Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

surgery > dental intro and dzs > Flashcards

dental intro and dzs Flashcards

1
Q

The assessment of the extent of pathological lesions in the course of a disease that is likely to be progressive

A

stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The assessment of the extent of pathological lesions in the course of a disease that is likely to be progressive

A

stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the quantitative assessment of the degree of severity of a disease or abnormal condition at the time of diagnosis, irrespective of whether the disease is progressive

A

grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A quantitative expression of predefined diagnostic criteria whereby the presence and/or severity of pathological conditions are recorded by assessing a numerical value

A

index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

toward the midline of the dental arch

A

mesial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

away from the midline/caufdal

A

distal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

contact/surface facing adjoining teeth

A

proximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

between proximal surface of adjoining teeth

A

interproximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

wider space between teeth

A

diastema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

occlusal

A

chewing surfaces of molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

always means toward the root, away from the crown

A

apical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

toward the crown

A

coronal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

potential space between tooth and gingiva

A

ginigival sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

only part of the periodontium visible in a normal mouth

A

gingiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

periodontal ligament functions

A

attaches tooth to the alveolus
absorbs shock from impact of occlusal forces
supplies nutrients to alveolar bone and cementum
provides tactile and proprioceptive info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
cheek teeth of a cat - how many roots 
P2
P3
P4
M1
A

1
2
3
1

on bottom - P3,4,M all have 2 roots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

enamel thickness in dogs

A

< .1 mm to .6 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

thickness of enamel in cats

A

< .1 - .3 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T/F

enamel is replaced when damaged

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

delivers nutrients to odontoblasts

A

dentinal tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

overlies the vomeronasal organ

A

incisive papilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

dogs permanent incisors erupt when ?
premolars?
canines?
molars?

A

3-5 months incisors
4-6months canines and premolars
5-7months molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

adult dog dental formula

A

3 1 4 2
3 1 4 3
I C P M

42 total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

puppy dental formula

A

3 1 3
3 1 3
I C P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

any canine that has less than 42 teeth is considered to be missing what

A

premolars from the front and molars from the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

kitten teeth formula

A

3 1 3
3 1 2
I C P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

cat formula

A

3 1 3 1

3 1 2 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

rule of 4 and 9

A

canine = 4

first molar = 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T/F

dental rads only need done before extractions

A

false - do before and after to be sure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

the quantitative assessment of the degree of severity of a disease or abnormal condition at the time of diagnosis, irrespective of whether the disease is progressive

A

grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A quantitative expression of predefined diagnostic criteria whereby the presence and/or severity of pathological conditions are recorded by assessing a numerical value

A

index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

toward the midline of the dental arch

A

mesial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

away from the midline/caufdal

A

distal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

contact/surface facing adjoining teeth

A

proximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

between proximal surface of adjoining teeth

A

interproximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

wider space between teeth

A

diastema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

occlusal

A

chewing surfaces of molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

always means toward the root, away from the crown

A

apical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

toward the crown

A

coronal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

potential space between tooth and gingiva

A

ginigival sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

only part of the periodontium visible in a normal mouth

A

gingiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

periodontal ligament functions

A

attaches tooth to the alveolus
absorbs shock from impact of occlusal forces
supplies nutrients to alveolar bone and cementum
provides tactile and proprioceptive info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q 
cheek teeth of a cat - how many roots 
P2
P3
P4
M1
A

1
2
3
1

on bottom - P3,4,M all have 2 roots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

enamel thickness in dogs

A

< .1 mm to .6 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

thickness of enamel in cats

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T/F

enamel is replaced when damaged

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

delivers nutrients to odontoblasts

A

dentinal tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

overlies the vomeronasal organ

A

incisive papilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

dogs permanent incisors erupt when ?
premolars?
canines?
molars?

A

3-5 months incisors
4-6months canines and premolars
5-7months molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

adult dog dental formula

A

3 1 4 2
3 1 4 3
I C P M

42 total

51
Q

puppy dental formula

A

3 1 3
3 1 3
I C P

52
Q

any canine that has less than 42 teeth is considered to be missing what

A

premolars from the front and molars from the back

53
Q

kitten teeth formula

A

3 1 3
3 1 2
I C P

54
Q

cat formula

A

3 1 3 1

3 1 2 1

55
Q

rule of 4 and 9

A

canine = 4

first molar = 9

56
Q

T/F

dental rads only need done before extractions

A

false - do before and after to be sure

57
Q

caused by failure of the primary tooth’s roots to undergo absorption

A

retained deciduous tooth

  • toy breeds
  • canine and incisors most common
58
Q

where does the adult maxillary canine erupt compared to the deciduous canine?
and the mandibular canine?

A

rostral

lingual

59
Q

T/F

two versions of the same tooth should never try to occupy the same space at the same time

A

TRUE

60
Q

aside from canines, permanent teeth erupt ___ to deciduous teeth

A

lingual and palatal

61
Q

most common breeds who experience crowding

A

brachycephalics

62
Q

most common tooth in crowding

A

maxillary 3rd premolar

63
Q

supernumerary teeth (polodontia) is most common with what teeth

A

premolars (PM3)

*tooth has extra cusp
extra root of normal size

64
Q

joining of two teeth

A

fusion

65
Q

one crown with two roots with one or two root canals

A

fusion

less than normal amount of teeth in arcade

66
Q

incomplete splitting into two teeth

A

gemination

67
Q

missing teeth

A

anodontia. oligodontia, hypodontia

68
Q

the shelf on the palatal surface of the maxillary incisors where the mandibular incisors occlude or rest

A

cingulum

69
Q

example of class one malocclusion

A

base narrow canine

70
Q

what class is parrot mouth/over shot

A

class 2 - mandibular distocclusion

71
Q

mandibular brachygnathism is an example of what malocclusion class

A

class 2- mandibular distocclusions

72
Q

mandibular prognathism

A

class 3 mandibular mesiocclusion

73
Q

undershot is what class malocclusion

A

class 3 mandibular malocclusion

74
Q

what is class 4 malocclusion

A

wry bite – asymmetrical skeletal malocclusion

75
Q

most common class 2 malocclusion in dogs

A

base narrow canines

76
Q

most common dog breed for lance tooth

A

shelties

77
Q

rostrally displaced canine tooth - deciduous tooth in normal location

A

lance tooth – extract

78
Q

one or more of the maxiallary insicors are displaced toward the palate

A

rostral cross bite - class 1 malocclusion

79
Q

maxillary premolars are lingual to mandibular premolars or molars

A 
caudal cross bite - not common 
class 1
80
Q

considered a type of prognathism when the incisor crowns meet

A

level bite

81
Q

removal of primary teeth to avoid or correct problem

A

interceptive orthodontics

82
Q

fluid filled cyst surrounding the crown of an unerupted tooth resulting from persistence of portions of the enamel forming epithelium

A

dentigerous cyst

may see swelling/blue hue
missing teeth and pain

83
Q

some causes of enamel hypoplasia

A

high fevers
distemper
periapical inflammation
endocrine dysfunction early in life

84
Q

pathological wearing due to contact with opposing tooth

A

attrition

85
Q

caused by abnormal contact with crown surface by foreign object

A

abrasion

86
Q

what tooth is used to assess endodontic exposure

A

dental explorer – if it enters the pulp chamber extract the tooth or root canal

87
Q

what color is reparative dentin

A

brown and hard

88
Q

draining tract associated with teeth

A

parulis

89
Q

what signs can apical disease cause

A

retrobulbar

90
Q

where do the roots of maxillary molars 1 and 2 lie

A

in te zygomatic arch

91
Q

focal gingival hyperplasia is due to

A

periodontal disease

92
Q

generalized gingival hyperplasia

A

boxers

93
Q

list 3 drugs that may cause gingival hyperplasia

A

anticonvulsants
cyclosporine
calcium channel blockers

94
Q

post op care from gingival hyperplasia resection

A

twice daily for two weeks chlorhex .12% conc rinse

95
Q

pulpitis

A

discoloration inside the tooth - not very reversible

may need root canal or extraction to treat

96
Q

cracks in the enamel with no loss in structure

A

enamel infraction - abraction

97
Q

loss of enamel only

A

enamel fracture - not common

98
Q

fracture where the pulp chamber is not exposed

A

uncomplicated crown fracture

99
Q

fracture where the pulp is exposed

A

complicated

100
Q

treatment for complicated fractures

A

vital pulpotomy / root canal / extraction

101
Q

T/F

endodontics is less invasive than extractions

A

true

102
Q

what is the objective of vital pulpotomy

A

maintain a viable tooth that will continue to mature

103
Q

____ is necessary to maintain dentin

A

the pulp

otherwise the tooth will become dehydrated and brittle

104
Q

age range for vital pulpotomy

A

young <18 - 24 months

success lowers with age because pulp gets less resilient

105
Q

time frame for a successful vital pulpotomy

A

sooner = better
<48 hours has 80% success

monitor at least yearly

106
Q

when can a complete root canal be done

A

mature tooth >24 months old

this will help maintain tooth function even though the tooth is dead

107
Q

goals of a complete root canal

A

complete removal of pulp contents

completely will root canal to prevent bacterial from escaping from tooth

108
Q

partially dislocated from alveolus but retains some attachment

A

luxation

109
Q

completely displaced from alveolus

A

avulsion

110
Q

after ____ minutes the success of saving an avulsed tooth goes down exponentially

A

30

111
Q

recommended to owners to keep an avulsed tooth moist

A

milk

112
Q

predominant activity in TRs

A

osteoclastic resorption

113
Q

T/F

tooth resorptions are not caries

A

trrue

114
Q

most common disease of tooth structure in domestic felines

A

tooth resorption

115
Q

what type of tooth resorption lesions has no or minimal evidence of periodontitis

A

type 2

116
Q

what type of tooth resorption has moderate to severe gingivitis and frequenty periodontal disease is present

A

type 1

117
Q

clinical signs of cat with tooth resorption

A

dropping food
chattering
anorexia
reluctance to have mouth examined

118
Q

T/F

type 2 tooth resorptions are good candidates for crown amputation and leaving the roots in place

A

true

119
Q

the process of bone fusing across the normally non-calcified periodontal ligament

A

ankylosis

120
Q

signs of gingivostomatitis

A

pytalism
halitosis
dysphagia
anorexia and wt loss

121
Q

teeth most commonly affected by gingivostomatisis

A

maxillary teeth caudal to the canines

122
Q

starts in siamese, maine coons, and DSH cats <9 months old

A

juvenile onset periodontitis

123
Q

skin ulcerations and linear granulomas

A

eosinophilic granuloma

rodent ulcers

surgery (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions