Delta Final

Question 1

Retinal Disparity

Answer 1

Retinal disparity and convergence are both binocular cues for depth/distance. Retinal disparity occurs because each eye transmits a slightly different image to the brain, which infers distance from the disparity.

Question 2

Motion Parallax

Answer 2

Motion parallax (or relative motion) is a monocular cue whereby objects in the foreground are perceived as moving faster than objects in the background. Motion parallax is a perceptual process that would not require three-dimensional depth but would still allow subjects to perceive both depth and motion.

Question 3

Convergence

Answer 3

Convergence is the extent to which the eyes turn inward (converge) to focus on Convergence is the extent to which the eyes turn inward (converge) to focus on an object; closer objects require more convergence, which helps the brain infer distance.

Question 4

Phi Phenomenon

Answer 4

The phi phenomenon (also known as the motion picture effect) is an optical illusion in which a series of still photographs presented in rapid succession appear to be moving. The phi phenomenon may have been relevant to perceiving motion during the simulation but is irrelevant to depth perception.

Question 5

Speech Shadowing

Answer 5

Speech shadowing is a selective attention (not multitasking) process used in dichotic listening tasks (competing information presented in each ear) that involves repeating information presented in one ear while tuning out the competing information in the other ear.

Question 6

Affinal

Answer 6

Kinship from marriage

Question 7

Consanguineal

Answer 7

Kinship from a genetic relationship

Question 8

Fictive

Answer 8

Kinship from social ties that are not consanguineal or affinal (adoption)

Question 9

Primary Kinship

Answer 9

First-degree family members (eg, mother)

Question 10

Secondary Kinship

Answer 10

Primary kin of first-degree family members (eg, mother’s brother)

Question 11

Tertiary Kinship

Answer 11

Secondary kin of first-degree family members (eg, mother’s uncle)

Question 12

Spatial Inequality

Answer 12

Spatial inequality results from the uneven distribution of wealth and resources across a geographic area. Some of the best examples of spatial inequality are low-income subsidized housing projects (where Jake and Michael grew up) because these typically concentrate large numbers of lower-income individuals into one area that is geographically separated or isolated from middle- and upper-income areas.

Question 13

Gentrification

Answer 13

Gentrification occurs when higher-income residents begin to move into lower-income urban areas, resulting in renovation and increased property values that displace the original lower-income residents.

Question 14

Absolute Poverty

Answer 14

Absolute poverty is the inability to secure the basic necessities of life, such as food and shelter.

Question 15

Relative Poverty

Answer 15

Relative poverty is subjectively defined in comparison to the economic conditions of others.

Question 16

Institutional Discrimination

Answer 16

Institutional discrimination is the unfair treatment of some people, typically lower-income individuals or members of minority groups, by social structures (eg, laws, education system)

Question 17

Emotional Support

Answer 17

Love, affection, and intimacy

Question 18

Esteem support

Answer 18

Encouragement and confidence

Question 19

Tangible Support

Answer 19

Money, resources, food, and a place to sleep when needed

Question 20

Informational Support

Answer 20

Advice and information

Question 21

Companionship support

Answer 21

Mere presence and sharing in an activity

Question 22

Theories of Human Development

Answer 22

Freud - Psychosexual - Personality
Erikson - Psychosocial - Personality
Vygotsky - Sociocultural cognitive - Cognition
Piaget - Cognitive - Cognition
Kohlberg - Moral - Morality

Question 23

Self-fulfilling Prophecy

Answer 23

A self-fulfilling prophecy occurs when a belief about oneself (eg, “I’m a terrible test taker”) causes behavior that makes the belief come true (eg, belief causes test anxiety, resulting in actual poor performance).

Question 24

Fundamental Attribution Error

Answer 24

The fundamental attribution error is an attributional bias that occurs when one attributes another’s behavior to internal factors, such as personality, instead of external or situational factors. Michael’s attributing Jake’s outcome to his personality (“He was always just a bad person”) exemplifies the fundamental attribution error

Question 25

Self-serving Bias

Answer 25

The self-serving bias is an attributional bias that occurs when people attribute their success to themselves (I earned it because I worked hard) but blame their failure on external circumstances (I failed because the teacher hates me). Michael’s attributing his success to his own hard work is an example of the self-serving bias

Question 26

Just-World Phenomenon

Answer 26

The just world phenomenon is an attributional bias that occurs when one believes that the world is fair and good things happen to people who are hard-working and good and that bad things happen to people who are bad or lazy. Michael’s attributing Jake’s failure to being “a bad person” and his own success to having taken advantage of opportunities is an example of the just world phenomenon

Question 27

Social Identity

Answer 27

Social identity refers to how individuals see themselves relative to others and is based on membership in socially defined groups. The major social identities are sex/gender, sexuality, race/ethnicity, socioeconomic status, age, family status, and occupation. Personal identities are subjectively defined, private or individual characteristics.

Question 28

Group Identification

Answer 28

Group identification refers to the extent to which an individual perceives himself or herself as a member of a larger collective. For example, identifying as a “pre-med student” associates an individual with a larger group of people who are studying for the MCAT and applying to medical school.

Question 29

Dyads

Answer 29

Dyads are the smallest sociological groups. Dyadic relationships characterize the interaction between the two people (eg, boss/employee, romantic partners). This study does not examine how two people interact.

Question 30

Manifest Functions

Answer 30

Manifest functions are the intended consequences of a social structure. For example, the media (a social structure) is meant to disseminate information. This study does not address manifest functions.

Question 31

Escape Learning

Answer 31

Escape learning occurs when an organism learns how to terminate an ongoing unpleasant stimulus (eg, a dog jumps over a partition to flee from or stop a continuous electric shock).

Question 32

Avoidance Learning

Answer 32

Avoidance learning when an organism prevents coming into contact with an unpleasant stimulus (eg, a dog jumps over a partition to avoid the electric shock before it occurs).

Question 33

Cell membrane contents of E.coli and possibly Prokaryotes

Answer 33

75 % protein and 25 % phospholipid

Question 34

Peritoneum

Answer 34

The peritoneum is a tissue membrane and is therefore not a space/cavity into which GI contents may enter.

Question 35

Pleural Cavity

Answer 35

The pleural cavity is a thin, fluid-filled space between membranes of the lungs and would not be affected by a staple line leak in the postoperative RYGB GI tract.

Question 36

Peritoneal

Answer 36

he peritoneal cavity is a potential space (ie, an area between two adjacent structures that may press together) between the parietal and visceral layers of the peritoneum. The peritoneal cavity is found within the abdomen and contains organs such as the liver, stomach, and intestines.

Question 37

Tissue Types

Answer 37

Bone
Muscle
Connective 
Nervous
MUSCLE IS NOT A CONNECTIVE TISSUE

Question 38

Ways to reduce the cognitive dissonance

Answer 38

1. Seek another opinion
2. Change belief
3. Change behavior
4. Change attitude

Question 39

Structural changes to accommodate stress

Answer 39

1. Hippocampus
2. Amygdala
3. Prefrontal cortex

Question 40

Cognitive-Behavior Therapy

Answer 40

1. Attempts to change negative thoughts/beliefs (cognitions) & maladaptive behaviors
2. Various techniques (desensitization, self-talk) used to replace destructive thoughts/behaviors with healthy ones

Question 41

Psychoanalytic (Talk) Therapy

Answer 41

1. Attempts to uncover how unconscious conflicts rooted in childhood shape behaviors (initial)
2. Various techniques (eg, free association, dream analysis) used to analyze unconscious

Question 42

Humanistic Therapy (Person-centered)

Answer 42

1. Attempts to empower individual to move toward self-actualization
2. Unconditional positive regard & empathy used to encourage client to reach full potential

Question 43

Bond Dissociation Energy

Answer 43

Bond dissociation energy is the energy required to break a chemical bond; it is related to the bond length, or the distance between the nuclei of two bonded atoms. Shorter bonds are stronger and require more energy to break. Atoms with small atomic radii can form short, strong bonds whereas atoms with larger radii form longer, weaker bonds. Each subsequent row on the periodic table indicates an additional electron shell, and therefore a larger atomic radius, so atoms in the first row will have smaller atomic radii than atoms in the second row, and so on. Double bonds require more energy to break than single bonds.

Question 44

Coordination Number

Answer 44

The coordination number of a metal complex refers to the number of coordinate bonds formed with the metal ion. For example, if bonding interactions from other ligands such as water are excluded (as shown in Figure 1), both isomers of the copper(II) glycinate complex have a coordination number of 4 because four coordinate bonds are formed (two ligands each forming two coordinate bonds).

Question 45

Nucleophiles

Answer 45

Nucleophiles donate electrons to electrophiles in nucleophilic substitutions. There are a number of factors that contribute to nucleophilicity, including charge and electronegativity. The conjugate base (deprotonated form) of a compound is always the better nucleophile when compared to its corresponding acid because the conjugate base has a greater electron density due to its negative charge.

Weak acids (high pKa) produce strong conjugate bases (and vice versa), and strong bases (low pKb) tend to be strong nucleophiles. In general, as the electronegativity of a negatively charged atom decreases from right to left across a period on the periodic table, its nucleophilicity increases because less electronegative atoms stabilize a negative charge less effectively, have a weaker hold on electrons, and more readily donate electrons to an electrophile.

Question 46

Lipid Rafts

Answer 46

Lipid rafts are subdomains of the plasma membrane that contain high concentrations of cholesterol and glycosphingolipids. They exist as distinct liquid-ordered regions of the membrane that are resistant to extraction with nonionic detergents.

Question 47

Counter-current Multiplication

Answer 47

Countercurrent multiplication in the kidneys is the process of using energy to generate an osmotic gradient that enables you to reabsorb water from the tubular fluid and produce concentrated urine. This mechanism prevents you from producing litres and litres of dilute urine every day, and is the reason why you don’t need to be continually drinking in order to stay hydrated.

Question 48

Enzyme specificity

Answer 48

An enzyme is specific such that it can distinguish its activity from many others.

Question 49

Enzyme activity

Answer 49

Enzyme activity is a measure of the quantity of active enzyme present and is thus dependent on conditions, which should be specified.

Question 50

Obligate vs. Facultative Parasites

Answer 50

If an obligate parasite cannot obtain a host it will fail to reproduce. This is opposed to a facultative parasite, which can act as a parasite but does not rely on its host to continue its life-cycle. Obligate parasites have evolved a variety of parasitic strategies to exploit their hosts.

Question 51

Obligate vs Facultative Anaerobes

Answer 51

A facultative aerobe is an organism that makes ATP by aerobic respiration if oxygen is present, but is capable of switching to fermentation or anaerobic respiration if oxygen is absent. An obligate aerobe, by contrast, cannot make ATP in the absence of oxygen, and obligate anaerobes die in the presence of oxygen.

Question 52

Glucocorticoid

Answer 52

Cortisol

Question 53

Mineralocorticoid

Answer 53

Aldosterone

Question 54

Notes on Gluco and Mineralocorticoid

Answer 54

• Both steroidal
• Both can downregulate the immune system
• Glucocorticoids can lead to breakdown of muscle proteins when they are in excess

Question 55

Effects of Diabetes mellitus

Answer 55

1. Sweet-tasting urine from excess glucose/sugar in the urine
2. Weight loss from catabolism of fatty acids and proteins
3. Feelings of fatigue from catabolism of fatty acids and proteins.

Question 56

Loops and Turns

Answer 56

Because antiparallel strands run in opposite directions, they may be linked by a short sequence of amino acids called a beta-turn that induces a 180° bend in the polypeptide chain. Parallel beta-strands do not reverse directionality, so neighboring strands must instead be linked by longer loops that make 360° turns to align the N-terminal regions of neighboring strands. Parallel strands such as those in ataxin-3 can never be linked by beta-turns.

Question 57

H-bonding in beta sheets

Answer 57

Secondary structure always includes hydrogen bonds between carbonyl and amino groups of the polypeptide backbone (Number III). Parallel and antiparallel sheets differ in their hydrogen bond geometries, with bond pairs directly aligned in antiparallel sheets and slightly offset in parallel sheets. Nevertheless, both types of beta-sheets have hydrogen bonds between adjacent backbones.

Question 58

Water Ionizability with Amino acids

Answer 58

Acidic and basic chemical groups, also known as ionizable groups, have intrinsic tendencies to exchange protons with water. This tendency is described by the pKa, or the pH at which half of the ionizable groups of interest are protonated. pKa values can be determined by titration, which is typically performed by gradually adding a base to an acidic solution of the molecule of interest. As the pH of the solution approaches the pKa of a chemical group, the system acts as a buffer and resists changes in pH by accepting protons from water or donating protons to it. On a titration curve, the region near a pKa (called the buffering region) is relatively flat because the addition of base changes the pH by only a small amount.

All amino acids have ionizable carboxyl and amino groups with pKa values near 2 and 9.5, respectively. Therefore, all amino acid titration curves have two buffering regions, one near each pKa. Seven of the standard amino acids (R, K, Y, C, H, E, and D) also have ionizable side chains, each with a unique pKa. The titration curve for each of these amino acids has a third buffering region associated with the side chain pKa. Because the titration curve in the question shows only two buffering regions, the amino acid has only two pKa values. Therefore, its side chain is not ionizable and cannot exchange protons with water.

Question 59

Thermodynamic and Kinetic Stability

Answer 59

Chemical reactions, including those in biological settings, are controlled both by thermodynamics and kinetics. Thermodynamics describes the energy difference between products and reactants (ΔG), and dictates whether a reaction requires energy input. Kinetics describes the energy required to initiate a reaction (activation energy), and determines how quickly a reaction proceeds.

If a reaction has a positive ΔG (as in anabolic processes such as protein synthesis), the product is thermodynamically unstable and the reaction requires energy input. In biological settings, this energy input is usually derived from the hydrolysis of ATP or GTP. The reverse reaction is thermodynamically favorable (negative ΔG) and requires no energy input; however, this does not mean the reaction will proceed quickly. Reactions that are thermodynamically favorable but have high activation energies are slow, and the bonds that are broken in the reaction are said to be kinetically stable.

The question states that peptide bond formation requires coupling to GTP hydrolysis (a source of energy). Therefore, formation requires energy input, indicating that peptide bonds are thermodynamically unstable. Conversely, peptide bond degradation (the reverse reaction) is thermodynamically favorable. However, the question states that degradation requires enzymes. Enzymes increase the rate of otherwise slow reactions by lowering the activation energy, so the fact that enzymes are required for degradation indicates that peptide bonds are kinetically stable.

Question 60

Fatty Acid Synthesis

Answer 60

Fatty acid synthesis is an anabolic process that builds lipids in the cytosol. Anabolic processes generally require energy, reducing power, and sufficient precursor molecules: in fatty acid synthesis these requirements are satisfied by ATP, NADPH, and acetyl-CoA, respectively. During fatty acid synthesis, acetyl-CoA in the mitochondria is converted into citrate and then transported into the cytoplasm, where it is reconverted into acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate. This does not occur during β-oxidation.

During fatty acid synthesis, NADPH is oxidized to NADP+ to reduce the carbonyl groups and carbon-carbon double bonds on each acetyl-CoA molecule added to the fatty acid chain. If fatty acid synthesis is inhibited in ME patients, the conversion of NADPH to NADP+ will occur less frequently, and cytosolic NADPH will build up.

Question 61

Fatty acid Oxidation

Answer 61

β-oxidation is the breakdown of fatty acid chains into acetyl-CoA through a series of oxidation reactions in the mitochondrial matrix that produce ATP. Short- and medium-chain fatty acids can diffuse through the inner and outer membranes of the mitochondria, but long-chain fatty acids obtained from lipid stores must undergo a set of reactions to enter the mitochondrial matrix.

First, fatty acids in the cytoplasm are activated when the enzyme acyl synthetase attaches them to the carrier molecule CoA using ATP. Subsequently, in the rate-limiting step of the reaction, carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPTI) converts fatty acyl-CoA molecules into fatty acylcarnitine, which enters the intermembrane space. Fatty acylcarnitine is then moved by acylcarnitine translocase across the inner membrane and into the matrix. Lastly, to begin the oxidation reactions, carnitine palmitoyltransferase II (CPTII) on the inner membrane reconverts fatty acylcarnitine into fatty acyl-CoA, which can be broken down into acetyl-CoA. Therefore, researchers interested in confirming that fatty acid oxidation is not impaired would need to ensure that translocation of acylcarnitine into the mitochondrial matrix is functional.

Question 62

PDH Action

Answer 62

Liver cells, in particular, respond to insulin by increasing their rates of lipid synthesis and mobilization. In the mitochondria, insulin activates pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH), which converts pyruvate into acetyl-CoA. The accumulated acetyl-CoA is transported to the cytoplasm, where the enzymes for fatty acid synthesis are located. In the cytoplasm, insulin activates both acetyl-CoA carboxylase (ACC) and fatty acid synthase (FAS), which carry out the conversion of acetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA and the elongation reactions that transform malonyl-CoA into 16-carbon fatty acid chains, respectively.

Question 63

Glucogenic and Ketogenic Amino acids

Answer 63

Amino acids are classified as glucogenic or ketogenic depending on the metabolic intermediate to which they are converted. Glucogenic amino acids are converted to pyruvate or citric acid cycle intermediates, which can be converted to glucose. Ketogenic amino acids are converted directly to acetyl-CoA, which can enter the citric acid cycle or be used to form ketone bodies. The passage uses this classification to place amino acids into the three categories in Table 1. Amino acids in Category I are converted exclusively to pyruvate, and those in Category II become acetyl-CoA. Category III consists of amino acids used to make various citric acid cycle intermediates.

Glycine and cysteine are Category I amino acids, which are converted directly into pyruvate. Patients with ME at rest have sufficient ATP to convert pyruvate into citric acid cycle intermediates (via oxaloacetate) during aerobic respiration. However, the shortage of oxygen caused by prolonged physical exertion inhibits aerobic respiration by preventing NAD+ and FAD, which are used by the citric acid cycle, from being regenerated.

To maintain ATP production, cells switch from aerobic to anaerobic respiration, which does not require oxygen and consists of glycolysis and fermentation. Glycolysis contributes two molecules of ATP by breaking down glucose into two molecules of pyruvate. During fermentation, the NAD+ required for glycolysis is generated by reducing pyruvate to lactate with the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase. Therefore, glycine and cysteine are ultimately converted to lactate during periods of physical exertion.

Question 64

Cooperativity of Hemoglobin

Answer 64

The sigmoidal (S-shaped) curve of the ODC plot indicates positive cooperativity of binding (Number III). Hemoglobin consists of four subunits, each of which can exist in either the T state (“tense,” low oxygen affinity) or the R state (“relaxed,” high oxygen affinity). Oxygen binding to one subunit stabilizes its R state. The bound subunit then “positively cooperates” with other subunits, inducing them to change from the T to the R conformation and making additional oxygen binding easier. Therefore, overall oxygen affinity increases with O2 pressure (Number II).

Question 65

Oxygen Dissociation curves

Answer 65

For muscles to contract during exercise, they must break down glucose for energy. This process requires the continuous reduction of NAD+ to NADH as glucose is oxidized to pyruvate. Cells must oxidize NADH back to NAD+ to continue glycolysis. Under anaerobic conditions this is accomplished by coupling oxidation of NADH to the reduction of pyruvate, producing lactic acid.

NADH+pyruvate ⇌NAD++lactic acid

During the 20 minutes of exercise performed by healthy individuals, increased lactic acid production causes an increase in the H+ concentration, which lowers the blood pH. Accumulated H+ ions are able to bind to hemoglobin and reduce its affinity for oxygen in a phenomenon known as the Bohr effect. This reduced affinity appears as a right shift in the ODC, as shown in Figure 1. The reduction in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen allows more O2 to be unloaded to the muscle cells. Therefore, the need for more oxygen in contracting muscles is met as by-products generated during exercise decrease hemoglobin oxygen binding.

(Choice A) CO2 production is increased, not decreased, in contracting muscles. Like lactic acid buildup, this process also contributes to hemoglobin’s reduced affinity for oxygen.

(Choice B) Exercise does indeed decrease the partial pressure of oxygen in muscles as oxygen is consumed. However, changes in oxygen partial pressure correspond to different positions along the ODC, not to changes in its shape.

(Choice C) Hemoglobin binds oxygen less tightly during exercise due to a decrease in blood pH.

Question 66

Oxygen Binding and Release

Answer 66

Hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen is decreased in the presence of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG) within the red blood cell. 2,3-BPG binds hemoglobin at an allosteric site and stabilizes the deoxygenated conformation. This reduces oxygen binding and increases O2 release into tissues (right shift on oxygen dissociation curve). Therefore upregulation of an enzyme that produces 2,3-BPG could improve oxygen release.

Mutases facilitate reactions that change the location of a functional group within a molecule. The enzyme bisphosphoglycerate mutase converts 1,3-BPG to 2,3-BPG by transferring a phosphate from carbon 1 to carbon 2 within a bisphosphoglycerate molecule. Upregulation of this enzyme would therefore increase the concentration of 2,3-BPG and could facilitate oxygen release into the tissues of cirrhotic patients.

(Choice A) Kinases add and, in some cases, remove phosphate groups. Phosphoglycerate kinase interconverts 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate and 3-phosphoglycerate and is not involved in production of 2,3-BPG.

(Choice B) Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase converts glycerol-3-phosphate to dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP). It is not involved in oxygen release by hemoglobin.

(Choice D) Although phosphoglycerate mutase does have mutase activity, it interconverts 3-phosphoglycerate and 2-phosphoglycerate. It acts on phosphoglycerates, not bisphosphoglycerates.

Question 67

Oxygen release and binding

Answer 67

The excessive exhalation that occurs during hyperventilation depletes blood CO2. Carbon dioxide is in equilibrium with carbonic acid (H2CO3), which in turn is in equilibrium with bicarbonate (HCO3-) in the blood.

CO2+H2O⇌H2CO3⇌H+ + HCO3 −

This equilibrium forms the basis for the bicarbonate buffering system, which helps control blood pH. As CO2 is removed, the equilibrium shifts to favor consumption of carbonic acid and bicarbonate, which increases blood pH (fewer H+ ions). Both CO2 and H+ allosterically decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen, so their removal will increase the affinity and result in less delivery of oxygen to tissues as hemoglobin fails to release it. An increase in oxygen affinity appears as a left shift in the ODC.

Like hyperventilating individuals, patients with cirrhosis exhibit a left shift in their ODC relative to healthy subjects. It is therefore reasonable to hypothesize that patients with cirrhosis experience decreased carbonic acid and/or CO2 levels.

(Choice B) Bicarbonate is the conjugate base of carbonic acid. Excreting bicarbonate shifts the equilibrium toward carbonic acid production and lowers the blood pH, resulting in a right shift of the ODC.

(Choice C) There is no indication in the passage that patients with cirrhosis have lung abnormalities. Therefore, the partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs of these patients is most likely the same as in healthy controls.

(Choice D) A decrease in hemoglobin oxygen affinity would correspond to a right shift of the ODC and more oxygen being released into tissue.

Question 68

Functions of the Spleen

Answer 68

1. Filters aged/damaged RBCs
2. Reservoir for blood
3. Immune response (B cell activation site, housing macrophages)

Question 69

Energy metabolism

Answer 69

Energy metabolism refers to the cellular processes by which an organism stores or utilizes sources of energy. During periods of stress, hormones secreted by the adrenal gland influence energy metabolism by promoting energy utilization and inhibiting energy storage.

Hormones secreted by the adrenal gland regulate energy metabolism as follows:

Glucocorticoids (eg, cortisol) released by the adrenal cortex act on the liver to stimulate the synthesis of glucose from other molecules (ie, gluconeogenesis) and the breakdown of fats into fatty acids (ie, lipolysis).  Both glucose and free fatty acids are forms of cellular energy that can be readily utilized.

Norepinephrine and epinephrine are released by the adrenal medulla to modulate the metabolism of glycogen, the storage form of glucose.  In addition, both hormones promote the breakdown of glycogen into glucose monomers in a process known as glycogenolysis.  By inhibiting the enzymes that mediate glycogen synthesis, norepinephrine and epinephrine also inhibit glycogenesis (the formation of glycogen from glucose).

Question 70

Hydrostatic Pressure

Answer 70

Hydrostatic pressure of blood, or blood pressure (BP), is the force exerted by blood on the vessel walls. This pressure pushes fluid through capillary wall pores and into the interstitial fluid (the extracellular fluid surrounding cells of a tissue). The kidneys regulate BP by increasing water reabsorption (thereby increasing blood volume and, consequently, BP) when BP is low and by decreasing water reabsorption when BP is high.

Question 71

Osmotic Pressure

Answer 71

Osmotic pressure causes a solution to take in water by osmosis, the passive movement of water molecules from an area of low to an area of high solute concentration. Osmotic pressure increases as solute concentration (osmolarity) increases. When blood osmolarity is high, the kidneys respond by increasing water reabsorption and decreasing solute reabsorption. Conversely, when blood osmolarity is low, the kidneys react by decreasing water reabsorption and increasing solute reabsorption.

Question 72

Cartilage Notes

Answer 72

Cartilage is a firm but flexible connective tissue composed of chondrocytes and an extracellular matrix of collagen fibers, proteoglycans, and water. The extracellular matrix of cartilage is known specifically as chondrin and is secreted by chondrocytes. Because of its structure, cartilage is resistant to compression and stretching and is accordingly found in parts of the body that require cushioning (eg, joint surfaces, spine). Because cartilage lacks nerves (ie, is not innervated) and is avascular (ie, lacks its own blood supply), it must receive nutrients and oxygen via diffusion from surrounding fluids or vascularized areas

Question 73

Hyaline

Answer 73

1. Reduces friction between bony surfaces to facilitate joint movement
2. Allows linear bone growth at the epiphyseal plate in childhood
3. Reinforces respiratory passageways
4. Supports the external nose

Question 74

Elastic Cartilage

Answer 74

1. Highly flexible

2. Withstand distortion without damage and reverts to its original shape

Question 75

Fibrous Cartilage

Answer 75

1. Limits movement
2. Resists compression forces and stretch
3. Prevents direct contact between bones (e.g. between vertebrae of the spine)

Question 76

Parts

Answer 76

Haversian - Parallel
Volkman - Perpendicular
Lacunae - Perpendicular
Canaliculi - Parallel

Question 77

Penetrance

Answer 77

Penetrance refers to the portion of offspring that express a genetic trait. If the tlr4(d) mutation had reduced penetrance, only a fraction of the F1 offspring would show decreased response to LPS compared to He-N mice. As seen in Table 1, immune response was relatively uniformly decreased among F1 mice.

Question 78

Expressivity

Answer 78

Expressivity refers to the range of symptoms observed in individuals with a given genetic condition. If the tlr4(d) allele had variable expressivity, the mutation would result in a range of different phenotype characteristics.

Question 79

Codominance

Answer 79

Codominance refers to the co-expression of two alleles at the same locus, where both allelic products are observable in the phenotype of heterozygous individuals.

Question 80

Quasi-Experimental Design

Answer 80

Experiment in which participants are grouped non-randomly based on their experience

Question 81

Hallmark of a study is

Answer 81

Inclusion of a random assignment

Question 82

Stress Brain structure

Answer 82

Hippocampus

Question 83

Medulla

Answer 83

1. Regulates basic biological functions like respiration and heart rate

Question 84

Pons

Answer 84

1. Connects the brainstem and the cerebrum and may play a part in regulating sleep-related processes.

Question 85

Stereotype Threat

Answer 85

Stereotype threat is the self-confirming belief that one’s performance will support a negative stereotype about one’s own gender, race or other designation. The anxiety associated with potentially fulfilling a negative stereotype is thought to negatively impact performance.

Question 86

Schizotypal Personality Disorder

Answer 86

Schizotypal disorder is characterized by distorted patterns of thought, behavior, and functioning. These persons usually have difficulty forming relationships and severe social anxiety.

Question 87

Intersectionality

Answer 87

The concept of intersectionality suggests that various forms of oppression or discrimination, such as racism, sexism, or ageism, interact with one another to create a new, heightened form of oppression or discrimination that cannot be fully understood on the basis of its component parts.

Question 88

Anxiety or Mood Disordeers

Answer 88

• Phobia
• Generalized Anxiety Disorder
• Paranoid Personality Disorder

Question 89

Personality Disorders

Answer 89

Cluster A - (Odd, eccentric, paranoid): paranoid, schizotypal, schizoid

Cluster B - (dramatic, emotional, erratic, wild): antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic

Cluster C - (anxious, fearful, worried): avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive

Question 90

Stability and Longevity

Answer 90

All other things being equal, as group size increases so do stability and longevity. Thus, a primary triad (three members) is more likely to be stable and long-lived than a dyad (two members). In fact, dyads tend to be emotional and unstable. A dyad is at high risk of dissolution because a single person leaving the group dissolves the entity. By comparison, for a large group, several individuals may decide to leave the group and the overall group cohesion and function could continue relatively unaffected. Primary groups are characterized by close, long-lasting interactions that are unlikely to dissolve. Secondary groups are characterized as being shorter-lived, more superficial, and more likely to dissolve. Therefore, a primary group will have more stability and longevity than a secondary group, eliminating answers A and C.

Question 91

Humanistic Theory of motivation

Answer 91

The humanistic theory of motivation suggests that, assuming more basic needs (like hunger) have been met, individuals are ultimately motivated to seek self-actualization, the ultimate fulfillment of their own potential. The motivation to pursue a medical degree is an example of wanting to fulfill one’s potential.

Question 92

Incentive Theory of Motivation

Answer 92

The incentive theory of motivation suggests that individuals are motivated according to external rewards. Therefore, people engage in the behavior that results in the most desirable outcomes. For example, people are motivated to go to work to make money.

Question 93

The Arousal theory of motivation

Answer 93

The arousal theory of motivation suggests that individuals are motivated to maintain an optimum level of arousal. When underaroused, people seek activities to increase stimulation (eg, if bored at home, one will go out dancing). When overaroused, people seek to decrease stimulation (eg, if overwhelmed at a party, one will step outside for quiet).

Question 94

Expectancy theory of motivation and others

Answer 94

The expectancy theory of motivation proposes that individuals are motivated to act based on the expected outcomes of their behavior. According to this theory, motivation involves expectancy, instrumentality, and valence:

1. Expectancy is the belief that one will be able to achieve the desired outcome. Asking participants to rate how successful they think they will be at losing weight is a measure of expectancy.
2. Instrumentality is the belief that one has control over the desired outcome. Asking participants to rate how much control they believe they have over their success is a measure of instrumentality.
3. Valence involves the value placed on the desired outcome. If the researchers also asked participants to rate how much they wanted to lose weight, this would be a measure of valence.

Question 95

Components of Emotion

Answer 95

The three components of emotion are cognitive, behavioral, and physiological.

1. The cognitive component includes all the mental processes that accompany the emotion, such as corresponding thoughts, motivations, beliefs, expectations, and an evaluation of the context/situation.
2. The behavioral component of emotion is described as the immediate outward reaction that occurs in response to an emotion. These responses are typically involuntary and automatic (eg, smiling, gasping).
3. The physiological component of emotion includes all the bodily processes that accompany the emotion (eg, changes in heart rate, respiration rate, sweating).

Question 96

Adaptive Role of Emotion

Answer 96

Emotions play an adaptive role in society by allowing humans to emotionally connect with others through feelings such as love, affection, and attachment, and by fostering group unity and conformity. A desire to experience certain emotions (eg, happiness, pride) and avoid others (eg, embarrassment, shame) causes people to behave in predictable, socially acceptable ways. Understanding the emotions of others and expressing emotions to others are important elements of social interaction.

A positive correlation between emotional expression scores from Task 1 (for both the positive and negative videos) and social success scores would support the hypothesis that emotions play an adaptive role in society. Individuals with stronger emotional reactions to the videos may be more understanding/perceptive of positive or negative emotions, which should correspond with an increased ability to build interpersonal connections (ie, social success).

Question 97

Personality Disorders

Answer 97

Personality disorders are characterized by inflexible and enduring patterns of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that differ markedly from social norms and cause functional impairment. Individuals with personality disorders have pathological personal traits (eg, rigidity, greediness) and maladaptive patterns of relating to others (eg, hostility, superficiality) that are stable over time and across situations.

For someone with a pattern of conflict-ridden interpersonal relationships in all settings since late adolescence (ie, stable over time), resulting in a history of sporadic employment and tumultuous romantic relationships (ie, significant impairment), the most likely diagnosis is a personality disorder.

Question 98

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Answer 98

Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is an anxiety disorder characterized by excessive and uncontrollable worry about a range of topics (eg, health, finances, career, relationships). Although some individuals with GAD may have health-related concerns, these are not the primary focus of their worry as in SSD.

Question 99

Somatic Symptom Disorder

Answer 99

Somatic symptom disorder (SSD) is characterized by extreme concern regarding one or more actual physical symptoms (eg, fatigue, pain). Individuals with SSD typically have a high level of anxiety about their health and devote significant time and energy to their symptoms (eg, repeated doctor visits, researching symptoms online).

Therefore, a patient who repeatedly presents with extreme distress about his mild health symptoms and who devotes significant time to worrying about his health despite his primary care physician’s reassurances would most likely be diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder.

Question 100

Psychoanalytic Theory Major Defense Mechanisms

Answer 100

Denial
Projection
Rationalization
Regression
Repression
Displacement
Sublimation
Reaction Formation

Question 101

Denial

Answer 101

Inability or refusal to recognize unacceptable thoughts/behaviors (e.g. insisting one is not angry when actually angry)

Question 102

Projection

Answer 102

Attributing unacceptable thoughts/behaviors to someone or something else e.g. calling the sidewalk “stupid” after tripping

Question 103

Rationalization

Answer 103

Making excuses for unacceptable thoughts/behaviors e.g. justifying cheating because “the course is impossible”.

Question 104

Regression

Answer 104

Behaving as if much younger to avoid unacceptable thoughts/behaviors e.g. moving back in with parents to avoid personal responsibilities.

Question 105

Repression

Answer 105

Blocking unacceptable thoughts/behaviors from consciousness e.g. being unaware of a traumatic past experience

Question 106

Displacement

Answer 106

Taking out unacceptable thoughts/behaviors on a safe target e.g. punching a pillow when angry at parents

Question 107

Sublimation

Answer 107

Transforming unacceptable thoughts/behaviors into acceptable thoughts/behaviors e.g. taking up boxing as a way to channel one’s anger

Question 108

Reaction formation

Answer 108

Behaving in a manner opposite unacceptable thoughts/behaviors e.g. expressing love for a person one despises.

Question 109

Psychoanalytic personality theory

Answer 109

Unconscious conflicts between impulses and social restraints

Question 110

Trait theory

Answer 110

Consistent and enduring personality dispositions

Question 111

Humanistic Theory

Answer 111

Inner drive toward growth and self-actualization

Question 112

Behavioral

Answer 112

Learning from the environment

Question 113

Social Cognitive

Answer 113

Cognitive expectations, social learning and modeling

Question 114

Biological

Answer 114

Genetic predispositions, brain structurefunction, evolution

Question 115

Factitious Disorder

Answer 115

Factitious disorder is a somatic symptom and related disorder (SSRD) that involves falsifying physical or psychological symptoms without obvious external gain (eg, disability benefits). Fabricated memory loss to gain sympathy from others is characteristic of factitious disorder (an SSRD)

Question 116

Dissociative Disorder

Answer 116

1. Dissociative Identity Disorder - Presence of two or more distinct personalities; amnesia; inability to recall important autobiographical information
2. Dissociative amnesia - Inability to recall important autobiographical information. Both have this type of symptom.