Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Advancment Study (In Rate) > Deck 7 > Flashcards

Deck 7 Flashcards

Get That MONEY!!!

1
Q

Pass and Advanced

1201.Phase II of the U.S. Navy?s SHF fielding plan, which commenced in FY 94, will replace what terminals on aircraft carriers with an AN/WSC-6(V)4 terminal?

A

QUICKSAT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pass and Advanced

1202.What does the system configuration that supports Navy SHF SATCOM consist of?

A

An SHF RF terminal and supporting baseband equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pass and Advanced

1203.What type ships use the AN/WSC-6(V)1, with the MD-1030A(V) modem?

A

SURTASS ships equipped with a single antenna.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pass and Advanced

1204.What unit commands the antenna to search for tracking (beacon) signals from the satellite?

A

An antenna control unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pass and Advanced

1205.What are the two types of communications satellites?

A

Active and passive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pass and Advanced

1206.What does an active satellite act as?

A

A repeater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pass and Advanced

1207.What does a typical operational link involve?

A

An active satellite and two Earth terminals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pass and Advanced

1208.What does the basic design of a satellite communications system depend a great deal on?

A

The parameters of the satellite orbit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pass and Advanced

1209.An orbit is generally either’ elliptical or circular, what is its inclination referred to as?

A

Included, polar, or equatorial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pass and Advanced

1210.How many basic components make up a satellite communications system?

A

Two.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pass and Advanced

1211.What determines the complexity of the components and the manner in which the system operates?

A

The design of the overall system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pass and Advanced

1212.What is a particularly valuable technique for lessening the effects of enemy jamming?

A

Spread spectrum modulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pass and Advanced

1213.What does a narrow uplink transmission beam width provide?

A

A low probability of intercept (LPI) capability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pass and Advanced

1214.What is a characteristic of SHF, favorable to flagships?

A

The ability to communicate critical C41 for the user information in the presence of enemy jamming and with due regard for enemy detection capabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pass and Advanced

1215.What does the radio group consist of?

A

A high power amplifier (I-IPA) or medium power amplifier (MPA), low noise amplifier (LNA), up-converter, down-converter, and frequency standard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pass and Advanced

1216.What does the SATCOM equipment that the Navy uses for the fleet broadcast include?

A

The SATCOM broadcast receiver (AN/SSR-1), the FLTSATCOM SHF broadcast transmitter (AN/FSC-79), the standard shipboard transceiver (AN/WSC-3), the shore station transceiver (AN/WSC-5), and the basic airborne transceiver (AN/ARC-143B).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pass and Advanced

1217.What is the Navy?s standard SATCOM broadcast receiver system?

A

The AN/SSR-l.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pass and Advanced

1218.What terminal interfaces the communications subsystems and the satellite and provides the SHF uplink for the FLTSATCOM system?

A

The AN/FSC-79 Fleet Broadcast Terminal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pass and Advanced

1219.What is the bandwidth of the AN/FSC-79?

A

7- to 8-GHz.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pass and Advanced

1220.What is the standard UHF SATCOM transceiver for both submarine and surface ships?

A

The AN/WSC-3 Transceiver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pass and Advanced

1221.What mode of operation is the AN/WSC-3 in when it uplinks in the 292.2- to 311.6-MHz bandwidth and downlinks in the 248.5- to 270.1-MHz band?

A

SATCOM mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pass and Advanced

1222.What is the common UHF RF satellite terminal installed at NAVCOM’I`ELSTAs for the GAPFILLER subsystem?

A

The AN/WSC-5 UHF Transceiver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pass and Advanced

1223.What transceiver is used for ASWIXS communications and is installed at VP Antisubmarine Warfare Operation Centers and aboard P-3C aircraft?

A

The AN/ARC-143 UHF Transceiver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pass and Advanced

1224.What are the two parts of the AN/ARC-143 UHF Transceiver?

A

A transceiver and a radio set control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pass and Advanced

1225.What system provides communications links, via satellite, between shore commands and mobile units?

A

The Fleet Satellite Communications (FLTSATCOM) system and subsystems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pass and Advanced

1226.What subsystem is an expansion of fleet broadcast transmissions that historically have been the central communications medium for operating naval units?

A

The Fleet Sate1lite Broadcast (FSB) subsystem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pass and Advanced

1227.What serves as an automated shipboard terminal for interfacing with CUDIXS (shore-based) and the Fleet Broadcast System?

A

NAVMACS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pass and Advanced

1228.The SSIXS provides a communications system to exchange message traffic between what two users?

A

SSBN and SSN submarines and shore stations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pass and Advanced

1229.What subsystem is designed as a communications link for antisubmarine warfare (ASW) operations between shore stations and aircraft?

A

Antisubmarine Warfare Information Exchange Subsystem (ASWIXS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pass and Advanced

1230.What subsystem is a direct communications link between command centers ashore and afloat and provides one-way transmission of data link communications?

A

Tactical Data Information Exchange Subsystem (TADIXS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pass and Advanced

1231.What subsystem allows connection with wide-area voice networks ashore?

A

Secure voice subsystem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pass and Advanced

1232.What subsystem is specifically designed for special intelligence communications?

A

Tactical Intelligence (TACINTEL) Subsystem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Pass and Advanced

1233.What subsystem is a communications network that facilitates status reporting and management of FLTSAT COM system assets?

A

The Control Subsystem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pass and Advanced

1234.What subsystem is designed as a communications link for battle group tactical operations?

A

Officer in Tactical Command Information Exchange Subsystem (OTCIXS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Pass and Advanced

1235.What subsystem is an expansion of the existing teleprinter transmission network?

A

Teleprinter Subsystem (ORESTES).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Pass and Advanced

1236.What subsystem is a joint operation between the U.S. Navy and contractors for controlling LEASATS?

A

The LEASAT Telemetry Tracking and Command Subsystem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pass and Advanced

1237.What would a typical configuration on a large ship include?

A

Fleet broadcast, CUDIXS/NAVMACS, secure voice, OTCIXS, TADDCS, teleprinter, and TACINTEL equipment. .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pass and Advanced

1238.What is the purpose of Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA)?

A

To multiplex several subsystems or users on one satellite channel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pass and Advanced

1239.What is a method of increasing the number of transmissions taking place in the radio spectrum per unit of time?

A

Multiplexing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pass and Advanced

1240.What does multiplexing involve?

A

The simultaneous transmission of a number of intelligible signals using only a single transmitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pass and Advanced

1241.The Navy uses how many multiplexing methods?

A

Two.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Pass and Advanced

1242.What can the baseband equipment input or output data rate with DAMA equipment be?

A

75, 300, 600, 1,200, 2,400, 4,800, or 16,000 bits per second (bps).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pass and Advanced

1243.What can the DAMA transmission rate on the satellite link be?

A

2,400, 9,600, 19,200, or 32,000 symbols per second.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is circuit restoral dependent upon?
A

Timely action, quick decisions, and the ability of personnel to use any means available to restore communications in the shortest possible time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the radio frequencies (RFs) that are prohibited from use when HERO conditions and EMCON restrictions are set?
A

Below 30 MHz.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What was developed to provide an uninterrupted flow of essential communications without violating HERO and EMCON restrictions?
A

AUTOCAT, SATCAT, and MIDDLEMAN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What participants is the Fleet Flash Net (FFN) composed of?
A

Senior operational staffs and designated subscribers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the FFN?
A

To distribute high-precedence or highly sensitive traffic among subscribers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What publication can you find information on the FFN?
A

Mission Communications, NTP ll.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What person can mean the difference between efficient and inefficient communications?
A

The operator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the ability of an antenna to both transmit and receive electromagnetic energy known as?
A

Reciprocity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the point on an antenna where the RF cable is attached?
A

The feed point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the antenna said to be if the RF transmission line is attached to the base?
A

End-fed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the antenna said to be if the RF transmission line is connected at the center?
A

Mid-fed or center-fed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What does the directivity of an antenna refer to?
A

The width of the radiation beam pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the three terms used to describe the type of directional qualities associated with an antenna?
A

Omni directional, bidirectional, and unidirectional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of antenna radiates and receives equally well in all directions, except off the ends?
A

