DERMATOLOGY PHARM Flashcards

1
Q

MOA: Competitively inhibits viral DNA poly; competes with dGTP for incorporation into viral DNA. Does not have 3’-OH so chain elongation is ceased.

A

Acyclovir

Valacyclovir

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2
Q

MOA: Competitively inhibits viral DNA poly; competes with dGTP for incorporation into viral DNA. Has 3’—OH so synthesis of viral DNA is possible then it locks up.

A

Ganciclovir

Valganciclovir

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3
Q

MOA: Competitively inhibits viral DNA poly; competes with dCTP for incorporation into viral DNA

A

Cidofovir

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4
Q

MOA: Competitively inhibits viral DNA poly; competes with dGTP for incorporation into viral DNA

A

Famciclovir

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5
Q

MOA: Selectively inhibits the viral-specific DNA polymerases and reverse transcriptases at pyrophosphate binding site; blocks chain elongation

A

Foscarnet

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6
Q

Drug that treats:
Varciella zoster
Varciella chicken pox
HHV-8

A

Valacyclovir

Acyclovir just treats 2 varciellas

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7
Q

Drug that treats:
HHV-6
HHV-8

A

Valganciclovir

Ganciclovir just does HHV-6 and is used off-label for HHV-8

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8
Q

Drug that treats:
Pox virus family
HHV-6, -7, and -8

A

Cidofovir

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9
Q

Drug that treats:
Varicella Zoster
HHV-8

A

Famciclovir

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10
Q

Drug that treats:

HHV-6 only

A

Foscarnet

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11
Q

Antiviral Drug with few side effects.

A

Famciclovir

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12
Q

Antiviral Drug that causes:

NEUROTOXICITY (including seizures)

A

Aciclovir/Valaciclovir

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13
Q

Antiviral Drug that causes:
PANCYTOPENIA (anemia, leucopenia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia) and is a
TERATOGEN

A

Ganciclovir/

Valganciclovir

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14
Q

Antiviral Drug that causes:

Nephrotoxicity (so monitor creatinine and urinary protein)

A

Cidofovir

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15
Q
Antiviral Drug that causes:
Electrolyte imbalance (chelates calcium ions)
A

Foscarnet

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16
Q

What drug do you give with cidofovir to reduce renal toxicity?

A

Probenecid (inhibits renal tubular secretion)

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17
Q

MOA: Folate antagonist (bacteriostatic) that also inhibits 2nd messenger pathways involved in neutrophil chemotaxis

A

Dapsone

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18
Q

MOA: Inhibition of bacterial and mycobacterial RNA synthesis (beta-subunit of DNA-dependent RNA-polymerase

A

Rifampin

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19
Q

MOA: preferential binding (not intercalating) to mycobacterial guanine in DNA

A

Clofazimine

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20
Q

MOA: Inhibits 50S ribosomal subunit

leprosy drug

A

Clarithromycin

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21
Q

MOA: Inhibits 30S ribosomal subunit

(leprosy drug)

A

Minocycline

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22
Q

MOA: Inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase

leprosy drug

A

Ofloxacin

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23
Q

MOA: Inhibits NFKB mediated transcriptional upregulation and TNF-alpha production (blocks leukocyte migration)

A

Thalidomide

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24
Q

Drugs that treat Tuberculoid leprosy.

A

Dapsone

Rifampin

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25
Drugs that treat Lepromatous leprosy.
Clofazimine Clarithromycin, Minocycline, Ofloxacin (if you cannot tolerate clofazimine)
26
Drug that is used to treat side effects of leprosy.
Thalidomide
27
Drug that is contraindicated in G6PD deficiency.
Dapsone
28
Leprosy drug that causes: - Hepatitis - Jaundice - Staining of body/fluids to a bronzing color - Feces may be black or tarry - Depression/suicide
Clofazimine
29
Leprosy drug that causes: - Hepatic toxicity - Discoloration of body fluids (red)
Rifampin
30
Leprosy drug that requires monitoring of LFTs, CBCs, and platelet count. Why?
Dapsone Causes dapsone syndrome (peripheral neuropathy, leukopenia, SJS, etc.)
31
``` Lepsory drug that: -TERATOGEN (X) -May increase HIV viral load -Somnolence > rash> H/A Peripheral Neuropathy ```
Thalidomide
32
Leprosy drug that has DDIs with rifampin, cimetidine (H2 blocker), omeprazole (proton pump inhibitors), and probenecid.
Dapsone
33
What leprosy drug gets widely distributed throughout the body (CNS, breast milk, etc.).
Rifampin
34
What leprosy drug is very lipophillic (can remain for a long time in fatty tissues and reticuloendothelial system).
Clofaziine
35
Which drugs have the BBW: Infection, including fungal/mycobacterial/viral, neoplasms, and Tb.
Adalimumab Etanercept Infliximab
36
MOA: Human mAb (with IgG1) targeted at TNF-alpha
Adalimumab (SC)
37
MOA: Receptor-Ab fusion protein (with p75 TNF receptor and Fc IgG1) targeted at TNF-alpha.
Etanercept (SC)
38
MOA: Chimeric mAb (with variable region of mouse mAb on human IgG1) targeted at TNF-alpha.
Infliximab (IV)
39
MOA: mAb directed at interleukin (binds to p40 subunit integral to IL-12 and IL-23 activation to suppress formation of pro-inflammatory Th1 and Th17.
Ustekinumab
40
MOA: acting upon nuclear receptors (RAR) and this causes transcriptional changes in a number of factors and produces epidermal hyperplasia and a sloughing off of the surface of the skin (peels off the surface layers leaving new skin underneath with lack of infection)
``` Acitretin (oral) Tazorotene (oral or topical) Tretinoin (topical) Adapalene (topical) Isotretinoin (topical) ```
41
MOA: Binds to Vit D receptor; complex associates with RXR-alpha and binds DNA vitamin D response elements to modulate epidermal differentiation and inflammation
Calcipotrene (topical)
42
MOA: Hormonally active form of Vitamin D3
Calcitrol (topical)
43
MOA: Topical pro-drug converted to benzid acid that works by free radical liberation that is lethal for P. acnes.
Benzoyl Peroxide
44
MOA: Inhibit protein synthesis (binds 50s ribosomal subunit) ACNE drug
Clindamycin/Erythromycin
45
MOA: Topical keratolytic that causes desquamation of horny layer of the skin.
Salicyclic Acid
46
MILD corticosteroid.
Hydrocortisone
47
Moderate corticosteroid.
Betamethasone valerate
48
Potent corticosteroid.
Fluocinonide
49
Very potent corticosteroid.
Clobetasol Proprionate
50
Drugs that treat acne and psoriasis.
Salicylic acid Acitretin Tazorotene Tretinoin
51
Drug that is contraindicated with immunosuppressives or concurrent vaccinations.
Adalimumab
52
Drug that is contraindicated with sepsis.
Etanercept
53
Drug that is contraindicated with heart failure and murine protein hypersensitivity.
Infliximab
54
Drug that is contraindicated with live virus vaccines and that you must pre-test for Tb with.
Ustekinumab
55
``` Acne drugs that are/cause: Teratogenic Hyperlipidemia Cause mucocutaneous/ musculoskeletal effects ```
Acitretin (oral) | Tazorotene (oral)
56
Drugs that increase the risk of sunburn, erythema, and burning.
Tazorotene (topical) Tretinoin (topical) Adapalene (topical) Isotretinoin (topical)
57
Acne drug that may lead to suicidal ideation.
Isotretinoin (topical)
58
Drug that is a topical irritant (reduced by concurrent corticosteroids); in EXCESS causes- hypercalcemia and hypercalcuria; increased susceptibility to UV-induced skin cancer
Calcipotrene
59
Drug that is way more potent on calcium metabolism when given systemically! Better tolerated in sensitive skin areas.
Calcitrol
60
Drug that causes: Drying of skin: peeling, erythema, irritation; bleach hair or colored fabrics; AVOID contact with eyes or mucous membranes
Benzoyl peroxide
61
Acne drug that must be given for a minimum of 4-8 weeks.
Clindamycin or Erythromycin
62
``` Drug that (with prolonged administration) leads to: -Tinitus and dizziness (early) -Seizures, Renal/liver failure, and organ edema (late) ```
Salicylic acid
63
Acne drugs that are category X teratogens.
Isotretinoin (oral) | tazarotnene (topical)
64
Hormonal contraceptives used for acne.
o Ortho Tri-cyclen o Estrostep o YAZ
65
Drugs for tinea (widespread)
Terbinafine Itraconazole Fluconazole Grisefulvin
66
Drugs for onchomycosis (widespread).
``` TGIF Terbinafine Grisefulvin Itraconazole Fluconazole ```
67
MOA: inhibits ergosterol formation.
"Azoles" (oral or topical) | Amorolfine (topical)
68
MOA: Inhibits the conversion of squalene to squalene epoxide (and overall ergosterol formation)
terbinafine
69
MOA: Inhibits microtubule formation to stops fungal mitosis
Griseofulvin
70
MOA: Selectively inhibits squalene 2,3-epoxidase enzyme. Produces antibacterial effects and anti-inflammatory effects (vasoconstriction) at higher concentrations.
Naftifine
71
MOA: Blocks fungal trans-membrane transport (depleting essential substrates and interfering with RNA and DNA synthesis)—high concentrations permit leakage of intracellular material.
Ciclopirox
72
Drugs for localized tinea.
``` TOPICAL: Azoles Terbinafine Naftifine Ciclopirox ```
73
Topical drugs for onchomycosis
Ciclopirox | Amorolfine
74
Antifungal that must be used very carefully in underlying heart problems and should NOT be used in hepatic toxicity (extensive hepatic and renal elimination) OR post-partum.
Itraconazole
75
Antifungal that must be dose adjusted for renal elimination.
Fluconazole
76
Antifungal that should not be used in hepatic texocity.
Griseofulvin
77
Azole with: Hepatotoxicity Adrenal insufficiency CYP inhibition**
Ketoconazole
78
``` Azole with: Hepatotoxicity CYP interactions Negative inotropic action Category C teratogenicity ```
Itraconazole
79
``` Azole with: Hepatotoxicity CYP interactions QT prolongation Category C teratogenicity Optic neuritis/Photosensitivity ```
Voriconazole
80
``` Azole with: Hepatotoxicity CYP interactions QT prolongation Category C teratogenicity ```
Fluconazole
81
Asoles that can cross CSF.
Voriconazole | Fluconazole
82
``` Azole with: Hepatotoxicity CYP interactions QT prolongation Category C teratogenicity ```
Posconazole
83
Azole that must be taken with full meal to have appropriate bioavailability.
Posconazole
84
What drug should NOT be combined with azoles (because it is useless).
naftifine
85
Antifungal that cross-reacts with beta lactams.
Griseofulvin
86
What drug requires routine CBCs when administering.
Terbinafine | causes transient lymphopenia and neutropenia with oral drug
87
MOA: Combines with keratin to produce fibrillar contraction and short term occlusion of eccrine and apocine sweat gland ducts.
aluminum chloride
88
MOA: Binds to cell membrane, internalized, cleaved into light and heavy chains→Blocks the exototic release of Ach (due to cleavage of SNAREs to inhibit the complex formation and fusion of vesicular membrane (VAMPs) with cellular membrane (SNAP25).
Botulinum toxin
89
MOA: Quaternary ammonium compound (antimuscarinic) | used for hyperhydrosis
Glycopyrrolate
90
MOA: Tertiary amine (antimuscarinic agent) | used for hyperhydrosis
Oxybutynin
91
MOA: Quaternary ammonium compound that blocks nicotinic and muscarinic receptors used for hyperhydrosis
Propantheline
92
Drug that: - Capable of causing muscular paralysis - (respiratory arrest and death - Typical anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, eye problems, etc.) - Contains albumin (allergy)
Botulinum toxin
93
Drug for hyperhydrosis that Crosses BBB (sedation and delirium).
Oxybutynin
94
List the drugs for Trichogenic Agents.
Minoxidil | Finasteride
95
Description: Topical agent used for hair re-growth.
Minoxidil
96
Description: Oral agent used for hair loss or at higher doses for treatment of BPH.
Finasteride
97
Description: Topical drug to reduce unwanted female facial hair. (Takes 6-8 weeks for effects to be noticeable).
Eflornithine
98
MOA: Unknown—may activate the hair follicle directly or stimulate follicular microcirculation. May also alter local androgen metabolism.
Minoxidil
99
MOA: Blocks 5 alpha-reductase activity to decrease scalp and serum DHT concentrations (without altering other hormones).
Finasteride
100
MOA: Inhibition of ornithine decarboxylase (a mandatory step in polyamine production)—so you get decreased hair follicle cell division and differentiation
Eflornithine
101
Description: Temporary relief of facial skin darkening by hormonal changes, pregnancy, OCs or HRT
Hydroquinolole Flucinolone Tretinoin
102
What type of drug is Hydroquinolole?
melanocyte inhibitor
103
What type of drug is Flucinolone?
steroid
104
What type of drug is Tretinoin?
retinoic acid analog
105
MOA: inhibition of melanin formation (blocking melanocyte enzymatic oxidation of tyrosine to 3,4-DOPA, and increased keratinocyte shedding from epidermis resulting in decreased epidermal melanin content).
Hydroquinolole | Tretinoin
106
MOA: Activation by exposure to UV light (resulting in conjugation of cross-linking of DNA and cell death. Leads to delayed erthema followed over several weeks by increased epidermal melanization and thickening of the stratum corneum.
Methoxsalen
107
What drug has: Loss of libido, sexual dysfunction, infertility, feminization
Finasteride
108
What drug has a DDI with saw palmetto?
Finasteride
109
List the PEDICULICIDAL DRUGS for lice.
permethrin lindane ivermectin
110
List the PEDICULICIDAL + OVICIDAL DRUG for lice.
malathion
111
MOA: Organophosphate insecticide that is metabolized to malaoxon in the louse and inhibits acetylcholinesterase and causes neuronal hyperstimulation and paralysis.
malathion
112
MOA: Synthetic pyrethrin that causes hyperexcitability and paralysis of louse by binding voltage-gated Na+ channels. → in RID and other OTC meds!
Permethrin
113
MOA: Neurotoxin that interferes with GABA neurotransmitter function by interacting with the GABA receptor-chloride channel complex at the picrotoxin binding site→ leads to hyperstimulation
Lindane
114
MOA: Oral and topical drug that causes hyperexcitability and paralysis by binding selectively and with high affinity to glutamate-gated Cl- ion channels present in invertebrate nerve and muscle cells.
Ivermectin
115
What drug has systemic toxicity if ingested (acts like a para-sympatetic agonist)?
Malathion
116
What drug has ashtma exacerbation (in patients allergic to ragweed or chrysanthemums).
Permethrin
117
What drug has the potential for neurotoxicity (seizures and death) and persistence in the environment?
Lindane
118
What drug may worsen bronchial asthma and can elevate liver transaminases?
Ivermectin
119
What drug is NOT for younger patients where the BBB is immature?
Ivermectin
120
What drug is rendered contraindicated in Knock-down resistance (kdr) mutations of louse sodium channels.
Permethrin
121
What drug has a BBW for skin diseases/conditions or neonatal prematurity will increase drug systemization and is NOT FOR patients with uncontrolled seizure disorders.
Lindane
122
Why is systemic absorption of Permethrin is NOT serious?
drug does not work on human sodium channels ONLY on lice sodium channels
123
Drug for BCC.
Vismodegib | Imiquimod
124
Drugs for actinic keratosis.
Imiquimod Diclofenac Trichloroacetic acid
125
Drugs for melanoma.
``` Aldesleukin Interferon Ipilimumab Sorafenib Trametinib Vemurafenib ```
126
MOA: Small molecule inhibitor of SMO used to block the Hedgehog pathway.
Vismodegib
127
MOA: Topical treatment for localized disease (immunostimulant that is a direct activator of TLR7 & TLR8→ Th1 immune response, blocker of adenosine receptors, and NF-kB activator (regulates cytokines like TNF and IL).) Negatively modulate GLI activity in BCC (inhibiting Hedge-hog pathway.
Imiquimod
128
MOA: NSAID: Inhibitor of PGE2 (inflammatory mediator)
Diclofenac | topical
129
MOA: Chemical peel that rapidly penetrates and cauterizes skin, keratin, and other tissue.
Trichloroacetic acid | topical
130
MOA: IL-2 agonist (stimulates cytokine cascades with various interferons, interleukins, and TNF); induces proliferation of B and T cells, monocytes, macrophages, and CTLs (indiscriminate stimulation).
Aldesleukin | IV or SC
131
MOA: Interferon-alpha agonist (bind to the cell surface receptor tyrosine kinases→ production of several enzymes which are thought to be responsible for the pleiotropic biologic effects of alpha-IFNs:
Interferon | IV or SC
132
MOA: Recombinant human antibody that blocks CTLA-4 and has anti-tumoral action by stimulating T cell function (CTLA-4 usually negatively effects T cell activation).
Ipilimumab
133
Cancer drug: Alopecia, GI toxicity, intrauterine fetal death, Weight loss and fatigue
Vismodegib
134
Cancer drug: Increases photosensitivity and can compromise birth control (condoms and diaphragm) integrity if used for HPV.
Imiquimod
135
Cancer drug: Itchy rash, dry skin, skin peeling, redness
Diclofenac | topical
136
Cancer drug: Burning, inflammation and localized tenderness
Trichloroacetic acid | topical
137
Cancer drug: Capillary leak syndrome (due to stimulation of NK cells or CD25 cells), hypotension, diminished mental status, dyspnea, etc.
Aldesleukin | IV or SC
138
Cancer drug: Flu-like symptoms, blood dyscrasias, alopecia, elevated hepatic enzymes, cough/dyspnea (do routine CBC, LFTs, CXRs and ECGs)
Interferon | IV or SC
139
Cancer drug: Dermatitis that can be as severe as TEN. Tiredness, diarrhea, itching, rash.
Ipilimumab
140
Cancer drug; Elevated hepatic enzymes, rash, hand and foot syndrome, anemia, bone marrow suppression (neutropenia), increased risk of hemorrhage
Sorafenib
141
Cancer drug: Elevated liver enzymes, rapid onset of rash, diarrhea, HTN, hemorrhage, RARE: retinal pigment epithelial detachment, ILD, cardiomyopathy
Trametinib
142
Cancer drug: Cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma; elevated creatinine, QT prolong, photosensitivity, SJS, ophthalmic issues. (need to do regular LFTs, ECGs, and electrolyte monitoring)
Vemurafenib
143
What cancer drug is a male and female teratogen?
Vismodegib
144
What cancer drug has a BBW: With significant CNS, cardiac, pulmonary (need regular CXRs), renal or hepatic disease and/or organ transplant.
Aldesleukin | IV or SC
145
What cancer drug has a BBW: Use cautioned in autoimmune and cardiac disease, depression, and infection
Interferon | IV or SC
146
What cancer drug should not be used in Adrenal insufficiency, diarrhea, Guillain-Barre syndrome, hepatitis, hyper/ hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, myasthenia gravis, peripheral neuropathy, pregnancy, serious rash
Ipilimumab
147
do antibiotics
do antibiotics
148
MOA: Rapid destruction of bacterial cell membranes that leads to depolarization (potassium efflux) and is bactericidal.
Dapatomycin
149
MOA: Binds 23S subunit of 50S to inhibit protein synthesis by ribosome.
Linezolid
150
MOA: Binds to ribosome peptidyl transferase domain to inhibit tRNA synthetase and block AA addition to the growing peptide chain. (Inhibits protein synthesis)
Streptogramins: Dalfopristin Quinupristin
151
MOA: Binds with HIGH affinity to 30s protein subunit to inhibit protein translation. NOT expelled by efflux pumps.
Tetracyclines like Glycycline Tigecycline
152
MOA: binds 50S ribosomal subunit to inhibit protein synthesis.
Clindamycin
153
MOA: binds reversibly to staph isoleucyl tRNA synthetase to inhibit protein and RNA synthesis.
Mupirocin
154
MOA: inhibits dephosphorylation of isoprenyl pyrophosphate carrier protein (so not movement of peptidoglycan building blocks of cell wall across the cell membrane)
Bacitracin
155
AE: Muscle pains/weakness (monitor CPK); DDI with statins
Daptomycin
156
AE: If used over 2 weeks, optic and peripheral neuropathy; DDI with SSRIs, MAOIs, PE, etc.
Linezolid
157
AE: Thrombophlebitis/pain at injection site, increased liver enzymes, joint/muscle pain; CYP450 inhibitor
Dalfopristin | Quinupristin
158
AE: GI problems, hepatic/pancreatic toxicity; sun sensitivity; teeth/bone alteration.
Blycycline | Tigecycline
159
AE: Pseudomembranous colitis from C diff, GI toxicity, hypersensitivity rash.
Clindamycin
160
AE: not many--not systemically absorbed.
Mupirocin
161
AE: nephrotoxic with parenteral use.
Bacitracin
162
What antibiotic needs to be dose adjusted for renal failure?
daptomycin
163
What drug loses action via point mutations in 23s.
linezolid
164
What drug loses action via changes in 23S and constitutive expression of "erm" MLSb phenotype
Dalfopristin | Quinupristin
165
What drug loses action via methylation of "erm" encoded genes that decrease affinity for ribosome?
Clindamycin
166
What antibiotics do you need to dose adjust for liver failure?
Glycycline/Tigecycline | Clindamycin
167
What antibiotics have absorption that is altered by food intake?
Linezolid | Clindamycin
168
What antibiotics are used topically?
Mupirocin | Bacitracin
169
What drugs are given in an IV 70:30 combination.
Dalfopristin (70): Quinupristin (30)
170
What drug is given in an ointment with neomycin and polymyxin B?
Bacitracin
171
What drug is widely absorbed but cannot penetrate the CSF?
clindamycin
172
What antibiotics cannot be used in patients under 18?
Glycycline | Tigecycline
173
What antibiotic cannot be used for lung infections because it is inactivated by surfactant?
daptomycin
174
What drug is given by slow IV infusion and is widely distributed into tissues?
Glycycline | Tigecycline