deck_5545894 Flashcards

1
Q

Explain steps of the gram stain

A
  • crystal violet to stain peptidoglycan- add iodine to stick stain better- ethanol 95% to clear stain- safranin 0.25 % stain gram - cells pink; no effect on gram + cell ethanol not able to wash away stain, remains blue
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2
Q

function of iodine in the gram stain

A
  • iodine is a mordant that fixes the crystal violet to the bacterial cell wall
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3
Q

what are the dyes used in the endospore stain

A

malachite green and safranin .5%

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4
Q

what color are the endospores stain

A
  • green
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5
Q

what is the function of steam used in the endospore stain

A
  • to help the dye, malachite green penetrate into endospore
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6
Q

what is the principle dye used in the acid fast stain

A
  • Ziehl’s carbolfuchsin
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7
Q

what color are the acid fast cells

A

pink

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8
Q

what is the first step in the identification of an unknown? why is this important

A
  • making a streak plate/ it’s important because of obtaining an isolated colony
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9
Q

why is the aseptic technique important when you transfer mmicrobes

A

to reduce the risk of contamination

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10
Q

why are pour plates used in determining bacterial populations in food

A
  • to make a viable count (find coliform count and find total bacterial count
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11
Q

Indole- medium- reagents- positive reaction- negative reaction- purpose of the test

A
  • tryptone broth- Kovacs reagent- red +- yellow – purpose: to determine whether bacterium can utilize tryptophan producing indole as a waste product
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12
Q

Methyl red- medium- reagents- positive reaction- negative reaction- purpose

A
  • MR-VP- Methyl red- Red +- Yellow (- no change)- purpose: to identify bacterial ability to produce acidic by-products of glucose fermentation (mixed acid fermentation of glucose)
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13
Q

Voges-Proskauer- medium- reagents- positive reaction- negative reaction- purpose

A
  • MR-VP- KOH and a-naphthol- brick red +- yellow (- no change)- purpose to determine bacterial ability to produce non-acidic byproducts (acetoin) from glucose
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14
Q

Citrate - medium- reagents- positive- negative- purpose

A
  • simmon’s citrate agar’- Bromthymol blue (in the medium)- blue +- green – purpose: to determine the ability of an organism to use citric acid as a source of carbon
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15
Q

KIA- see hard copy

A
  • see hard copy# 31 to 37
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16
Q

in KIA what is the pH indicator

A
  • Phenol Red
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17
Q

In KIA what does the black color indicate?

A
  • production of H2S
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18
Q

In KIA, how do you tell if any tube produced gas in this test, and what kind of gas can be produced?

A

the agar is lifted or has cracks

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19
Q

What does SIM stand for?

A
  • Sulfide-Indole-Motility
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20
Q

What three tests are included in SIM media?

A
  • sulfur reduction: sulfide production results from the production of H2S from the amino acid cysteine- Production of Indole: from the breakdown of tryptophan- Motility: the ability of the bacteria to swim through a semi-solid medium
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21
Q

40-46 check hard copy

A

check

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22
Q

for Nitrate Reduction: except the color, is there any other way that you can determine whether it is positive reaction?

A
  • yes. a durham vial is present to capture any gas (N2) produced - an indication of denitrification
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23
Q

(blood agar) Explain differential. how does it function as a differential medium?

A

A differential medium allows the distinction between bacteria that grow on it

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24
Q

what is blood agar medium used for?

A

blood agar permits the detection of groups of bacteria that produce hemolysins

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25
Q

In Blood agar what does the clear areas indicate? how are they formed?

A
  • clear area indicate B-Hemolysis

- they are formed by the complete destruction of RBCs and hemoglobin

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26
Q

What type of medium is Mannitol Salt Agar. explain each function

A
  • selective: selectively grow staphylococci

- differential - differentiate pathogenic species from non-pathogenic species

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27
Q

How does the genus grow in Mannitol Salt Agar

A
  • it tolerates the salinity of the medium
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28
Q

in mannitol salt agar which carbohydrate was fermented in the yellow colored area?

A
  • mannitol
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29
Q
  • what are the organisms used in our lab on each area of the mannitol salt agar?
A
  • Staphyloccoccus aureus (yellow)

- Staphyloccoccus epidermidis (pink)

30
Q

What are the three parts and its purpose of the water analysis

A
  • Presumptive test (MPN test)
  • confirmed test
  • completed test
31
Q

What medium is used in the MPN test

A
  • Lauryl sulfate lactose broth
32
Q

What indicates a positive result in the mpn test? where did it come from

A
  • gas formation in a durham tube

- lactose fermentation

33
Q

what is coliform

A
  • indicator organisms which indicate the presence of human fecal waste
  • gm negative non-spore forming, facultative rods which ferment lactose
34
Q

What medium is used in the second part of coliform test

A

EMB (Eosin Methylene Blue) Agar

35
Q

How is e. coli shown in EMB medium

A
  • Metallic green sheen
36
Q

What tests are used in the third part of the water analysis

A
  • IMViC test
37
Q
  • what medium is used for coliform dilution factors
A
  • VRBA (violet red bile agar)
38
Q
  • why do you overlay when you use SIM medium?
A
  • to prevent growth of aerobes
39
Q

What does SPCA stand for?

A
  • Standard Plate Count Agar
40
Q

Do you overlay SPCA? why or why not?

A
  • NO. to count the number of aerobic and facultative bacteria as well
41
Q

What is the purpose of using SPCA

A
  • total bacterial count
42
Q

What are two microbes principally involved in the yogurt production?

A
  • Streptococcus thermophilus

- Lactobacillus bulgaricus

43
Q

What purpose do the microbes serve in yogurt?

A
  • they produce lactic acid as a byproduct of lactose fermentation, and lactic acid causes the casein in the milk to denature and thus causes the milk to curdle
44
Q

What type of medium is MacConkey Agar. explain how it works

A
  • Selective for gram negative (bile salt and crystal violet inhibit growth of Gram positive/ differentiate lactose fermentds from non-lactose fermenters
45
Q
  • What are the ingredients of MacConkey Agar
A
  • lactose
  • neutral red
  • bile ssalts
  • crystal violet
46
Q

Which carbohydrate did the pink colonies ferment?

A
  • lactose
47
Q

What is the pH indicator of MacConkey agar

A
  • neutral red
48
Q

Where is Borrelia burgdoferi found in the human body? (check h.c for picture)

A
  • Blood and lymph
49
Q

What disease does Borrelia burgdoferi cause?

A
  • lyme disease
50
Q

What is the mode of transmission of Borrelia burgdoferi

A
  • Deer tick
51
Q

What are the symptoms of Borrelia burgdoferi

A
  • red rings/kinky joints
52
Q

Explain gram reaction and mophology of Neisseria gonorrhea (check for picture)

A
  • gram negative cocci
53
Q

Where can you find Neisseria gonorrhea in the human body?

A
  • it attaches to the urethral or vaginal epithelial cells
54
Q

what disease does the Neisseria gonorrhea cause?

A
  • gonorrhea…PID
55
Q

How is Neisseria gonorrhea transmitted?

A
  • STD
56
Q

What are the symptoms of Neisseria gonorrhea

A
  • lower abdominal or pelvic pain

- conjunctivitis

57
Q

What is the mode of transmission of Bacillus anthracis

A

Endospores

58
Q

what disease does Bacillus anthracis cause?

A
  • anthrax

- woolsorters’ disease

59
Q

what are the characteristics of Clostridium botulinum

A
  • gram positive, strict anaerobe, endospore forming
60
Q

What disease does Clostridium botulinum cause?

A
  • food poisoning
61
Q

What are the characteristics of Treponema pallidum

A
  • gram negative spirochete
62
Q

Where can you find Treponema pallidum?

A
  • mucous membrane
63
Q

Which disease does Treponema pallidum cause?

A
  • syphilis
64
Q

Where is Clostridium tetani commonly found in our environment?

A
  • soil and animal feces
65
Q

What diesease does Clostridium tetani cause?

A
  • Tetanus (lockjaw)
66
Q

What is the symptoms of Clostridum tetani

A
  • Muscle contraction
67
Q

What vaccine can you get to prevent Clostrdium tetani infection?

A
  • TDaP
68
Q

how is HIV diagnosed?

A
  • ELISA: for detection

- western blot: for confirmation

69
Q

what does elisa stand for?

A
  • enzyme-linked immunosorbent Asssay
70
Q

what do PCR do?

A
  • amplify a segment of DNA
71
Q

how does a western blot confirm the presence of HIV antibodies?

A
  • using gel electrohoresis, it separates or denatures proteins by the length of the polypeptide
  • match with a patient control
72
Q

what are the similarities or different features of neutrophils and monocytes?

A
  • both are leukocytes
  • neutrophils: granulocyte, muli nuclie
  • monocyte: non-granulocyte, large nuclei