Omni directional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of antenna radiates or receives efficiently in only one direction?
A

Unidirectional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of antenna is mostly used in naval communications?
A

Omni directional or unidirectional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is an example of a unidirectional antenna?
A

Parabolic, or dish, antenna.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What antenna is commonly used at shore installations?
A

Directional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a major consideration in the efficient transmission and reception of radio signals?
A

Polarization of a radio wave.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the reason a vertical antenna is used to receive vertically polarized waves, and a horizontal antenna is used to receive horizontally polarized waves?
A

If a single-wire antenna is used to extract energy from a passing radio wave, maximum signal pickup results when the antenna is placed physically in the same direction as the electric field component.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When antennas are close to the ground, do vertically polarized radio waves yield a stronger signal close to the Earth than those that are horizontally polarized?
A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of polarization are most shipboard communications antennas?
A

Vertically polarized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of polarization do the VHF and UHF antennas used for ship-to-aircraft communications use?
A

Vertical and circular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Pass and Advanced

1267.Why do circularly polarized shipboard antennas frequently offer considerable signal improvements over vertically polarized antennas?

A

Because aircraft maneuvers cause cross-polarization effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Pass and Advanced

1268.What is a term used in antenna tuning?

A

Standing wave ratio (SWR), also called voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Pass and Advanced

1269.What is the perfect standing wave ratio (SWR) that can be achieved?

A

One-to-one.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Pass and Advanced

1270.Why will there always be some power loss between the transmitter and the antenna?

A

Because of natural impedances that exist between the two.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Pass and Advanced

1271.What is the energy reflected back to the feed point called?

A

Reflected waves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Pass and Advanced

1272.How can the condition of most antennas be determined?

A

By measuring the power being supplied to the antenna (forward power) and the power being reflected back to the source (reflected power); these two measurements determine the voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR), which indicates antenna performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Pass and Advanced

1273.When are the reflected waves and the incident waves in phase along the length of the antenna and tend to reinforce each other?

A

If an antenna is resonant to the frequency supplied by the transmitter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Pass and Advanced

1274.What can be used to tune a transmitter without causing unwanted radiation?

A

A dummy load, also called dummy antenna.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Pass and Advanced

1275.What rate do electromagnetic waves travel through free space?

A

186,000 miles per second.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Pass and Advanced

1276.What is a wavelength?

A

The distance traveled by a radio wave in one cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Pass and Advanced

1277.What does the term ?wavelength? also refer to?

A

The length of an antenna.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Pass and Advanced

1278.What are antennas often referred to as?

A

Half wave, quarter wave, or full wave.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Pass and Advanced

1279.What publication should be consulted for information on how to compute wavelengths for different frequencies?

A

NEETS, Module 12, Modulation Principles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Pass and Advanced

1280.All antennas are derived from how many basic types?

A

Two.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Pass and Advanced

1281.What type of antenna is the shortest antenna that can be used to radiate radio signals into free space?

A

An antenna that is one-half wavelength long.

82
Q

Pass and Advanced

1282.What is the most widely used antenna?

A

The half-wave antenna, commonly called a dipole, or hertz, antenna.

83
Q

Pass and Advanced

1283.What does the half-wave antenna consist of?

A

Two lengths of wire rod, or tubing, each one-fourth wavelength long at a certain frequency.

84
Q

Pass and Advanced

1284.What is one feature of the dipole antenna?

A

It does not. need to be connected to the ground like other antennas.

85
Q

Pass and Advanced

1285.What is the quarter-wave antenna referred to as?

A

A ?Marconi antenna.?

86
Q

Pass and Advanced

1286.Does the antenna always need to be placed at the Earth?s surface to produce an image?

A

No.

87
Q

Pass and Advanced

1287.What is the ground plane sometimes referred to as?

A

A ?counterpoise.?

88
Q

Pass and Advanced

1288.What frequency coverage is wire rope (fan) antennas used for?

A

300 kHz to 30 MHZ.

89
Q

Pass and Advanced

1289.What does a wire rope antenna consist of?

A

One or more lengths of flexible wire rigged from two or more points on the ship?s superstructure.

90
Q

Pass and Advanced

1290.Where are receiving wire antennas normally installed on the ship?

A

Forward, rising nearly vertically from the pilothouse top to brackets on the mast or yardarm.

91
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How long are whip antennas that are commonly used aboard ship?
A

25, 28, or 35 feet.

92
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where are VHF and UHF antennas usually installed?
A

On stub masts above the foremast and below the UHF direction finder.

93
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What does the AN/SRR-1 receiver system consist of?
A

Up to four AS-2815/ S SR-1 antennas with an amplifier-converter AM-6534/SSR-1 for each antenna.

94
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What band do the newer satellite systems use?
A

SHF.

95
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the most commonly used antennas for point-to-point HF naval communications?
A

Horizontal rhombic antennas.

96
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the main disadvantage of rhombic antennas?
A

It requires a relatively large area.

97
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How does the rhombic antenna improve in performance?
A

If each leg is made up of more than one wire.

98
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the primary uses of the sleeve antenna?
A

Broadcast, ship-to-shore, and ground-to-air communications.

99
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of communication is the conical monopole antenna used in?
A

HF.

100
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What band does the log-periodic (LP) antenna operate in?
A

HF and VHF.

101
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What does the simplest emergency antenna consist of?
A

A length of wire rope to which a high-voltage insulator is attached to one end and a heavy alligator clip, or lug, is soldered to the other.

102
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. The AN/SRA-12 provides how many radio-frequency channels in the 14-kHz to 32-MHz range?
A

Seven.

103
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Do transmitting antenna distribution systems perform the same functions as receiving distribution systems?
A

Yes.

104
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is reception defined as?
A

When an electromagnetic wave passes through a receiver antenna and induces a voltage in that antenna.

105
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the two objectives of antenna tuning?
A

To tune out the various impedances and to match the length of the antenna to the frequency radiated at its characteristic impedance.

106
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How do you usually measure selectivity?
A

By taking a series of sensitivity readings.

107
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is dielectric heating?
A

The heating of an insulating material by placing it in a high frequency electric field.

108
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What Navy standards must safety personnel follow when going aloft?
A

NAVOSH requirements.

109
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. i What is the heart of the Navy Standard Teleprinter Ashore (NSTA) program?
A

The Personal Computer Message Terminal (PCMT).

110
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What does the PCMT software package combine for message-processing?
A

OIBM-compatible PC- or AT-class desktop microcomputers and bus interface units (BIUS).

111
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. The PCMT message-processing system is what type of system?
A

Store-and-forward system.

112
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What units are required to interface between the PCMT and the automated shore systems?
A

Bus interface units (BIUS).

113
Q

Pass and Advanced

1313.What minimum random-access memory (RAM) does the PCMT microprocessor have?

A

640K.

114
Q

Pass and Advanced

1314.What does the PCMT system assign to each complete or partial message processed?

A

A message accountability number (MAN).

115
Q

Pass and Advanced

1315.What reports identify all processing activity completed or pending for each message processed by the PCMT system?

A

Message accountability reports.

116
Q

Pass and Advanced

1316.What information can the operator provide to recall a message?

A

Message accountability number (MAN), a component identification number (CIN), or channel service number (CSN); also an originating station routing indicator (OSRI), station serial number (SSN), or time of tile (TOF).

117
Q

Pass and Advanced

1317.What does the PCMT deliver its message traffic to?

A

Diskettes.

118
Q

Pass and Advanced

1318.How often will the PCMT system generate a summary report that identifies all traffic processed by the terminal during the previous 24-hour period?

A

Once a day.

119
Q

Pass and Advanced

1319.What system replaced NAVCOMPARS?

A

The Manual Relay Center Modernization Program (MARCEMP).

120
Q

Pass and Advanced

1320.How many send and receive circuits can MARCEMP handle?

A

24

121
Q

Pass and Advanced

1321.How many narrative or operator-to-operator dialogue messages can MARCEIVIP process daily?

A

Approximately 3,500.

122
Q

Pass and Advanced

1322.What does the GateGuard subsystem provide for the user?

A

A gateway to the AUTODIN system.

123
Q

Pass and Advanced

1323.What are the three elements of the GateGuard system?

A

AGT, AIS, and GD.

124
Q

Pass and Advanced

1324.What serves as the primary AUTODIN interface point for a single organization?

A

AGT.

125
Q

Pass and Advanced

1325.The communications link connecting the AUTODIN Subscriber Terminal (AST) with the AGT passes through what device?

A

The Guard Device (GD).

126
Q

Pass and Advanced

1326.What is the main purpose of the GD?

A

To assist in enforcing system security policy.

127
Q

Pass and Advanced

1327.What does the AST provide the AGT?

A

Long-term archive storage.

128
Q

Pass and Advanced

1328.What agency manages the AUTODIN system?

A

The Defense Communications Agency (DCA).

129
Q

Pass and Advanced

1329.What is the backbone of the AUTODIN system?

A

The Automatic Switching Center (ASC).

130
Q

Pass and Advanced

1330.How many ASCs are in the continental United States?

A

Eight.

131
Q

Pass and Advanced

1331.How many AUTODIN system operational modes are there?

A

Five.

132
Q

Pass and Advanced

1332.Which mode allows independent and simultaneous two-way operation between two stations?

A

Mode I.

133
Q

Pass and Advanced

1333.Which mode is a unidirectional operation?

A

Mode IV.

134
Q

Pass and Advanced

1334.What device provides the central AUTODIN computer with the necessary means to communicate with the user?

A

Input and output (I/O) devices, such as teleprinters.

135
Q

Pass and Advanced

1335.What does the section of I/0 devices depend on?

A

The specific use for which a computer is intended.

136
Q

Pass and Advanced

1336.What are the two types of I/O coded languages?

A

ASCII Code and ITA #2 Code

137
Q

Pass and Advanced

1337.What is at the beginning of each AUTODIN message?

A

A header containing pertinent information on the destination of the message.

138
Q

Pass and Advanced

1338.What is a message tape routed through the AUTODIN system to the addressee(s) by, within the AUTODIN network?

A

A routing indicator.

139
Q

Pass and Advanced

1339.What minimum number of letters do routing indicators contain?

A

Four.

140
Q

Pass and Advanced

1340.What letters do a routing indicator begin with?

A

R or Q.

141
Q

Pass and Advanced

1341.What does the letter R indicate?

A

The routing indicator is part of the worldwide tape relay system.

142
Q

Pass and Advanced

1342.What does the letter Q indicate?

A

The routing indicator is within a self-contained network within a command or theater.

143
Q

Pass and Advanced

1343.What does the second letter of the routing indicator identify?

A

The nation or international alliance to which the indicator belongs.

144
Q

Pass and Advanced

1344.What does the third letter of the routing indicator identify?

A

The geographical area in which a particular station is located or from which it is served.

145
Q

Pass and Advanced

1345.What do the fourth and subsequent letters of a routing indicator designate?

A

Relay and tributary stations within the tape relay network.

146
Q

Pass and Advanced

1346.What must TTY terminals (modes II, IV, and V) prefix each message header with as a means of maintaining traffic continuity?

A

A message transmission identification (TI).

147
Q

Pass and Advanced

1347.What is the symbol ZCZC used for during transmission of a message?

A

Indicates the start of the message.

148
Q

Pass and Advanced

1348.What determines the station/channel designators?

A

The status of the originating station.

149
Q

Pass and Advanced

1349.What is the starting point for the operator who is preparing the message tape?

A

The message header.

150
Q

Pass and Advanced

1350.What is an important point for the operator to remember when preparing the header?

A

It must be letter-perfect.

151
Q

Pass and Advanced

1351.What is an emergency command precedence (ECP) and is assigned to emergency action messages (EAMs)?

A

The pro sign Y (YANKEE).

152
Q

Pass and Advanced

1352.What does the pro sign Y indicate?

A

A message has FLASH preemption capability.

153
Q

Pass and Advanced

1353.How many alphabetical characters do the language and media format (LMF) consist of?

A

Two.

154
Q

Pass and Advanced

1354.What mode is used to insert a message into the AUTODIN system?

A

The LMF.

155
Q

Pass and Advanced

1355.What publication lists the LMFS used in the AUTODIN system?

A

Automated Digital Network (A UTODIN) Operating Procedures, JANAP 128.

156
Q

Pass and Advanced

1356.What classification or special handling does the letter ?A? represent in the classification position of a message?

A

Special Category (SPECAT).

157
Q

Pass and Advanced

1357.What classificationgujnym7 or special handling does the letter ?E? represent in the classification position of a message?

A

Unclassified EFTO.

158
Q

Pass and Advanced

1358.In positions 5 through 8, a CAI of ZFH2 would tell the operator it is what type of message?

A

Information.

159
Q

Pass and Advanced

1359.In positions 5 through 8, what would a CAI of ZYVW indicate?

A

The message is a service message.

160
Q

Pass and Advanced

1360.What is the Julian date?

A

The date that the message was received from the originator for transmission by the communications center.

161
Q

Pass and Advanced

1361.What is the time filed?

A

The time that the message was received from the originator by the communications center for - transmission.

162
Q

Pass and Advanced

1362.What two sections make up the positions reserved for routing?

A

Start-of-routing signal and the addressees? routing indicators.

163
Q

Pass and Advanced

1363.The end-of-routing signal consists of a period (.), where is it inserted?

A

In the position immediately following the last addressee routing indicator.

164
Q

Pass and Advanced

1364.What is the first component of format line 4?

A

Security warning.

165
Q

Pass and Advanced

1365.Why must a leader precede the header?

A

To ensure acceptance and transmission of the first character of the message header.

166
Q

Pass and Advanced

1366.What is the reason the TOF and TAD is used at a tributary station?

A

To determine message-processing times.

167
Q

Pass and Advanced

1367.Messages cannot exceed more than how many lines of heading and text?

A

20, beginning with line 5.

168
Q

Pass and Advanced

1368.For messages that exceed the 20-line limit, which must be divided into pages for transmission, how are the second and succeeding pages of a message identified?

A

By the page number, the routing indicator of the station of origin, and the SSN.

169
Q

Pass and Advanced

1369.On unclassified messages, what statement is placed after the page identification?

A

?UNCLAS.?

170
Q

Pass and Advanced

1370.What type message can have up to 100 lines of text without paging when the inclusion of paging information would disrupt processing by the user?

A

Statistical and meteorological.

171
Q

Pass and Advanced

1371.What is a misrouted message?

A

One that contains an incorrect routing instruction, which normally occurs when the originating communications center assigns an incorrect routing indicator during message header preparation.

172
Q

Pass and Advanced

1372.What is a missent message?

A

One that contains a correct routing indicator but is transmitted to a station other than the one represented by the routing indicator.

173
Q

Pass and Advanced

1373.What actions must be taken by communications personnel of a tributary station in receipt of a misspent message?

A

Reintroduce the message into the AUTODIN system as a suspected duplicate (SUSDUPE) after applying a header change and forward a routine service message to the connected ASC citing the complete header and time of receipt (TOR) and advising that the message has been protected.

174
Q

Pass and Advanced

1374.What should be done when a station suspects that a message may have been previously transmitted, but definite proof or prior transmission cannot be determined?

A

The message should be forwarded as a suspected duplicate (SUSDUPE) by applying a header change, however, if a station receives a message that is already marked ?SUSDUPE,? the station should tile the message if the message was previously received and delivered to the addressee.

175
Q

Pass and Advanced

1375.What should be done by stations receiving unmarked duplicate transmissions?

A

immediately forward a routine service message to the originating station, which should cite the complete header format of the duplicated message, including the TOR of the original and duplicate transmissions.

176
Q

Pass and Advanced

1376.What should be done by an ASC receiving notification of a duplicate transmission?

A

Search its records to determine if the message was received in duplicate.

177
Q

Pass and Advanced

1377.What is one of the principal media used in electronic data processing equipments (EDPEs)?

A

Magnetic tape.

178
Q

Pass and Advanced

1378.What is the basic mode of MTTS operation with other AUTODIN tributary stations?

A

Either full duplex or on a store-and-forward basis.

179
Q

Pass and Advanced

1379.What service provides a direct subscriber-to-subscriber encrypted circuit?

A

Hybrid AUTODIN Red Patch Service (HARPS).

180
Q

Pass and Advanced

1380.How do communication centers not serviced by HARPS communicate?

A

By normal message switching, which automatically performs the necessary speed, format, and code conversions.

181
Q

Pass and Advanced

1381.What type of tapes are NOT permitted to have splices?

A

Traffic.

182
Q

Pass and Advanced

1382.For general transmission of data throughout the system, computerized terminals must be capable of transmitting records that contain how many characters?

A

18 to 1,200.

183
Q

Pass and Advanced

1383.What maximum number of characters are magnetic tape messages prepared for transmission limited to?

A

40,000.00

184
Q

Pass and Advanced

1384.Each tape reel given to the MTTS operator for transmission must bear a tape label containing what information?

A

Reel number, number of messages recorded on tape, highest precedence used, highest security classification, date and time filed, tape density, LMF used, beginning and ending SSNS, and time delivered to the MTTS operator.

185
Q

Pass and Advanced

1385.How long must all originated tape reels be retained?

A

At least 10 days.

186
Q

Pass and Advanced

1386.The header and EOT printouts furnished the MTTS operator for both originated and terminated traffic, which are maintained as a station communications record, are retained for how long?

A

At least 30 days.

187
Q

Pass and Advanced

1387.What log reflects the current operation status of the terminal equipments and circuits?

A

Master station log.

188
Q

Pass and Advanced

1388.What should the reel delivery log indicate?

A

The reel number and the time the reel was delivered to the transmitting operator or the addressee.

189
Q

Pass and Advanced

1389.What will result in transmission of a message with a higher security level than authorized?

A

It will be rejected by the ASC.

190
Q

Pass and Advanced

1390.In the event of a security mismatch, what action will the ASC take in a single-address message?

A

Reject the message and alarms appear at the originating terminal indicating that the message needs retransmission.

191
Q

Pass and Advanced

1391.What are the five Naval Communications Processing and Routing Systems (NAVCOMPARSs)?

A

NCTAMS EASTPAC, NCTAMS WESTPAC, NCTAMS MED, NCTAMS LANT, and NAVCOMMTELSTA Stockton, California.

192
Q

Pass and Advanced

1392.What provides automatic outgoing message routing and reformatting for Navy activities ashore?

A

The Local Digital Message Exchange (LDMX).

193
Q

Pass and Advanced

1393.Operating at full capacity, how many messages can the LDMA system process per day?

A

7,500.00

194
Q

Pass and Advanced

1394.What is a significant feature of the LDMX system?

A

It is the natural. accumulation of statistical information and accounting data.

195
Q

Pass and Advanced

1395.What are the current versions of NAVMACS?

A

(V)l, (V)2, (V)2-MPD (message-preparation device), (V)3, and (V)5/(V)5A.

196
Q

Pass and Advanced

1396.What version of NAVMACS provides automation for the receipt and processing of up to four channels of incoming broadcast message traffic?

A

(V)1.

197
Q

Pass and Advanced

1397.What version of NAVMACS provides one channel of incoming and outgoing high-speed satellite link message traffic from and to CUDIX?

A

(V)2

198
Q

Pass and Advanced

1398.What are the ways the NAVMACS (V)2 configuration upgrades the (V)1 system?

A

Adds automatic MILSTRIP paper tape message processing, adds message output to medium-speed printers instead of low-speed printers, and uses magnetic tape program loading instead of paper tape loading.

199
Q

Pass and Advanced

1399.What version of NAVMACS automates certain processing functions required in the handling of narrative messages and serves as an afloat terminal within those communications networks using broadcast and point-to-point modes of operation on both conventional and satellite transmission paths?

A

(V)3

200
Q

Pass and Advanced

1400.What version of NAVMACS is capable of interfacing a mix of input/output channels?

A

(V)5/(V)5A.

Advancment Study (In Rate) (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions