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HealthScience 2 > Direct HealthCare > Flashcards

Direct HealthCare Flashcards

1
Q

what do physicians do?

A

examine pts, obtain medical histories, order tests, make diagnoses, perform, surgery, treat diseases/disorders, and teach preventive health

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2
Q

what do doctor of medicine (MD) do?

A

diagnoses, treat, and prevents diseases/disorders. may specialize

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3
Q

what do doctor of osteopathic medicine (DO) do?

A

treats diseases/disorders. puts emphasize on nervous, muscular, and skeletal system and relationship b/w mind, body, and emotions.

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4
Q

what is the education for a physician?

A

doctor’s degree. 3-8 yrs of postgrad. training of internship & residency. state licensed and board certified in specialty areas

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5
Q

what do physician assistants do?

A

take medical history, perform physical exam & basic diagnostic tests, make preliminary diagnoses, treat minor injuries, and prescribe & administer treatment

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6
Q

what is the education for a PA?

A

2 or more years accredited PA program w/ AD, certificate, bachelors, or masters. before, 2 or more years of college with bachelors or masters

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7
Q

what does a medical assistant do?

A

prepare pt. for exam; take vital signs & medical history; assist with procedures/tx; perform basic lab tests; prepare and maintain supplies and equipment; perform secretariat-receptionist duties

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8
Q

what is the education for a medical assistant?

A

1-2 yrs HSE program/AD. certification can be from American Association of Medical Assistants

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9
Q

what do registered nurses (RN) do?

A

observe pt; asses pt. needs; reports to other health personnel; administer prescribed meds & tx; teaches healthcare, and supervises other nuses

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10
Q

what is the education for a RN?

A

2-3 yrs diploma program in hospital school of nursing, AD, BSN. advanced practice- master & doctorate degree. licensure in state of practice

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11
Q

what does a nurse practitioner (CRNPs) do?

A

take health histories; perform physical exam; order lab tests; refer pt to physician; help establish tx plan; treat common illnesses; teach & promote optimal health

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12
Q

what do nurse midwives (CNMs) do?

A

provide total care for normal pregnancies; examine pregnant women; perform routine tests; teach childbirth & childcare classes; monitor child & mother during childbirth; deliver infant; and refer any problems to physician

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13
Q

what do nurse educators do?

A

teach HSE programs, school of nursing, colleges & universities, wellness centers, and healthcare facilities

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14
Q

what do nurse anesthetists (CRNAs) do?

A

administer anesthesia; monitor pt during surgery; and assist anesthesiologists

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15
Q

what does a licensed practical nurse (LPNs) do?

A

provide pt care requiring technical knowledge (not RN level)

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16
Q

what education for LPN?

A

1-2 yrs state approved HSE practical/vocational nurse program. licensure in state of practice

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17
Q

what does a nurse assistant do?

A

provide pt care (bath, bed, feed); administer in transfer &ambulation; administer basic tx

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18
Q

what is the education for a nurse assistant?

A

HSE program, certification/registration in all states for long-term care

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19
Q

what are the 4 assessment techniques?

A
  1. observation
  2. palpation
  3. percussion
  4. auscultation
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20
Q

what is observation?

A

physician looks at pt carefully to observe skin color, rash, growths, swellings, scars, deformities, body movements, conditions of hair & nails & general appearance

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21
Q

what is palpation?

A

use of hands & fingers to feel various parts of body. can determine whether part is enlarged, hard, out of place, or painful

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22
Q

what is percussion?

A

tap & listen for sound coming from various body organs. place one or several finger on body, then use fingers of other hand to tap. sound emitted to determine size, density, and position

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23
Q

what is auscultation?

A

listen to sound coming from within pt body. stethoscope used to listen to sounds produced by heart, lungs, intestines, and other

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24
Q

what is a laryngeal mirror?

A

instrument with mirror at end. examines larynx

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25
Q

what is an ophthalmoscope?

A

lighted instrument used to examine eyes

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26
Q

what is an otoscope?

A

lighted instrument used to examine ears

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27
Q

what is a speculum?

A

instruments used to examine internal canals of body.

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28
Q

what a tongue blade/depressor?

A

wood/plastic stick used to depress or hold down, the tongue so throat examine

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29
Q

what is a tuning fork?

A

instrument with 2 prongs used to test hearing acunity

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30
Q

what is a pap/papanicoalaou test?

A

test frequently done to detect cancer of cervix or reproductive organs

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31
Q

what is a cervical spatula/ayer blade?

A

wooden/plastic blade used to scrape cells from cervix/lower uterus

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32
Q

what is a vaginal speculum?

A

used to examine vagina

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33
Q

what is a stethoscope?

A

used to listen to internal body sounds

34
Q

what is a sphygmomanometer?

A

used to measure BP

35
Q

what are the 3 types of exams?

A
  1. EENT (ear, eye, nose & throat)
  2. gynecological: examines vagina, cervix, and other pelvic organs
  3. general/complex/ physical exam: examines whole body. blood & urine tests frequently done. may also do x-rays or ECG
36
Q

what are the instruments used in EENT?

A

laryngeal mirror; opthalmoscope; otoscope; speculum; tongue blade/depressor; tuning fork

37
Q

what are the instruments used in gynecologist exam?

A

cervical spatula/ ayer blade; vaginal speculum

38
Q

what is used in general/complex/physical exam?

A

stethoscope; sphygmomanometer

39
Q

what is the horizontal recumbent (supine) used for?

A

exam or treatment of front/anterior body

40
Q

how does the patient lie for horizontal recumbent?

A

pt lies flat on back with legs slightly apart

41
Q

what is the prone used for?

A

exam or treatment of back or spine

42
Q

how does the patient lie for prone?

A

pt lies on abdomen and turns head to either side. palms flat against head and elbows flexed

43
Q

what is the sim’s/left lateral position used for?

A

used for simple rectal & sigmoidoscopic exam, enemas, rectal temps, and rectal tx

44
Q

how does the patient lie for sims’ position?

A

pt lies on left side and left arm extended behind back. head turned to side and right arm front of pt with elbow bent. left leg bent/flexed slightly & right leg bent sharply at knee & brought to abdomen

45
Q

what does the fowler’s position used for?

A

facilitate breathing, relieve distress, encourage drainage, and examine head, neck & chest

46
Q

how does the patient lie for fowler’s position?

A

pt lies on back with leg flat but knees bent slightly
low (25), semi (45), and high (90)

47
Q

what is the lithotomy position used for?

A

used for vaginal exam. pap tests, urinary catherization, cystopic exam & surgery of pelvic area

48
Q

how does the patient lie for lithotomy position?

A

pt positioned on back & knees separated and bent & feet placed on stirrups. arms rest on sides & buttocks are at lower end of table

49
Q

how does the patient lie for dorsal recumbent?

A

similar to lithotomybut pt is without stirrups. feet separated but flat on table & knees bent

50
Q

what is the trendelenburg position used for?

A

increases circulation of blood to head & brain and can be used for circulatory shock

51
Q

how does the patient lie for trendelenburg position?

A

entire bed/table elevated at feet. pt lies on horizontal recumbent with head lower than feet

52
Q

what is the surgical trendelenburg used for?

A

used for surgery on pelvic organs and area

53
Q

how does the patient lie for surgical trendelenburg?

A

pt lies on back. table lowered at 45 degree angle to lower head & feet. lower legs inclined downward

54
Q

what is the jackknife (proctologic) used for?

A

used for rectal surgery or exam & for back surgery/tx

55
Q

how does the patient lie for jackknife?

A

pt in prone. table elevated in center so rectal area higher. head and chest point downward. feet & legs hand downward at opposite end. straps used

56
Q

what does vision screening used for?

A

measure visual acuity: ability to perceive and comprehend sense of sight

57
Q

what do you watch for when giving a vision screening?

A

squinting, leaning toward eye chart, excessive blinking, and watering of eyes

58
Q

what does Snellen chart used for?

A

used to test distant vision (nearsightedness)

59
Q

what does 20/20 vision mean?

A

20 feet away, you see letters 20 mm high

60
Q

what are the different Snellen chart?

A

pictures, letter E in different position, and the alphabet

61
Q

what is the Jaeger system used for?

A

tests defect in close vision (farsightedness)

62
Q

what does the Ishihara tests used for?

A

color blindness

63
Q

what does OD stand for?

A

oculur dexter (right eye)

64
Q

what does OS stand for?

A

oculur sinister (left eye)

65
Q

what does OU stand for?

A

oculus uterque (each or both eyes)

66
Q

what is myopia?

A

defect in nearsightedness / distant vision

67
Q

what is hyperopia?

A

defect in farsighedness / close vision

68
Q

what is tonometer?

A

instrument measure intraocular tension/pressure; increased pressure indicate glaucoma

69
Q

what deviation is considered normal when measuring height and weight?

A

10% deviation is considered normal

70
Q

what is hydrocephalus?

A

accumulation of fluid in body; lead to intracranial pressure & brain damage

71
Q

what is the cause of hydrocephalus?

A

abnormal development of ventricles of brain, bacterial meningitis, and tumors

72
Q

what is microcephaly?

A

small brain; can lead to mental retardation

73
Q

what is the cause of microcephaly?

A

congenital defects, infections during pregnancy, premature close of fontanels, drugs/alcohol abuse during pregnancy, and genetic defects

74
Q

what is the basic standards for measuring weight?

A
  1. use same scale, balanced
  2. weigh early in a.m., same time
  3. same amount of clothing
  4. have voided
75
Q

what is the pathway for electrical conduction?

A

SA node -> atria contracts -> AV node -> Bundle of His -> right & left bundle branches -> purkinje fibers -> ventricles contract

76
Q

what is the ECG/electrical conduction represented by?

A

PQRST complex

77
Q

how many lead ECG are there?

A

12 lead ECG - 12 leads/angles

78
Q

how many chest leads are there?

A

6 leads - record angle of electrical impulse from central point within heart to specific area on front of chest

79
Q

what is single channel?

A

shows 1 lead at a time

80
Q

what is multiple channel?

A

shows all 12 leads

81
Q

which extremity grounds all other leads for ECG?

A

the right leg

HealthScience 2 (7 decks)

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