei is the master clock for setting circadian rhythms

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which hypothalamic nuclei releases hormone affecting the anterior pituitary (3)

A
  • arcuate (secretes GnRH, dopamine, pulsatile GnRH secretion)
  • preoptic (secretes GnRH)
  • paraventricular (secretes oxytocin, CRH, TRH)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

which hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for sweating and cutaneous vasodilation in hot temperature? (cooling)

A

anterior (thermoregulation; cooling)

damage causes hyperthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

which hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for shivering and decreased cutaneous blood flow in the cold? (warming)

A

posterior (thermoregulation; warming)

damage causes hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which hypothalamic nuclei produces ADH to regulate water balance?

A

supraoptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

which hypothalamic nuclei regulates the release of gonadotropic hormones (LH, FSH)?

A

preoptic, arcuate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

destruction of which hypothalamic nuclei results in inability to stay warm?

A

posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

which hypothalamic nuclei receives input from the retina?

A

suprachiasmatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

stimulation of which hypothalamic nuclei leads to eating and destruction leads to anorexia?

A

lateral (regulates hunger; inhibited by leptin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

destruction of which hypothalamic nuclei results in diabetes insipidus?

A

supraoptic (secretes ADH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

kluver bucy syndrome is a lesion to which structure?

A

bilateral amygdala lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where is CSF generated? Where is it reabsorbed?

A
  • choroid plexus

- arachnoid granulations (in the superior sagittal sinus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the difference b/w communicating and noncommunicating hydrocephalus?

A

communicating = non-obstructive (decreased absorption of CSF)

noncommunicating = obstructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Drug used to treat status epilepticus?

A

benzo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is fetal hydantoin syndrome?

A
  • cleft lip/palate
  • congenital heart disease
  • mental retardation with dev delay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

which anti-epileptics are teratogens? (3)

A
  • phenytoin
  • carbamazepine
  • valproic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What drugs are known for causing Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A
  • anti-epileptic drugs (esp. lamotrigine)
  • allopurinol
  • sulfa drugs
  • penicillin

“Steven Johnson has epileptic allergy to sulfa drugs and penicillin”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the toxic effects of phenytoin? (6 main, 2 additional)

A
  1. gingival hyperplasia
  2. hirsutism
  3. fetal hydantoin syndrome
  4. drug-induced lupus
  5. Steven-Johnson
  6. induces p450
  7. megaloblastic anemia
  8. peripheral neuropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?

A

5-HT (serotonin) agonist (1B, 1D receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Contraindications to sumatriptan use? (3)

A
  • CAD
  • prinzmetal angina
  • pregnancy

b/c sumatriptan causes vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the 3 most common primary brain tumors in adults?

A
  1. GBM
  2. Meningioma
  3. Schwannoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the 3 most common primary brain tumors in children?

A
  1. pilocytic astrocytoma
  2. medulloblastoma
  3. ependymoma
54
Q

Which primary brain tumor fits the following description?

- pseudopalisading necrosis

A

GBM

55
Q

Which primary brain tumor fits the following description?

- polycythemia

A

hemangioblastoma

56
Q

Which primary brain tumor fits the following description?

- NF2

A

schwannoma

57
Q

Which primary brain tumor fits the following description?

- associated with von Hippel-Lindau

A

hemangioblastoma

58
Q

Which primary brain tumor fits the following description?

- foamy cells, high vascularity

A

hemangioblastoma

59
Q

Which primary brain tumor fits the following description?

- psammoma bodies

A

meningioma

60
Q

Which primary brain tumor fits the following description?

- fried egg appearance

A

oligodendroglioma

61
Q

Which primary brain tumor fits the following description?

- perivascular pseudorosettes

A

ependymoma

62
Q

Which primary brain tumor fits the following description?

- bitemporal hemianopsia (2)

A
  • pit adenoma, craniopharyngeoma
63
Q

Which primary brain tumor fits the following description?

- worst prognosis of any primary brain tumor

A

GBM

64
Q

Which primary brain tumor fits the following description?

- child with hydrocephalus (2)

A

medulloblastoma, ependymoma

65
Q

Which primary brain tumor fits the following description?

- horner-wright pseudorosettes

A

medulloblastoma

66
Q

What EEG waveforms correspond to the diff. stages of sleep?

awake
awake (relax) 
N1 
N2
N3
REM
A 
awake = beta 
awake (relax) = alpha
N1 = theta
N2 = sleep spindle + K complexes 
N3 = delta (deepest sleep) 
REM = beta

BATS Drink Blood

67
Q

What drugs are used to shorten stage N3 sleep (2)

A

imipramine (TCA)
benzo

These can be given for night terrors, sleep walking, enuresis

68
Q

What is the sleep pattern in a pt with narcolepsy?

A

rapidly transition from awake state –> REM

69
Q

In what stage of sleep are night terrors found?

A

N3

70
Q

Which anesthetic fits each of the following description?

  • IV; associated with hallucinations and bad dreams
A

ketamine

71
Q

Which anesthetic fits each of the following description?

  • IV; most common drug used for conscious sedation
A

midazolam

72
Q

Which anesthetic fits each of the following description?

  • inhaled; side effect of hepatotoxicity
A

halothane

73
Q

Which anesthetic fits each of the following description?

  • IV; used for rapid anesthesia induction and short duration of action
A

propofol

74
Q

Which anesthetic fits each of the following description?

  • IV; decreases cerebral blood flow (important in brain surgery)
A

barbiturates

75
Q

Which anesthetic fits each of the following description?

  • opioid that does not induce histamine release
A

fentanyl

76
Q

Which anesthetic fits each of the following description?

  • high triglyceride content, increases the risk of pancreatitis with long-term use
A

propofol

77
Q

What is the MoA of dantrolene?

A

prevents release of Ca2+ from the SR of skeletal muscle –> causes relaxation (prevents contraction)

78
Q

What is the MoA of local anesthetics?

A

block Na+ channels

79
Q

Which nerve fibers are blocked first with local anesthesia?

A

small myelinated > small unmyelinated > large mye > large unmyelinated

80
Q

What drugs can be used to reverse neuromuscular blockade?

A

cholinesterase inhibitors (neostigmine)

*remember, only works for nondepolarizing drugs (which are competitive antagonists at ACh receptors)

81
Q

Diff between depolarizing and nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs?

A
  • depolarizing = strong ACh receptor agonist; produce sustained depolarization and prevents muscle contraction. no antidote for phase 1
    (ex. Succinylcholine)
  • non-depolarizing = competitive antagonist at ACh receptor
82
Q

What are the 3 goals of general anesthesia?

A
  1. amnesia - no memory
  2. analgesia - no pain
  3. immobilization - paralysis
83
Q

What are the differences b/w the 1a afferent motor pathway and the 1b afferent motor pathway?

A

1a: comes from muscle spindle; stimulates alpha-MN –> muscle contraction
1b: comes from golgi tendo organ –> inhibits contraction

84
Q

What is the different b/w essential tremor, resting tremor, and intention?

A

essential: occurs both @ rest + mvt (family hx)
resting: only at rest (Parkinson)
intention: w/ movement (lateral cerebellar hemisphere damage)

85
Q

What is Romberg testing?

A

dorsal column!!! (not cerebellum)

86
Q

a 28 yo chemist presents with MPTP exposure. What neurotransmitter is depleted?

A

Dopamine

[MPTP –> MPP –> destroys dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra]

87
Q

How do each of the following structures normally impact movement?

a. globus pallidus interna
b. subthalamic nucleus (STN)
c. substantia nigra pars compacta

A

a. inhib
b. inhib
c. stimulate

88
Q

A male patient presents with involuntary flailing of one arm. Where is the lesion?

A

contralateral STN

89
Q

What neurotransmitters are altered in Huntington?

A

glutamate toxicity

  • decreased ACh
  • decreased GABA
  • increased dopamine
90
Q

Which spinal tract convey voluntary motor command from motor cortex to head/neck?

A

corticobulbar tract

91
Q

Which spinal tract is important for postural adjustments and head movements?

A

vestibulospinal tract

92
Q

Which spinal tract convey proprioceptive information for the cerebellum?

A

dorsal and ventral spinocerebellar tracts

93
Q

What are the findings of Brown-Sequard syndrome? (5)

A
  1. ipsilateral UMN signs below lesion
  2. ipsi loss of p/v below lesion
  3. contra p/t loss 2-3 segments below lesion
  4. ipsi p/t loss @ the level of lesion
  5. LMN sign @ the lesion (anterior horn)
94
Q

What nerve is damaged when pt is unable to extend 4th and 5th fingers?

A

ulnar (ulnar claw)

95
Q

What nerve is damaged when pt is unable to flex index and middle finger?

A

median (hand of benediction)

96
Q

What nerve is damaged when pt has wrist drop?

A

radial nerve

97
Q

What nerve is damaged when pt has scapular winging

A

long thoracic

SALT –> serratus anterior, long thoracic

98
Q

What nerve is damaged when pt has loss of sensation over fingers 1-4

A

median

99
Q

What nerve is damaged when pt cannot abduct or adduct fingers

A

ulnar

100
Q

What nerve is damaged when pt has loss of shoulder abduction

A

axillary

101
Q

What nerve is damaged when pt has loss of elbow flexion and forearm supination

A

musculocutaneous

102
Q

What nerve is damaged when pt has loss of wrist extension

A

radial

103
Q

What nerve is the most at risk of injury with fracture of the shaft of the humerus?

A

radial

104
Q

What nerve is the most at risk of injury with fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus?

A

axillary

105
Q

What nerve is the most at risk of injury with anterior shoulder dislocation

A

axillary

106
Q

What artery and nerve are most at risk of being damaged with anterior dislocation of shoulder?

A

axillary nerve

posterior circumflex artery

107
Q

Which nerve would most likely be damaged with pelvic fracture?

A

femoral nerve

108
Q

Which nerve would most likely be damaged with anterior hip dislocation?

A

obturator nerve

109
Q

Which nerve would most likely be damaged with posterior hip dislocation?

A

superior and inferior gluteal nerves

110
Q

Which nerve would most likely be damaged with vertebral disc herniation

A

sciatic

111
Q

Which nerve would most likely be damaged with knee injury

A

tibial nerve

112
Q

Which nerve would most likely be damaged with habitual crossing of the leg

A

common peroneal nerve

113
Q

Which 2 muscle receptors are responsible for opening the sarcoplasmic reticulum in response to depolarization?

A

dihydropyridine receptor coupled to ryanodine receptor

114
Q

What drug prevents the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle?

A

dantrolene

115
Q

what is the difference b/w type 1 and type 2 muscle fibers?

A

Type 1: slow twitch, red (b/c of high levels of mitochondria and myoglobin)

  • oxidative phosphorylation
  • sustained contraction

Type 2: fast twitch
- anaerobic glycolysis

116
Q

What sensory receptor communicates pricking pain (fast, myelinated)?

A

A-delta

117
Q

What sensory receptor communicates burning or dull pain and itch (slow, unmyelinated)

A

C fibers

118
Q

What sensory receptor communicates vibration and pressure?

A

Pacinian corpuscles

119
Q

What sensory receptor communicates dynamic/changing light, discriminatory touch?

A

Meissner

120
Q

What sensory receptor communicates static/unchanging light touch?

A

Merkel

121
Q

What sensory receptor communicates proprioception information (muscle length monitoring)?

A

muscle spindle (around intrafusal muscle fibers)

122
Q

What sensory receptor communicates proprioception information (muscle TENSION monitoring)?

A

golgi tendon organ

123
Q

What initial type of vision loss is commonly seen in pts with open angle glaucoma?

A

peripheral vision loss

124
Q

What drug classes are used in the treatment of glaucoma? (2 main, 3 others)

A

1st line

  • Beta blockers
  • prostaglandins

Others:

  • alpha-agonist
  • carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
  • cholinergic agonists
125
Q

What is the treatment for dry age-related macular degeneration? (2)

A
  • smoking cessation

- anti-oxidant vitamins

126
Q

A patient presents with vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. What is the diagnosis?

A

Meniere disease (endolymphatic hydrops)

127
Q

Which organisms are most commonly responsible for acute otitis media? (3)

A

S. pneumo
nontypable H. influenzae
M. catarrhalis

128
Q

What organism is most commonly responsible for otitis externa?

A

Pseudomonas

129
Q

Chronic otitis media can sometimes result in a cystic lesion that is lined by keratinizing squamous epithelium, which can be metaplastic, that is filled with amorphous debris. What is the name of this condition?

A

Cholesteatoma

130
Q

Why is Alzheimer disease more common in pts with Down syndrome?

A

b/c of extra chromosome 21 (which has APP gene)

131
Q

What is the MoA of the drugs used in the treatment of Alzheimer disease? (2)

A
  • cholinesterase inhibitors

- NMDA receptor antagonist

Step 1 DIT (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions