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Advancment Study (In Rate) > Deck 10 > Flashcards

Deck 10 Flashcards

Get That MONEY!!!

1
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a megahertz (MHz)?
A

A unit of frequency equal to 1,000,000 hertz.

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2
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is MF (MEDIUM FREQUENCY)?
A

The band of frequencies from 300 kHz to 3 MHZ.

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3
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a mirror image?
A

That part of the radiated signal of a quarter-wave antenna (Marconi antenna) appearing to come from an underground image of the real antenna. This image is also called ground reflection.

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4
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a modulated wave?
A

The wave that results after the information from the modulating signal is impressed onto the carrier signal. The wave that is transmitted.

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5
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is modulation?
A

The process of adding, or superimposing, information on an RF carrier wave.

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6
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is MUF (MAXIMUM USABLE FIHZQUENCYY?
A

The highest operating frequency that can be used at a specific time for successful radio communications between two points,

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7
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is an omnidirectional antenna?
A

An antenna that radiates or receives equally well in all directions, except directly off the ends.

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8
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is an oscillator?
A

An electrical circuit that generates alternating current at a particular frequency.

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9
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a parabolic antenna?
A

An antenna that radiates its signal back into a large reflecting surface (called the disk) for radiation.

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10
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a period (of a wave)?
A

The time required to complete one cycle of a waveform.

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11
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is polarization (of antennas)?
A

The plane (horizontal or vertical) of the electric field as radiated from a transmitting antenna.

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12
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is radhaz (RADIATION HAZARD)?
A

Electromagnetic radiation hazard generated from electronic equipment.

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13
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a radiation field?
A

The electromagnetic field that radiates from an antenna and travels through space.

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14
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is radiation resistance?
A

The resistance that, if inserted in place of an antenna, would consume the same amount of power that is radiated by the antenna.

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15
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is red?
A

Plain text or unencrypted information.

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16
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a reflected wave?
A

An electromagnetic wave that travels back toward the transmitter from the antenna because of mismatch in impedance between the two.

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17
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is reflection?
A

Occurs when a radio wave strikes the Earth?s surface at some distance from the transmitting antenna and is returned upward toward the atmosphere.

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18
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is RF (RADIO FREQUENCY)?
A

A frequency in the range within which radio waves can be transmitted. Frequencies used for radio communication fall between 3 kHz and 300 Ghz.

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19
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is RF energy?
A

Radio frequency energy. Energy produced at the output of a transmitter.

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20
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is satellite communication (SATCOM)?
A

A type of worldwide, reliable, high-capacity, secure, and cost-effective telecommunications system using satellites.

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21
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is SHF (SUPER HIGH FREQUENCY)?
A

The band of frequencies from 3 Ghz to 30 Ghz.

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22
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a signal?
A

Detectable transmitted energy that can be used to carry information.

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23
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are standing waves?
A

The stationary waves that build up along an antenna during radiation.

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24
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a switchboard?
A

Device that connects receiver outputs to numerous pieces of equipment.

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25
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is SWR (STANDING-WAVE RATIO)?
A

A term used to express the degree of resonance attained between the antenna and the transmission line when being tuned for transmission.

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26
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a transmission line?
A

A device designed to guide electrical or electromagnetic energy from one point to another.

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27
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is UHF (ULTRA HIGH FREQUENCY)?
A

The band of frequencies from 300 MHZ to 3 Ghz.

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28
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a unidirectional antenna?
A

An antenna that radiates in only one direction.

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29
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is VHF (VERY HIGH FREQUENCY)?
A

The band of frequencies from 30 MHZ to 300 MHZ.

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30
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is VLF (VERY LOW FREQUENCY)?
A

The band of frequencies from 3 kHz to 30 kHz.

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31
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a waveform?
A

The shape of an electromagnetic wave.

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32
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a wavelength?
A

The distance traveled, in feet or meters, by a radio wave in the time required for one cycle.

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33
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is authentication?
A

A security measure designed to protect a communications or command system against fraudulent transmissions or simulation.

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34
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is automatic digital network (AUTODIN)?
A

A worldwide automatic communications system that provides automatic data service.

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35
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is beadwindow?
A

A term describing a real-time procedure used to alert circuit operators that an unauthorized disclosure has occurred.

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36
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a carrier?
A

The unmodulated signal originally produced in the oscillator section of a transmitter.

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37
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is confidential?
A

Information the unauthorized disclosure of which could reasonably be expected to cause damage to the national security.

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38
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a cryptosystem?
A

Information encompassing all the associated items of crypto material that are used together to provide a single means of encryption or decryption.

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39
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the defense switched network (DSN)?
A

A nonsecure telecommunications telephone interconnected network among military and other government installations (formerly AUTOVON).

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40
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a directed net?
A

A net in which member stations must obtain permission from the net control station (NECOS) prior to communicating with other stations on the net.

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41
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is emission control (EMCON)?
A

General or specific restrictions placed on electromagnetic radiations for a particular area or areas.

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42
Q

Pass and Advanced

1842.What is a free net?

A

A communications net of which member stations need not obtain permission of the net control station (NECOS) to transmit.

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43
Q

Pass and Advanced

1843.What is gateguard?

A

A security subsystem that allows commands to interface directly with the AUTODIN system as pan ‘ of the NSTA program.

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44
Q

Pass and Advanced

1844.What is a local holder?

A

A command or activity whose COMSEC material needs are met by drawing the material from a single CMS account.

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45
Q

Pass and Advanced

1845.What is the Manual Relay Center Modernization Program (MARCEMP)?

A

An automation support system for all aspects of HF message relay operation in the Fleet Center.

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46
Q

Pass and Advanced

1846.What are prosigns?

A

Letters, or combinations of letters, that convey frequently sent orders or instructions in a simple, standard format.

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47
Q

Pass and Advanced

1847.What are prowords?

A

The phonetic equivalent of prosigns.

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48
Q

Pass and Advanced

1848.What is meant by Secret?

A

Information the unauthorized disclosure of which could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to the national security.

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49
Q

Pass and Advanced

1849.What is the secure telephone unit third generation (STU-III)?

A

Desktop phone unit that provides users with both clear and secure voice and data transmissions.

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50
Q

Pass and Advanced

1850.What is a seed key?

A

Special keying material used for the initial electronic set-up of the STU-III terminal.

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51
Q

Pass and Advanced

1851.What is a service message?

A

A short, concise message between communication personnel requiring prompt attention.

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52
Q

Pass and Advanced

1852.What is the basic objective of the Ships? 3-M System?

A

To provide for managing maintenance and maintenance support to help achieve maximum equipment operational readiness.

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53
Q

Pass and Advanced

1853.What are the 6 objective categories within the Ships? 3-M System?

A

Standardization, Efficiency, Documentation, Analysis, Configuration, and Scheduling.

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54
Q

Pass and Advanced

1854.What system provides a standardized method of planning, scheduling, and accomplishing preventive maintenance?

A

The Planned Maintenance System (PMS).

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55
Q

Pass and Advanced

1855.Where can you find ordering information for PMS Schedule Holders, Schedules, MRC Card Holders, and various 3-M OPNAV Forms?

A

Appendix E of COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2, Ships? Maintenance and Material Management (3 -M) Manual.

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56
Q

Pass and Advanced

1856.Who has the overall responsibility for ensuring ship maintenance is accomplished following 3-M System procedures within the command?

A

The Commanding Officer (CO).

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57
Q

Pass and Advanced

1857.Who is the Ships? 3-M System manager responsible to the CO for the overall management of the Ships? 3-M System program?

A

The Executive Officer (XO).

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58
Q

Pass and Advanced

1858.Who acts as the final review officer for maintenance responsibility shifts between departments?

A

The Executive Officer (XO).

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59
Q

Pass and Advanced

1859.Who is the functional manager of the 3-M System responsible to the X0 for the coordination and direct supervision of all administrative facets of the Ships? 3-M System program?

A

The 3-M System Coordinator.

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60
Q

Pass and Advanced

1860.What is the title of the Officer or Petty Officer assigned to provide help with the coordination and supervision of the department?s 3-M program?

A

The Departmental 3-M Assistant.

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61
Q

Pass and Advanced

1861.Who supervises maintenance scheduling within the department (such as reviewing and approving cycle and quarterly schedules) and other departmental 3-M functions?

A

The Department Head.

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62
Q

Pass and Advanced

1862.Who is responsible to the Department Head and assists in managing the maintenance required for the equipment within division responsibility?

A

The Division Officer.

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63
Q

Pass and Advanced

1863.What are Group Supervisors?

A

Chief Petty Officers who are responsible for two or more work centers.

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64
Q

Pass and Advanced

1864.Who is the senior person in a work center that is responsible for the effective operation of the 3-M System within the work center?

A

The Work Center Supervisor.

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65
Q

Pass and Advanced

1865.Where can you find a complete listing of the tools allowed (shop and technician tool kits) for each class of ship?

A

In the Allowance Equipage Lists (AELS) located in the Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List (COSAL).

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66
Q

Pass and Advanced

1866.What is the objective of the Preventive Maintenance System (PMS)?

A

To maintain equipment within specifications through preventive maintenance, identifying and correcting potential problems before the equipment or system becomes inoperable.

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67
Q

Pass and Advanced

1867.At what level is maintenance performed under the Planned Maintenance System (PMS)?

A

At the Organizational (O) or Intermediate (I) level.

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68
Q

Pass and Advanced

1868.Who reviews and approves the weekly schedules to ensure they follow the quarterly schedule?

A

The Division Officer.

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69
Q

Pass and Advanced

1869.Who ensures that the quarterly schedules are updated weekly?

A

The Division Officer.

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70
Q

Pass and Advanced

1870.Who are responsible to their work center supervisor to perform assigned scheduled maintenance requirements using MRCS, TGLs, and EGLs as indicated by the weekly schedule?

A

Maintenance personnel.

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71
Q

Pass and Advanced

1871.Which directive prevails when a difference exists between the requirements of PMS and other technical publications?

A

PMS requirements will prevail.

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72
Q

Pass and Advanced

1872.How must equipment not supported by PMS be maintained?

A

In accordance with existing procedures from the manufacturers, SYSCOM or BUMED technical manuals.

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73
Q

Pass and Advanced

1873.What are the 6 things PMS provides for?

A

1) Comprehensive procedures for planned maintenance of systems and equipment. 2) Minimum requirements for planned maintenance. 3) Scheduling and control of the performance of tasks. 4) Description of the methods, materials, tools, and personnel needed for maintenance. 5) Prevention or detection of hidden failures or malfunctions. 6) Test procedures to determine material readiness.

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74
Q

Pass and Advanced

1874.Which safety precaution category on a MRC will be listed prior to applicable step that if not followed correctly might result in death or injury?

A

Warning.

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75
Q

Pass and Advanced

1875.Which safety precaution category on a MRC will be listed prior to applicable step that if not followed correctly might result in damage to equipment?

A

Caution.

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76
Q

Pass and Advanced

1876.What basic PMS reference document is issued for each installed system for which PMS support is established?

A

Maintenance Index Page (MIP).

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77
Q

Pass and Advanced

1877.What function does each MIP serve as?

A

They serve as a MRC card index for the applicable system.

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78
Q

Pass and Advanced

1878.What number is used to identify each MRC listed on a MIP?

A

The SYSCOM MRC Control Number.

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79
Q

Pass and Advanced

1879.What does the underlining of the first 2 digits of the SYSCOM MRC Control Number indicate?

A

It is used to indicate new or revised MRCS.

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80
Q

Pass and Advanced

1880.What is the purpose of the periodicity code?

A

It delineates how frequently the maintenance requirement must be performed.

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81
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When are dual periodicity codes used?
A

When configurations or utility differences of a permanent nature exist between installations of the same system For example, an AN/VRC-46 transceiver mounted in a small craft may not see the daily use of the same transceiver installed on a large ship.

82
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When a dual periodicity is assigned, how will you know which one to schedule?
A

By reading the note in the Scheduling Aids on the MIP.

83
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where are maintenance procedures contained?
A

On cards called “Maintenance Requirement Cards? (MRCS).

84
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What information is provided on a MRC?
A

Exactly the “who, what, when, how, and with what resources’ associated with a specific maintenance requirement.

85
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is the performance of shipboard PMS evaluated?
A

Through the PMS Spot Check Program.

86
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of MDS?
A

It is the means which maintenance personnel can report applicable maintenance requirements and configuration changes on all categories of equipment.

87
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where would you find preparation instructions and examples for MDS forms?
A

Appendix B of OPNAVINST 4790.4C, Ships’ Maintenance and Material Management (3 -M) Manual.

88
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the OPNAV 4790/2K?
A

It is a Ship?s Maintenance Action Form used to report deferred maintenance actions and the completion of those maintenance actions which do not result in a configuration change.

89
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the OPNAV 4790/2L?
A

It is a Supplemental Form used to provide amplifying information (such as drawings and lists) related to a maintenance action reported on an OPNAV 4790/2K.

90
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the OPNAV 4790/2P?
A

It is a Maintenance Planning and Estimating Form used along with an OPNAV 4790/2K for deferring maintenance to be done by an IMA. It is attached to the original 2K at the IMA, and used by the I.MA to screen and plan the job in detail.

91
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What 3-M document provides the TYCOM with the means for determining urgent repairs for tender availabilities, shipyard overhauls, or restricted availabilities?
A

The Current Ship?s Maintenance Project (CSMP).

92
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What was the difference between the OPNAV 4790/2K and the OPNAV 4790/2Q?
A

The 4790/2Q was basically the same as the 2K except that it was filled in by computer.

93
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What was the Automated Work Request (AWR) OPNAV 4790/2R?
A

A computer produced MDS form used by IMAs that contains the basic deferral information submitted on the 2K and the planning information submitted on the 2P.

94
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Current Ship ‘s Maintenance Project (CSMP)?
A

An administrative system that provides the command and work center with the management data needed for the systematic accomplishment of repair and alteration of ship’s hull, installed equipment, and material.

95
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What system identifies at any one time the backlog of deferred maintenance for each work center and provides the means for gathering this information?
A

The CSMP.

96
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the PMS Feedback Report (PMSFBR) OPNAV 4790/7B?
A

It is an easy method of recommending changes to MRCS, ordering MRCS that have been lost or mutilated, and notifying the systems commands of any technical discrepancies in coverage.

97
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a mishap?
A

Any unplanned or unintentional event, no matter how serious, that stops or interrupts your work and results in personnel injury and/or property damage.

98
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the three basic elements of a mishap?
A

A mishap is an unplanned or unintentional event; a mishap stops or interrupts work; and a mishap involves contact that causes injury or property damage.

99
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What two facts form the basis of mishap prevention?
A

Mishaps are caused, and the only way to stop them is to prevent or eliminate the causes.

100
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What action should be taken if you think a task is too hazardous?
A

It probably is too hazardous, so before you attempt to do it, seek guidance and become familiar with its associated hazards.

101
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the basis for the factors that determine your behavior while performing a task?
A

Your unique experiences, knowledge, attitude, and motivation.

102
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the most common communication problem that causes mishaps?
A

Misunderstanding the message being sent to you.

103
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the goal of the Navy’s mishap prevention program?
A

To prevent mishaps from occurring or, once they have occurred, to prevent them from reoccurring.

104
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What comprises the Navy’s mishap prevention program?
A

Activities directed to eliminate unsafe acts of persons and unsafe mechanical, physical, or chemical working conditions.

105
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the best way to prevent mishaps?
A

To eliminate the factors that lead to mishaps.

106
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the effect of alcohol abuse in causing a mishap?
A

It typically impairs your judgment, gives an unrealistic confidence, slows coordination, and degrades performance.

107
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How does fatigue affect performance?
A

It varies from person to person, but always reduces your mental alertness, increasing the chances of a mishap occurring.

108
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What four avenues are available to correct an unsafe condition?
A

Order the correction where authority permits; report conditions to higher authority; correct the problem at the source; or take temporary precautions.

109
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What course of action should be taken if an unsafe condition may arise, which requires IMMEDIATE corrective action, and you can’t SAFELY correct the problem?
A

Inform your supervisor about it immediately!

110
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who has direct responsibility for the safety of all personnel at a command?
A

The Commanding Officer of the activity - and this responsibility cannot be delegated.

111
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who acts as the principal advisor to the Commanding Officer’ on all internal safety matters?
A

The Command Safety Officer.

112
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who acts as a department’s point of contact in coordinating and evaluating a ship’s safety program?
A

The Department Safety Officer.

113
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who is the Safety Officer for each division on a ship?
A

The Division Officer.

114
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who may be designated as a Division Safety Petty Officer?
A

A senior petty officer, E-5 or above. He/she should also have completed PQS NAVEDTRA 43460-4B Watchstation 301.

115
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is your personal safety responsibility for any unsafe condition or any equipment or material you think might be unsafe?
A

Report it directly to cognizant personnel or via a command Safety Hazard Report input box.

116
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What action should be taken if you see someone knowingly, or unknowingly, place himself or herself or others in danger?
A

Say something, and if necessary, report the situation to your supervisor.

117
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What action must be taken after you are through using eye protection equipment?
A

Inspect it for future use, clean and properly store it.

118
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the Navy requirements of OPNAVINST 5100.23 for wearing hearing protection?
A

Single hearing protection must be worn by all personnel when present in noisy environments where noise levels are above 84 decibels. The entrance to spaces where noise levels have already been measured by industrial hygienists should have a yellow/black sign indicating the level of hearing protection required.

119
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How should you maintain the SHIPS SAFETY BULLETIN for reference?
A

Current issues are usually posted on a read-board with older issues organized in binders located in the work center.

120
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is contained in the FATHOM magazine?
A

Articles of concern pertaining to safety issues for surface and submarine forces and is primarily distributed to these forces.

121
Q

Pass and Advanced

1921, How often is the Deck plate magazine published?

A

Bimonthly.

122
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How should the contents of Deck plate be considered?
A

As information intended for information purposes only. DO NOT regard it as information that alters or supersedes official regulations, orders, or directives.

123
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How are Safety Advisories issued?
A

In a message format.

124
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where can Afloat Safety Advisories be requested from?
A

From the Naval Safety Center, Naval Air Station, Norfolk, Virginia.

125
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Safetyline?
A

A shore safety review magazine periodical published bimonthly.

126
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is electric shock?
A

The sensation and muscular spasm caused when electric current passes through the body.

127
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. No matter how much voltage is present, what must occur for a person to receive a shock?
A

There must be a ground-path for the electric current.

128
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the two most dangerous paths that current can take through your body?
A

From hand to hand, or from your left hand to either foot.

129
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the MOST dangerous path that current can take through your body?
A

From your left hand to either foot since the current will flow through both your heart and other vital organs.

130
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What value is commonly used as the resistance between major extremities of an average human body?
A

1500 ohms.

131
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the cause of death for most people who die from electric shock?
A

Fibrillation.

132
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the three basic ways to prevent yourself from receiving an electric shock?
A

Isolate, insulate, and ground.

133
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What action should be taken il’ you must leave live circuitry exposed?
A

Rope off the area, post appropriate signs, and warn your fellow workers of the danger.

134
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the first thing to do when you see someone being shocked?
A

Secure the power.

135
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What action should be taken if someone is being shocked and you cannot secure the power?
A

Use a dry insulating material like a rope, a belt without the buckle, or a wooden cane to remove the victim by pushing, pulling, or rolling them off the live circuit or wire.

136
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the ratio of chest compressions to breaths when performing single-rescuer CPR?
A

15 compressions to 2 breaths (15:2) at a rate of 80 compressions per minute.

137
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the physical symptoms of an electric shock victim?
A

More than likely, the victim will be very pale or bluish in color and unconscious.

138
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What precaution should be taken if you must insert your hand into the enclosure of energized equipment?
A

Wear a pair of electrical safety rubber gloves rated for the appropriate voltage.

139
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When taking a voltage measurement on energized equipment, why should you try and keep one hand in your pocket or behind your back?
A

To prevent creating a ground path for electric current to flow through the body from hand to hand.

140
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the major difference between safely measuring voltages below 300 volts, and measuring voltages above 300 volts?
A

When measuring voltages above 300 volts, you must not hold the test probe in your hand while the equipment energized.

141
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What precaution must be taken when working on electronic equipment that uses large capacitors to filter the electrical power?
A

After securing power to the equipment, you MUST discharge the capacitors using a shorting probe before you can safely begin any work on the equipment.

142
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the deck insulating material requirement where the maximum voltage will not exceed 3,000 volts?
A

Safety rubber matting must be installed in continuous runs, at least 36” wide, and must extend at least 24” past each end of any workbenches. See NSTM 634, Deck Coverings.

143
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Why should you NOT use any abrasive cleaners or electric buffers to clean rubber matting used as deck insulating material?
A

Because this type of cleaning will erode the matting?s insulating effectiveness.

144
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Tag-Out Bill?
A

A program to provide procedures which will prevent the improper operation of equipment when a component, system, or portion of a system is isolated or in an abnormal condition such as for corrective or preventive maintenance. When properly adhered to, it will guarantee personnel safety and eliminate the possibility of equipment casualties.

145
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What OPNAVINST contains the Tag-Out Bill?
A

OPNAVINST 3120.32C (SORM), Chapter 630.17

146
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What authority is assigned to Authorizing Officers in the Tag-Out Bill?
A

They are assigned the authority to sign, issue, and clear tags and labels.

147
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What color is the CAUTION Tug (NAVSHIPS 9890/5)?
A

Yellow.

148
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What color is the DANGER Tag (NAVSHIPS 9890/8)?
A

Red.

149
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What form is used for the Out-of-Calibration Label?
A

NAVSEA 9210/6.

150
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What form is used for the Out-of-Commission Label?
A

NAVSHIPS 9890/7

151
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the CAUTION Tag (NA VSHIPS 9890/5)?
A

As a precautionary measure to give temporary special instructions, or to indicate that unusual caution must be exercised when operating the equipment for which the tag is attached.

152
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the DANGER Tag (NA VSHIPS 9890/8)?
A

A red-colored tag used to prohibit operation of equipment that, if operated, could jeopardize the safety of personnel or damage equipment. Under NO circumstances may the position of the tagged valve or switch be changed while a Danger Tag is attached.

153
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a Tag-Out Log?
A

A permanent log of the authorizations given for all general Tag-Out actions. Cleared Tag-Out Record Sheets may be purged as necessary after audits are conducted but at least 4 weeks worth should be on record at any one time.

154
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who do you normally seek permission from to tag out equipment that is mission-critical?
A

For PMS, this information should already be provided on an approved TGL for each ship?s operating condition (cold- iron, in-port steaming, underway). Otherwise, consult the cognizant watch officer responsible for operation of the equipment such as the CICWO, TAO or OOD.

155
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is contained in Section 1 of the Tag-Out Log?
A

A copy of the Tag-Out Bill, chapter 6, OPNAVINST 3120.32C and copies of any command amplifying instructions concerning equipment Tag-Outs.

156
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is contained in Section 2 of the Tag-Out Log?
A

The DANGER/CAUTION Tag-Out Index and Record of Audits forms (OPNAV 3120/4). The Authorizing Officer uses this form to assign and track all issued DANGER/CAUTION tags.

157
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is contained in Section 3 of the Tag-Out Log?
A

Active DANGER/CAUTION Tag-Out Record Sheets (NAVSEA 9210/9).

158
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is contained in Section 4 of the Tag-Out Log?
A

Thc1nstrumentLog (NAVSHIPS 9890/ 10). Used to record all out-of-commission and out-of-calibration labels issued.

159
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is contained in Section 5 of the fag-Out Log?
A

Cleared DANGER/CAUTION Tag-out Record Sheets (N AVSEA 9210/9).

160
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the signature procedure for the DANGER/CA UTION Tag-Out Record Sheet (NA VSEA 9210/9)?
A

You, as the ?POIC?, sign in the designated block. Then you have a second person sign after he/she verifies that (1) you are using the right type and number of tags, and (2) you are tagging out the correct item.

161
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is indicated by “77-4” in the “TAG N0.” block of the DANGER/CAUTION Tag-Out Record Sheet (NAVSEA 9210/9)?
A

The ?77” is the issued log serial number, and the “4” indicates that it is the fourth tag issued under that log serial number.

162
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What “Location” information must be included with the Power Panel and circuit breaker identification number on the DANGER/CA UTION Tag-Out Record Sheet (NA VSEA 9210/9)?
A

The assigned ?tack? number (deck-frame-side) of the space and the item to be tagged-out if the tag-out action is onboard a ship and the building and room number if ashore. Use more than one line if there is not enough space to write this, as it is important to be legible. Space: 02-110-2-C; Power Panel: PP-02-110-2; Breaker: 4P-G4(1).

163
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How should Danger Tags be attached to a disconnecting device such as a circuit breaker?
A

It should be directly attached through the hole in the handle.

164
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How should Danger Tags be attached for Fuse Boxes when a fuse is removed?
A

By taping the Danger Tag securely to the cover of the Fuse Box near or over the nameplate of the circuit being tagged out, or tie the Danger Tag to a Fuse Box cover screw. It is unsafe to attach Danger Tags to fuse clips or other components inside the Fuse Box.

165
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How should Danger Tags be attached to Dead-Front (plug type) fuse holders, such as those on FC and IC switchboards?
A

The Danger Tag should be attached over the opening left by the removed fuses. But do not re-install the empty fuse holder cover.

166
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the minimum OSHA requirements for labeling hazardous materials?
A

The name of the material, name and address of the manufacturer, and the nature of the hazard should be listed on the container.

167
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the labeling requirement if you transfer’ a hazardous material into an unlabeled container?
A

You must indicate on the new container the same label information shown on the original container.

168
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the standard label used by the Department of Defense (DOD) for marking hazardous materials dispensed or produced by DOD agencies?
A

Hazardous Chemical Warning Label, DD Form 2522.

169
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What additional markings (in addition to the DOD label) may there be on the outside of some hazardous material containers?
A

Department of Transportation (DOT) shipping symbols.

170
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What information must be provided by manufacturers for all hazardous materials they produce?
A

A Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) containing hazardous material information,

171
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What system used by the Navy consists of standardized hazardous material information derived from manufacturer MSDS sheets?
A

The Hazardous Material Information System (HMIS).

172
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where are MSDS/HMIS sheets usually located?
A

In the work space where the hazardous materials are located, usually in the immediate vicinity of the Hazardous Material Storage Locker.

173
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What Navy directive should you consult for safety information on hazardous materials?
A

OPNAVINST 5100.19 series, Navy Occupational Safety and Health (NAVOSH) Program Manual for Forces Afloat, Chapter C23.

174
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What disposition is made of rags and other items used to clean spills from hazardous paints or solvents?
A

Place them in a separate, covered container until they can be disposed of properly.

175
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where should you seek instruction if you are unsure of the proper disposal procedures for paints and solvents which are no longer’ needed but can still be used?
A

Check with the Safety Office or HAZMIN/HAZMAT Issue workcenter. Usually these materials can be turned in ashore for reuse at such activities such as HAZMART.

176
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When cleaning electrical components onboard the ship, when would you use Carbon Tetrachloride?
A

NEVER! It is a highly toxic compound and not authorized for shipboard use. Trichloroethane may be used as a substitute.

177
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What precaution should be taken if you must use aerosols where ventilation isn’t adequate?
A

Wear the appropriate respiratory equipment. Dust masks are not adequate because they don?t purify the air like a respirator can.

178
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where should aerosol containers be kept?
A

In a Flammable Liquid Storage locker away from open flames, sunlight, heaters, and other possible sources of heat.

179
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are some of the effects from short term contact with high concentrations of PCB (PolyChlorinated Biphenyls) vapors or liquids?
A

Eye, nose, and throat irritation, headaches, and a skin rash known as chloracne.

180
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is systemic PCB intoxication indicated?
A

By nausea, vomiting, weight loss, jaundice, and abdominal pain and can be fatal.

181
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the requirement for labeling equipment and cabinets containing PCB capacitors?
A

A special black & yellow 4” x 4” EPA adhesive label stating that the equipment contains PCB capacitors.

182
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Describe the construction of a Carbon-Zinc dry cell buttery?
A

A zinc outer container, a carbon center electrode, and a chemical paste for the electrolyte. The electrolyte is corrosive and could leak out of the battery and damage the equipment when not used for prolonged periods, and should be removed.

183
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How are Carbon-Zinc batteries disposed of at sea?
A

They are retained onboard in a steel container until they can be properly disposed of in-port. Do not throw them overboard because they contain metal pollutants.

184
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How are exhausted Mercury cells disposed of at sea?
A

They are retained onboard immersed in water within a steel container until they can be properly disposed of in-port.

185
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What Navy directive should be consulted for the disposal of Lithium cells?
A

OPNAVINST 5090.1 series, Environmental and Natural Resources Program Manual.

186
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Why is proper ventilation important when charging lead-acid cell batteries?
A

To prevent the build-up of hydrogen gas which can be explosive.

187
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the maximum operating temperature for lead-acid batteries?
A

125? F (52? C).

188
Q

Pass and Advanced

1988, What is the proper procedure for combining battery acid with water?

A

Always pour the acid into the water, NEVER pour the water into the acid. This will help prevent the acid from splashing up.

189
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is an implosion in reference to electron vacuum tubes?
A

The opposite of explosion, where a vacuum tube glass shatters and the outside air rushes into the tube to fill the vacuum. Then as the air rushes into the tube, it carries the glass fragments with it, right on through the center of the tube and out the other side. If you’re in the path of these flying fragments, you could be seriously injured.

190
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who should be immediately informed if a radioactive electron tube is broken?
A

Your supervisor.

191
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What action should be taken after notifying your supervisor that a radioactive electron tube has been broken?
A

Seal off the radioactive-contaminated area immediately so that no other personnel will be exposed to the radioactive material.

192
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What should you do if your skin comes in contact with any radioactive fragments?
A

Wash the skin thoroughly with soap and water and get immediate medical attention.

193
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Why is a Cathode-Ray Tube (CRI) hazardous when it?s energized?
A

Because the anode operates from High Voltage and it emits X-rays.

194
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How are CRTs disposed of?
A

By shipping them back to the manufacturer, or by discarding them locally IAW command instructions.

195
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What must be done to non-radioactive electron tubes before they are disposed of at sea?
A

The glass envelope must be broken.

196
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the storage requirement for hazardous materials stored on weather decks or other exposed areas?
A

They should be shielded from direct sunlight.

197
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the definition of a casualty in reference to CASREPS?
A

An equipment malfunction or deficiency which cannot be corrected within 48 hours which reduces the unit?s ability to perform their mission.

198
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the reference publication for CASREP information and procedures?
A

NWP 1-03.1 (formerly NWP 10-1-10).

199
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the 4 different types of Casualty Reports?
A

INITIAL, UPDATE, CORRECT, and CANCEL.

200
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How are operational commanders and support personnel made aware of significant equipment malfunctions that may degrade a unit’s readiness?
A

The INITIAL CASREP which also provides parts and assistance requirements.

Advancment Study (In Rate) (13 decks)

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