Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 DIT > DIT Rapid-Fire Facts > Flashcards

DIT Rapid-Fire Facts Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause of neural tube defects

A

folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most common preventable cause of congenital malformation in the US

A

alcohol use during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hyperflexible joints, arachnodactyly, aortic dissection, lens dislocation

A

Marfan syndrome (defect in fibrillin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hereditary nephritis, cataracts, sensorineural hearing loss

A

Alport syndrome (defect in type 4 collagen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Drug of choice for absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Branching, filamentous, gram positive rods with sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cellulitis from cat or dog bite

A

Pasteurella multocida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

moist smooth flat white genital lesion

A

condyloma lata (2ndary syphilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Medical treatment for pheochromocytoma

A

alpha-antagonist (phenoxybenzamine, phentolamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Selective alpha1-antagonist used to treat BPH

A

tamsulosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Eczema, recurrent cold abscesses, high serum IgE

A

Hyper IgE (Job syndrome)

  • impaired differentiation of Th17 cells (helps recruit neutrophils)
  • impaired recruitment of neutrophils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Large phagosomal vesicles in neutrophils

A

Chediak-Higashi disease

  • defective phagocyte lysosomes (defective lysosomal transport gene)
  • present w/ partial albinism, recurrent resp and skin infections, neurologic disorders (ex. peripheral neuropathy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

degeneration of the dorsal columns

A

tabes dorsalis (tertiary syphilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Intracellular deposits of hyperphosphorylated tau protein

A

Alzheimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Intracellular spherical aggregates of tau protein seen on silver stain

A

Frontotemporal dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

dysphagia, glossitis, iron deficiency anemia

A

Plummer-Vinson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

hematemesis with retching

A

Mallory-Weiss tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

mucin-filled cell with a peripheral nucleus?

A

signet ring cell (seen in gastric cancer, LCIS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most common type of stomach cancer

A

gastric adenoCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ovarian metastasis from gastric cancer

A

Krukenberg tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Gastric ulcerations and high gastrin levels

A

Zollinger Ellison syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Acute gastric ulcer associated with elevated ICP or head trauma

A

cushing ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Acute gastric ulcer associated with severe burns

A

curling ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Weight loss, diarrhea, arthritis, fever, adenopathy, hyperpigmentation

A

Whipple disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Anti-transglutaminase/anti-gliadin antibodies

A

Celiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

GI hamartomas, hyperpigmentation of the mouth and hands

A

Peutz-Jeghers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Multiple colon polyps, osteomas, soft tissue tumors

A

Gardner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

most common site of colonic diverticula

A

sigmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

“string sign” on contrast x-ray

A

Crohn’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

“lead pipe” appearance of colon on contrast x-ray

A

UC

–> b/c of loss of haustra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Painless jaundice

A

pancreatic cancer (esp at the head of the pancreas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

gallstones, alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis

A

alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

severe hyperbili in a neonate?

A

CN type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

mild, benign hyperbili

A

Gilbert (unconjugated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Triglyceride accumulation in hepatocytes

A

fatty liver disease (hepatic steatosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Eosinophilic inclusions in the cytoplasm of hepatocytes

A

Mallory bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Hepatomegaly, abdominal pain, ascites

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

low serum ceruloplasmin

A

Wilson disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

cirrhosis, diabetes, hyperpigmentation

A

hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

chronic sinusitis, infertility, situs inversus

A

Kartagener syndrome (primary ciliary dyskinesia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Hypercoagulability, endothelial damage, stasis of blood

A

Virchow’s triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Curschmann spirals

A

sped epithelium from mucus plugs (Asthma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

B/l hilar adenopathy, uveitis

A

sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

Goodpasture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

honeycomb lungs on cxr

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

“tennis racket”-shaped cytoplasmic organelles

A

Birbeck granules (Langerhans cell histiocytosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Iron-containing nodules in the alveolar septum

A

ferruginous bodies (asbestosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

lung cancer associated with SIADH?

A

small cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

tumor associated with Horner syndrome?

A

Pancoast tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Lung cancer associated with hypercalcemia?

A

squamous cell (secretion of PTHrP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Lung cancer associated with Cushing syndrome?

A

small cell (secretion of ACTH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Lung cancer associated with weakness?

A

small cell (lambert-eaton)

54
Q

Substances associated with lung cancer? (4)

A

smoke, radon, silica, asbestos

55
Q

Chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and persistent fever occurring several weeks after an MI

A

Dressler syndrome

56
Q

Splinter hemorrhages under the fingernails

A

Infective endocarditis

57
Q

Retinal hemorrhages with pale centers

A

Roth spots (inf. endocarditis)

58
Q

Heart valve most commonly involved in infective endocarditis

A

mitral valve

59
Q

Heart valve most commonly involved in an IVDU with infective endocarditis

A

tricuspid valve

60
Q

Granulomatous nodules in the heart

A

Aschoff bodies

61
Q

Most common primary cardiac tumor in adults

A

myxoma (left atrial)

62
Q

Most common primary cardiac tumor in children

A

Rhabdomyoma

63
Q

Most common cause of constrictive pericarditis

A

US: lupus

Dev. countries: TB

64
Q

c-ANCA

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)

65
Q

p-ANCA (2)

A
  • Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss)
  • Microscopic polyangiitis
66
Q

Treatment for thromboangiitis obliterans

A

smoking cessation

67
Q

treatment for giant cell arteritis

A

high-dose steroids

68
Q

“Currant jelly” sputum

A

Klebsiella

69
Q

Osteomyelitis in pt with sickle cell disease

A

salmonella

70
Q

“strawberry cervix”

A

trichomonas vaginalis

71
Q

clue cells

A

Gardnerella vaginalis (causing bacterial vaginosis)

72
Q

bacterial with “school of fish” appearance

A

Haemophilus ducreyi (chanchroid)

73
Q

Orotic acid in the urine + elevated serum ammonia

A

ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

74
Q

orotic acid in the urine + normal serum ammonia

A

orotic aciduria

75
Q

megaloblastic anemia that does not improve with folate and B12

A

orotic aciduria

76
Q

Most common class of medication for bulimia nervosa

A

fluoxetine (SSRIs)

77
Q

Medical treatment for alcohol withdrawal

78
Q

Treatment for central DI

A

desmopressin

79
Q

Treatment for nephrogenic DI

A

HCTZ, indomethacin

80
Q

Treatment for lithium-induced nephrogenic DI

81
Q

Bluish-colored lines on the gingivae

A

Burton lines (lead poisoning)

82
Q

Treatment of choice for rickets or osteomalacia?

83
Q

Swollen gums, poor wound healing, bleeding mucous membranes, and spots on the skin

A

scurvy (vit C def)

84
Q

Most common vitamin deficiency in the US

A

folate deficiency

85
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils

A

megaloblastic anemia (either B12 or folate deficiency)

86
Q

dilated cardiomyopathy, edema, polyneuropathy

A

wet beri beri (thiamine deficiency)

87
Q

preferred anticoagulant for immediate anticoagulation?

A

heparin or LMWH

88
Q

preferred anticoagulation during pregnancy

A

heparin or LMWH

89
Q

Causes of hypochromic, microcytic anemia

A

iron def, thalassemia, lead poisoning

90
Q

hypersegmented neutrophils

A

B12 or folate deficiency

91
Q

Skull x-ray shows a “hair-on-end” appearance

A

marrow hyperplasia (seen in beta-thal or sickle cell disease)

92
Q

basophilic stippling of RBCs

A

lead poisoning

93
Q

Painful cyanosis of the fingers and toes with hemolytic anemia

A

cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia

94
Q

Red urine in the morning and fragile RBCs

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

95
Q

basophilic nuclear remnants in the RBCs

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

96
Q

Autosplenectomy

A

Sickle cell disease

97
Q

drugs used to treat sickle cell disease

A

hydroxyurea (increases level of HbF)

98
Q

antiplatelet antibodies

A

immune thrombocytopenia

99
Q

bleeding disorder with gp1b deficiency

A

Bernard-soulier

100
Q

most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

von Willebrand disease

101
Q

cancer most commonly associated with a noninfectious fever

A

Hodgkin lymphoma (B symptoms)

102
Q

sheets of lymphoid cells, with a “starry sky” appearance

A

Burkitt lymphoma

103
Q

large B cells with bilobed nuclei and prominent “owl’s eye inclusions”

A

Reed sternberg cells of hodgkin lymphoma

104
Q

“smudge” cells

105
Q

“punched out” lytic bone lesions

A

Multiple myeloma

106
Q

RBCs clumped together like a stack of coins

A

Rouleaux formation (multiple myeloma)

107
Q

monoclonal antibody spike

A

MM, MGUS, Waldenstorm

108
Q

reddish-pink rods in the cytoplasm of leukemic blasts

A

auer rods (AML)

109
Q

Dark purple nodules on the skin in an HIV patient

A

Kaposi sarcoma

110
Q

Temporal lobe encephalitis

111
Q

“Owl eye” inclusions in organ tissue

112
Q

Intranuclear eosinophilic droplets

A

HSV (type A Cowdry bodies)

113
Q

Aplastic anemia in a sickle cell patient

A

Parvovirus B19

114
Q

Child with fever and “slapped cheek” rash on the face that spreads to his body

A

5th disease (caused by parvo b19)

115
Q

fever, runny nose, cough, conjunctivitis, diffuse rash

A

rubeola (measles)

116
Q

associated with subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

A

previous measles infection

117
Q

small, irregular, blue-gray spots on the buccal mucosa, surrounded by a base of red

A

koplik spots (measles)

118
Q

dark purple nodules on the skin in an HIV pt?

A

Kaposi sarcoma

119
Q

large cells with owl’s eye inclusions

120
Q

treatment for CMV

A

ganciclovir

121
Q

most common opportunistic infection in HIV pts

122
Q

drug used to prevent PCP

123
Q

treatment for oral candidiasis

A

nystatin, fluconazole

124
Q

ppx for cryptococcus in AIDS pts

A

fluconazole

125
Q

treatment for systemic candidiasis

A

amphotericin B

126
Q

treatment for sporothrix schenckii

A

itraconazole, potassium iodide

127
Q

Ring-enhancing brain lesion in an HIV patient

128
Q

Treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis

A

metronidazole

129
Q

Most common protozoal diarrhea

130
Q

Most common helminth infection in the US

A

enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)

131
Q

2nd most common helminth infection in the US

A

ascaris lumbricoides (giant roundworm)

Step 1 DIT (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions