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DIT Questions Flashcards

1
Q 
Where would you find the following in a lymph node?
B cells
T cells
Plasma Cells
Macrophages
A

B cells are in the follicle in outer cortex
T cells are in the paracortex
Plasma cells are in the medullary cords of the lymph node
Macrophages are in the medullary sinus

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2
Q

Forkhead Box Protein B3

A

From FOXP3 gene on the X chromosome.

Serves as a transcription factor for the development and function of regulatory T cells.

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3
Q

What are the female homologues of the following male structures?
Corpus Spongiosum –>
Cowper’s Glands (Blulbourethral glands) –>
Prostate –>
Glans Penis –>
Ventral Penile Shaft (penile urethra)–>
Scrotum –>

A

Corpus Spongiosum –> Vestibular bulbs
Cowper’s Glands (Blulbourethral glands) –> Greater Vestibular glands (of Bartholin)
Prostate –> Urethral and paraurethral glands (of skene)
Glans Penis –> Glans clitoris
Ventral Penile Shaft (penile urethra)–> labia minora
Scrotum –> labia majora

Remember you need Estrogen to get the female parts and Dihydrotestosterone to get the male parts

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4
Q

Intrinsic Apoptosis

A

Increased Bax (pro-apoptotic) and decreased Bcl-2 (anti-apoptotic) leads to increased mitochondrial permeability and cytochrome C released leading to activation of intracellular caspases

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5
Q

Extrinsic Apoptosis

A

Either:

  1. Fas ligand binds to FasR (CD95) or
  2. CD8 cell releases perforin and granzyme B

leads to activation of intracellular caspases

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6
Q

What is the important component of surfactant?

A

Surfactant made of lecithins, most important is Dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine

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7
Q

What ratio indicates fetal lung maturity?

A

A lecithin:Spingomyelin of >2:1 in amniotic fluid

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8
Q

What amino acids are necessary for purine synthesis?

A

GAG: Glycine, Aspartate, Glutamine

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9
Q

Drug’s Clearance equation

A

Cl = (Vd x 0.7) / T1/2

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10
Q

What bacteria are well known for being obligate intracellular and why

A

Rickettsia and Chlamydia.
Unable to make their own ATP so they use the hosts ATP

“Stay inside the cell because it’s Really Cold out”

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11
Q

What is Achalasia?

A

Failure of relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter due to loss of myenteric (Auerbach’s) plexus.

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12
Q

What is Peripheral Vascular Disease/Peripheral Arterial Disease?

A

Atherosclerosis of the peripheral arteries.

  • Claudication
  • Decreased peripheral pulses
  • Feet may become cold to the touch
  • Skin can become pale/shiny and hairless
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13
Q

What is a deep venous thrombosis?

A

A blood clot forming in the peripheral veins.

  • Most likely due to immobilization.
  • Leg is warm (Not cool)
  • Increased calf circumference
  • Moses Sign - calf tenderness with compression
  • Homan’s sign - calf pain with ankle dorsiflexion (not a sensitive test)
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14
Q

What are the equations for cardiac output?

A

CO = SV x HR

CO = (rate of O2 consumption) / (arterial O2 content - venous O2 content)

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15
Q

What’s up with Vitamin K’s use?

A

Catalyzes gamma carboxylation of glutamic acid residues on various proteins.
Activates Factors II, VII, IX, and X and Protein C and Protein S

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16
Q

What two arachidonic acid products affect platelet aggregation?

A

Thromboxane A2 promotes platelet aggregation.

Prostacyclin (PGI2) inhibits platelet aggregation

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17
Q

What are some medications that act on microtubules?

A 
Mebendazole (anti-helminthic)
Griseofulvin (anti-fungal)
Vincristine/Vinblastine (anti-cancer)
Paclitaxel (anti-breast cancer)
Colchicine (anti-gout)
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18
Q

What syndrome demonstrates a defect in microtubule polymerization?

A

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome.
AR, defect in lysosomal trafficking regulator gene (LYST)
Microtubule dysfunction resulting in failure of phagosome-lysosome fusion

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19
Q

What GI ligament separates the greater and lesser sacs?

A

Gastrosplenic ligament and Gastrohepatic ligament

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20
Q

What GI ligament may be cut during surgery to access the lesser sac?

A

Gastrohepatic ligament

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21
Q

What are the 2 GI ligaments that connect the spleen to other structures?

A

Splenorenal ligament and Gastrosplenic ligament

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22
Q

What GI ligament contains the portal triad?

A

Hepatoduodenal ligament.

Portal triad - hepatic artery, portal vein, common bile duct

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23
Q

What GI ligament connects the liver to the anterior abdominal wall?

A

Falciform ligament.

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24
Q

What is Narcolepsy and what are its characteristics?

A

Narcolepsy is disordered regulation of sleep-wake cycles.
Characteristics: - excessive daytime sleepiness
- hallucination - Hypnagogic (before sleep) and Hypnopompic (before awakening)
- Nocturnal and narcoleptic sleep both start with REM sleep
- Cataplexy

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25
Q

What is narcolepsy treated with?

A

Day time stimulants like amphetamines or modafinil.

Sodium oxybate can assist with sleep and reduce cataplexy

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26
Q

First-line treatment for erectile dysfunction and MOA

A

Sildenafil, Vardenafil, Tadalafil
Inhibits phosphodiesterase 5 causing increased cGMP, smooth muscle relaxation in the corpus cavernosum leading to increased blood flow and penile erection

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27
Q

What drugs are used to treat Crohn’s that target TNF-alpha?

A

Infliximab, Adalimumab and Certolizumab

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28
Q

What is a cholesteatoma?

A

Overgrowth of desquamated keratin debris located in the middle ear space against the inside of the tympanic membrane.
Can eventually erode the ossicles and external auditory canal leading to hearing loss.

Patient may present with chronic middle ear infections, grayish-white pearly lesion behind the tympanic membrane, conductive hearing loss, or vertigo

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29
Q

What are the adverse effects of exogenous testosterone in males?

A 
In children:
- premature puberty
- premature closure of epiphyseal plates (growth restriction)
In adults:
- Erythrocytosis
- Worsening of sleep apnea
- Suppression of spermatogenesis
- Increased LDL and decreased HDL
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30
Q

What is the initial treatment for torsades de pointes?

A

IV magnesium sulfate

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31
Q

What 3 structures give rise to the Blood brain barrier?

A
  1. Tight junctions between non-fenestrated capillary endothelial cells
  2. Basement membrane
  3. Astrocyte foot processes
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32
Q

what diuretics are used in hyperaldosteronism?

A

Spironolactone and Eplerenone: Competitive aldosterone antagonists in cortical collecting duct

Triamterene and Amiloride: Block sodium transport channels in the cortical collecting duct resulting in a decreased in the Na+/K+ exchanger

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33
Q

What are the different causes of homocystinuria? And how do you treat them?

A
  1. Cystationine synthase deficiency; TX with decreased methionine, increased cysteine, increased B12 and folate in diet
  2. Decreased affinity of cystathionine synthase for pyridoxal phosphate (B6); TX with increased vitamin B6
  3. Homocysteine Methyltransferase deficiency; TX with Vitamin B12
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34
Q

What is the pathway that the cochlea communicates a signal to the primary auditory canal?

A

Signal goes from cell bodies of the spiral ganglion (in cochlea) to the cochlear nuclei
then to the CL superior olivary nucleus
then to the lateral lemniscus to the inferior colliculus then the medial geniculate body
Lastly tot he primary auditory cortex

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35
Q

What is the structure of HbH?

A

This is an alpha thalassemia

Made of beta tetramers

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36
Q

What is the structure for Hb Barts?

A

This is an alpha thalassemia made of gamma tetramers.

Seen in infants and results in hydrops fetalis

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37
Q

What cholinergic agonist can be used to treat post-op ileus and urinary retention?

A

Bethanechol (direct cholinergic agonist)

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38
Q

What conditions can be made worse by using cholinomimetic agents?

A

Can exacerbate asthma, COPD, and peptic ulcers

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39
Q

What conditions can be helped with hyperbaric oxygen therapy?

A

Severe carbon monoxide poisoning
Decompression sicknes
Arterial gas emboli
Gas gangrene (Clostridium perfringens)

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40
Q

After a splenectomy, what would you expect to see on a peripheral blood smear?

A

Would expect to see Howell-Jolly Bodies

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41
Q

What organisms are asplenic patients susceptible to? And what vaccines should they get?

A 
Encapsulated organisms --> SHiNE SKiS
Streptococcus penumoniae
Haemophilus Influenzae
Neisseria meningitides
E.coli
Salmonella
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Group B Strep

What vaccines? S. pneumo, H flu type B and Neisseria meningitidis

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42
Q

What can increase contractility of the heart?

A
  • Catecholamines
  • Sympathetic stimulation
  • Increased intracellular calcium
  • Decreased extracellular sodium
  • Digoxin
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43
Q

What can decreased contractility of the heart?

A
  • Beta 1 blockade
  • Heart failure
  • Acidosis
  • Hypoxia
  • Calcium channel blockers like verapamil or diltiazem
  • Decreased intracellular calcium
  • Increased extracellular sodium
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44
Q

What is the pressure in the potential spaces of the body including pleural cavity, joint spaces, and pericardial cavity?

A

The hydrostatic pressure in these spaces is negative to help facilitate the diffusion of fluid into the spaces

  • Pleural cavity: - 7 to -8 cm H2O
  • Joint spaces: -3 to -5 cm H2O
  • Pericardial cavity: -5 to -6 mm Hg
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45
Q

What is Standard deviation?

A

SD is a measure of how much variation there is between data in a sample
1 SD = 68%; 2 SD = 95%, 3 SD = 99.7%

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46
Q

What is standard error of the mean?

A

SEM is how well the mean of a particular sample can predict the mean of a population.
The larger the sample size, the close you get to the mean of the whole population.

SEM = SD/Sq. Rt (n)

The larger the sample size, the closer you get to the mean of the whole population

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47
Q

How do you calculate confidence intervals?

A

CI = range from [mean - Z (SEM)] to [mean + Z (SEM)]

95% CI, Z = 1.96
99% CI, Z = 2.58

The more confident you want to be, the wider your range

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48
Q

What are some lung cancers in NON smokers?

A

Most common - bronchial Adenocarcinoma
Bronchioloalveolar adenocarcinoma
malignant mesothelioma (technically a pleural cancer)

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49
Q

What are lung cancers that are associated with smoking?

A

Small cell carcinoma and Squamous cell carcinoma

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50
Q

Fibrous band that attaches the testis to the scrotum and aids in normal testicular descent

A

Gubernaculum.

Female equivalent is the Ovarian ligament and Round ligament of the uterus

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51
Q

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

A 
Osler-Weber- Rendu syndrome (AD)
Findings: 
Telangiectasia (skin, mucous membranes, organs - liver, lung brain)
Recurrent epistaxis
Skin discolorations
AVMs

can result in high-output heart failure

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52
Q

What is a case control study?

A

Observational and retrospective; compares a group of people with a disease to a group without a disease
Looking for a prior exposure or risk factor
Uses Odds ratio

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53
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

Observational and prospective or retrospective; compares a group with a given exposure or risk factor to a group without such exposure
Looks to see if a exposure increases the risk of a disease
Uses Relative Risk

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54
Q

What is a clinical trial?

A

Prospective, experiment
Should be controlled, randomized and double blinded
Compares outcomes from 2 different treatments

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55
Q

What are the actions of Prostaglandins E2?

A

Increases uterine tone
Causes vasodilation
Causes bronchodilation

NSAIDs inhibit PGE2!

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56
Q

What are the affects of Angiotensin II and Prostaglandins at the Renal arterioles?

A

Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction of the efferent arterioles leading to increased GFR and filtration fraction

Prostaglandins cause vasodilation of the afferent arterioles leading to increased GFR

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57
Q

What’s the most common form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

21 hydroxylase deficiency
Decreased aldosterone and cortisol and increased androgens
Patients present with hypotension, hyperkalemia, volume depletion, masculination

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58
Q

What do Th1 and Th2 cells secrete?

A

Th1: IFN G and IL2
Th2: IL4, IL5, IL10, IL13

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59
Q

What inguinal hernia traverses through Hasselbach’s triangle?

A

Direct inguinal hernia. Begins protrusion medial to inferior epigastric vessels

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60
Q

What inguinal hernia traverses lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels?

A

Indirect inguinal hernia

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61
Q

What forms Hesselbach’s triangle?

A

Inguinal ligament, inferior epigastric vessels, and lateral wall of rectus abdominus

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62
Q

What are the 3 endogenous androgens in order from most potent to least?

A
  1. DHT
  2. Testosterone
  3. Androstenedione
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63
Q

Nonhemolytic, normocytic anemia caused by failure of destruction of myeloid stem cells

A

Aplastic anemia

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64
Q

What drugs can cause aplastic anemia?

A

Benzene, chloramphenicol, alkylating agents, antimetabolites, NSAIDs, propylthiouracil, methemazole

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65
Q

What is decompression sickness?

A

When divers come up too quickly.
Gases (especially nitrogen) that had dissolved in the blood at high pressures form gas bubbles that can occlude blood vessels.
AKA “the bends”

66
Q

What is closed/narrow angle glaucoma?

A

The iris and lens are stuck together/pushed up against each other and pressure builds up behind the iris since the aqueous humor can’t drain.
Can be chronic (asymptomatic)
or acute (ophthalmic emergency - rock hard eye that’s painful)

67
Q

What is open/wide angle glaucoma?

A

Canal of Schlemm is blocked so fluid can’t drain from the trabecular meshwork like it normally would.

Gradual vision loss

68
Q

What is the treatment for closed angle glaucoma?

A
  1. topical beta blockers - Timolol
  2. Topical alpha2 agonists - Apraclonidine
  3. Topical muscarinic agonist - pilocarpine
69
Q

What is the treatment for open angle glaucoma?

A
  1. topical prostaglandins - latanoprost
  2. topical beta blocker
  3. topical alpha 2 agonist
70
Q

What is the metabolism of ethanol?

A

Ethanol (Alcohol dehydrogenase) to Acetaldehyde (Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase) to Acetate

  • Acetaldehyde gives you the N/V, headache
71
Q

What drug blocks Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase?

A

Disulfiram

72
Q

What medications are disulfiram-like?

A 
Metronidazole
Certain cephalosportins
Procarbazine
First generation sulfonylureas
Griseofulvin
73
Q

A patient with Xeroderma Pigmentosum has increased risk for what cancers?

A

Skin cancers melanoma, basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma

74
Q

Which thalamic nuclei are the relay stations for each of the following body sensations/activities?

  • Auditory sensation
  • Visual sensation
  • Motor to the body
  • Facial sensation
  • Body sensation
A
  • Auditory sensation - Medial geniculate nucleus
  • Visual sensation - Lateral geniculate nucleus
  • Motor to the body - Ventrolateral nucleus
  • Facial sensation - ventroposteromedial nucleus
  • Body sensation - ventroposterolateral nucleus
75
Q

What is PPAR Gamma?

A

Peroxisome proliferator activated receptor gamma

nuclear receptor and transcription factor found in adipose that plays a role in adipocyte differentiation.
Thiazolidinediones bind PPAR gamma and improve insulin sensitivity

76
Q

A bacteria that is found in lice that can cause recurrent infection

A

Borrelia recurrentis

can alter proteins expressed on it’s surface so it can keep causing new immune responses

77
Q

What phases are a primary and secondary oocyte arrested in?

A

Primary oocyte - just before ovulation - arrested in Meiosis I, prophase I

Secondary oocyte - just prior to fertilization - arrested in Meiosis II, Metaphase II

78
Q

What structures are pierced from exterior to interior for a lumbar puncture?

A
  1. skin/superficial fascia
  2. ligaments - supraspinous, interspinous, ligamentum falvum
  3. epidural space
  4. dura mater
  5. subdural space
  6. arachnoid space
  7. subarachnoid space (CSF)
79
Q

What medications are used for pulmonary hypertension and what’s their MOA?

A

All work via vasodilation.

A. Endothelin-1 receptor antagonist - Bosentan
B. Prostaglandins - Iloprost, Epoprostenol
C. cGMP phosphodiesterase inhibitors - Vardenafil, tadalafil, sildenafil
D. Dihydropyridine CCBs - Nifedipine

80
Q

Origin of the nucleus pulposus of intervertebral disc

A

comes from the notochord (mesoderm)

81
Q

What are the stages of normal sleep and their EKGs?

A

Awake eyes open (beta - highest F and lowest A)
Awake eyes closed (alpha)
Stage N1 - Theta
Stage N2 - sleep spindles and K complexes
Stage N3 - delta (lowest F and highest A)
REM - Beta

82
Q

Which T cell regulates the humoral response?

A

Th2 cells augment the humoral (plasma cell) response - generates IL4 and IL5

83
Q

Which T cell regulates the cell mediated response?

A

Th1 cells augment the cell mediated (cytotoxic T cell) response - generate IL2 and IFN gamma

84
Q

What can cause primary amenorrhea?

A

Primary amenorrhea (NEVER had a period before)

  • Turned syndrome
  • Imperforate hymen
  • Androgen insensitivity syndrome
  • Mullerian duct agenesis
  • Delayed puberty
85
Q

Cystic enlargement of the central canal of the spinal cord

A

Syringomyelia.
Can damage the crossing fibers of the spinothalamic tract first leading to “cape-like” bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in upper extremities

86
Q

What skin cancer is associated with exposure to arsenic?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

87
Q

Irreversible alpha blocker

A

Phenoxybenzamine. Used pre-op for pheochromocytoma removal.

Can cause orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachycardia

88
Q

Alpha and Beta (1+2) agonist

A

Epinephrine

89
Q

Alpha agonist only

A

Phenylephrine

90
Q

What are the steps of conversion of vitamin D to its active form?

A

7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin (UV light) to Cholecalciferol (in the liver) to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol AKA calcidiol (1 alpha hydroxylase in kidney) to 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol AKA calcitriol

91
Q

What beta lactamase inhibitors are added to penicillins to aid in their activity against bacteria?

A

Clavulanic acid, sulbactam, and tazobactam

92
Q

What is the most common benign tumor of the salivary gland?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

presents as a painless, mobile mass. Composed of cartilage and epithelium and recurs frequently

93
Q

What is a Warthin’s tumor?

A

AKA Papillary cystadenoma lymphomastosum

a benign cystic tumor with germinal centers

94
Q

What bacteria are most commonly responsible for sialadenitis?

A

Sialadenitis = inflammation of the salivary glands

Staph aureus, strep viridans

95
Q

What shows an EKG of ventricular tachycardia with shifting sinusoidal waveforms?

A

Torsades de pointes

Caused by anything that prolongs the QT interval

96
Q

What are the characteristics of an MRI?

A

MRU does not use ionizing radiation
Caution with metal objects
used for looking at soft tissue - brain, spinal cord, ligaments, cartilage
Bones appear gray

97
Q

What are characteristics of CT?

A

Uses ionizing radiation
Used for bone detail and recognition of blood
Bones appear white

98
Q

What enzymes to obligate anaerobes lack and what do they do?

A

Catalase - converts hydrogen peroxide into water and CO2

Superoxide dismutase - converts oxygen radicals to hydrogen peroxide and water

99
Q

Incomplete fusion of paramesonephric ducts

A

Bicornuate uterus

can result in multiple miscarriages

100
Q

What do the paramesonephric ducts form?

A

AKA Mullerian ducts

Forms fallopian tubes, uterus and upper portion of the vagina

101
Q

What ovarian germ tumor can arise from a Hydatidiform mole?

A

Choriocarcinoma

102
Q

What clinical features will you see with a platelet disorder?

A

Increased bleeding time

Microhemorrhages - petechiae, mucus membrane bleeding, epistaxis, purpura

103
Q

What clinical features will you see with a coagulation factor defect?

A

Increased PT and/or PTT

Macrohemorrhages - hemarthrosis and easy bruising

104
Q

What is necessary for Vitamin B 12 to be absorbed?

A

Intrinsic factor released from parietal cells is necessary for vitamin B 12 to be absorbed from the terminal ileum

105
Q

What is the blood flow into and out of the thyroid gland?

A

Arteries: External carotid artery gives rise to the superior thyroid artery
Thyrocervical trunk gives rise to the inferior thyroid artery

Veins: superior, middle and inferior thyroid veins

106
Q

What is first degree heart block?

A

Prolonged PR interval (> 200 msec)

Patients are asymptomatic

107
Q

What part of the brain results in a coma when it has a lesion?

A

Reticular activating system (in the midbrain)

108
Q

What is a desmosome (macular adherens) and what is the name of the disorder for autoantibodies against desmosomes?

A

A desmosome connects cells to other cells. Structural support via kertain interactions.
Autoantibodies result in Pemphigus vulgaris

109
Q

What is a hemidesmosome and what is the name of the disorder for autoantibodies against hemidesmosomes?

A

Hemidesmosomes connect cells to the underlying basement membrane
Autoantibodies result in Bullous pemphigoid

110
Q

Describe delirium

A

Delirium is a waxing and waning level of consciousness with acute onset
usually secondary to acute illness
most commonly reversible

111
Q

Describe dementia

A

Gradual decline in intellectual ability or cognition
does not affect level of consciousness
not associated with acute illness and is irreversible

112
Q

What is Kallmann syndrome

A

Defective migration of GnRH cells and olfactory bulb.
Patient presents with anosmia and hypognoadism
- Will have decreased GnRH, FSH, LH, testosterone and sperm count

113
Q

What is Virchow’s triad?

A
  1. stasis
  2. hypercoagulopathy
  3. endothelial damage

Risk factors for clot formation

114
Q

What’s the most common inherited hypercoagulability syndrome?

A

Factor V Leiden

produces mutant factor V that’s resistant to degradation by activated protein C

115
Q

What’s a Reid index?

A

Reid index = thickness of gland layer/total thickness of bronchial wall
>50% in Chronic bronchitis

116
Q

What is the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis?

A

Rate limiting step is catalyzed by HMG CoA reductase which converts HMG-CoA to Mevalonate
This enzyme is blocked by statins

117
Q

Which adrenergic antagonists can be used to treat hypertension as well as urinary retention in patients with BPH?

A

Alpha 1 selective blockers

Prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin

118
Q

What arteries supply the adrenal glands?

A

Superior adrenal artery from the inferior phrenic A
Middle adrenal artery from the aorta
Inferior adrenal artery from the renal artery

119
Q

what neoplasm is associated with ACTH leading to Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Small cell lung carcinoma

120
Q

What neoplasm is associated with PTH-related peptide leading to hypercalcemia?

A

Squamous cell lung carcinoma
Renal cell carcinoma
breast cancer

121
Q

What neoplasm is associated with erythropoietin leading to polycythemia?

A

Renal cell carcinoma
Hemangioblastoma (vascular tumor of the CNS)
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Phemochromocytoma

122
Q

What neoplasm is associated with ADH leading to SIADH?

A

Small cell lung carcinoma

Intracranial neoplasms

123
Q

What does increased or decreased SHBG cause in men and women?

A

Increased SHBG in men leads to less free testosterone, leads to gynecomastia

decreased SHBG in women leads to more free testosterone, leads to hirsutism.

Note that SHBG level are increased in pregnancy

124
Q

Does the regeneration of neurons occur in the CNS or PNS?

A

Regeneration of neurons occurs in the PNS at a growth of 1-2 mm/day
CNS –> myelin from oligodendroglia, secretes chemical that inhibits axonal growth
PNS –> myelin from Schwann cells, secretes chemotropic growth factor

125
Q

What are the treatments for Crohn’s disease?

A

Coritcosteroids, azathioprine, methotrexate, infliximab, adalimumab

126
Q

What’s the equation for determining volume of distribution?

A

Vd = amount of drug in the body / plasma drug concentration

127
Q

In what stage of sleep does bed wetting, night terrors and sleepwalking occur?

A

In Stage N3, the deepest non-REM stage, has delta waves.

Alcohol, benzodiazepines and barbiturates decreased REM and delta sleep
night terrors and sleepwalking can be treated with Benzos

128
Q

What is Eisenmenger’s syndrome?

A

Uncorrected VSD, ASD or PDA leads to compensatory pulmonary vascular hypertrophy which can lead to pulmonary hypertension

As pulmonary resistance increases, the shunt reverses from L to R to R to left which causes late cyanosis, clubbing, and polycythemia

129
Q

Spironolactone, Antidepressants (SSRIs), Antipsychotics, Ketoconazole, Cimetidine, sympathetic blockers (clonidine, methyldopa, guanethidine) and thiazide diuretics

A

Cause erectile dysfunction

130
Q

What are the rule of 2’s with a Meckel Diverticulum?

A 
2 inches long
2 feet from ileocecal valve
2% of population
commonly in first 2 years of life
2 types of epithelia - gastric and pancreatic
131
Q

What’s the associated gene deletion with renal cell carcinoma?

A

A gene deletion on chromosome 3

Can be sporadic or inherited as von-hippel-lindau syndrome

132
Q

What malignancy presents as a child with right flank mas and hematuria?

What tetrad can this above malignancy be seen in?

A

Wilm’s tumor (Nephroblastoma) - the most common renal malignancy in 2-4 yo

WAGR complex = Wiedemann syndrome
Wilm's tumor
Aniridia
Genitourinary malformation
Retardation (mental)
133
Q

What syndrome presents due to immotile cilia?

A

Kartagener’s Syndrome (Primary ciliary dyskinesia)
Defect in dynein arm

patient presents with infertility, bronchiectasis, recurrent sinusitis

Also associated with situs inversus

134
Q

The air that moves into the lungs with quite inspiration

A

Tidal volume

usually 500mL

135
Q

The air that’s left in the lungs after maximal expiration

A

Residual volume

can’t be measured

136
Q

Maximum volume of gas that can be expired after a maximal inspiration

A

Vital capacity

VC = TV + IRV + ERV

137
Q

what proto-oncogene is most commonly associated with Hirschsprung disease?

A

RET gene mutation

138
Q

endomyocardial fibrosis with a prominent eosinophilic infiltrate

A

Loffler’s syndrome

139
Q

How do you treat primary hyperaldosteronism?

A

Sprionolactone: K+ sparing diuretic that is a aldosterone antagonist

140
Q

Treatments for acute gout

A

Cochicine
NSAIDs (indomethacin, ibuprofen, naproxen, celecoxib)
Glucocorticoids (Prednisone)

141
Q

Treatments for chronic gout

A

Allopurinol
Febuxostat
Probenecid - increases the excretion of uric acid

142
Q

Why would you place an AIDS patient on TMP-SMX when his CD4 count drops below 200?

A

Prophylaxis for PCP - pneumocystics jirovechi pneumonia

143
Q

What medication targets CD3 and is used to prevent acute transplant rejection?

A

Meuromonab

OKT3

144
Q

Cancers associated with asbestos

A

Malignant mesothelioma and Bronchogenic adenocarcinoma

145
Q

what do asbestos fibers look like in the lungs?

A

Asbestos (Ferruginous) bodies are golden-brown fusiform rods resembling dumbbells

146
Q

Site on DNA where RNA polymerase binds and promotes gene expression and transcription

A

Promoter region

TATA box or CAAT box

147
Q

Stretch of DNA that alters gene expression by binding transcription factors

A

enhancer region

148
Q

What are the signs of right-sided heart failure?

A

Systemic problems: hepatomegaly (nutmeg liver), peripheral edema, JVD

149
Q

What are the signs of left-sided heart failure?

A

Pulmonary problems: Pulmonary edema, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, orthopnea (shortness of breath when supine)

150
Q

What causes right sided heart failure?

A

Most commonly left sided heart failure

if it’s isolated right heart failure think cor pulmonale

151
Q

How many umbilical vessels are there and which have the highest O2 content?

A

2 umbilical arteries and 1 umbilical vein

The umbilical vein has the highest O2 content supplying oxygen from the placenta to the fetus

152
Q

What lab value would you be like OMGOSH this is an alcoholic liver

A

AST>ALT of 2:1

“A Scotch and Tonic”

153
Q

Where do dorsal root ganglia come from?

A

Dorsal root ganglia come from neural crest cells (which comes from ectoderm)

154
Q

what centrally acting alpha-2 agonist is often used to treat hypertension in pregnancy?

A

alpha methyldopa

155
Q

What do ACE-I and ARBs do to a baby developing?

A

in First trimester - cardiac and CNS malformations

in second and third trimester - renal malformations

156
Q

Intracranial hemorhage with crescent shaped radiopacity that follows the contour of the skull and crosses suture lines

A

Subdural Hematoma

–> BRIDGING VEINS!

157
Q

Uric acid crystals that are needle shaped and appear yellow when parallel to the light

A

Gout

158
Q

Calcium pyrophosphate crystals that are rhomboid shaped and are blue when parallel to the light

A

Pseudogout

159
Q

A child presents with nephritis, deafness and ocular dysfunction

A

Allport syndrome - abnormal Type IV collagen

“Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t hear me”

160
Q

What collagen is important in bone, skin and tendon organization?

A

Type I collagen

161
Q

What collagen organizes cartilage?

A

Type II colagen

162
Q

What test can be used for hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Osmotic fragility test

Defect in RBC cytoskeleton proteins (either spectrin, Band 3, Protein 4.2 or Ankyrin)

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