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Advancment Study (In Rate) > Deck 6 > Flashcards

Deck 6 Flashcards

Get That MONEY!!!

1
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Which device works at the third layer of the OSI mode (the network layer)?
A

Routers.

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2
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Which device works at OSI model layer 7 (the application layer)?
A

Gateways.

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3
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the main function of a concentrator?
A

To serve as a termination point for cable running from individual nodes in a network.

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4
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What device is a box with a number of connectors to which multiple nodes (PCS) are attached?
A

A hub.

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5
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the object of a modem?
A

To change the characteristics of a simple sine wave, referred to as a carrier signal.

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6
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the device known as that is used to perform the encoding and decoding functions?
A

A codec, which is simply another black box conversion device that has always been existence in a slightly different form as part of a modem.

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7
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What must you do to attach personal computers to the LAN?
A

Install a network interface card (NIC) into an empty expansion slot in the PC, install the appropriate software, and attach the network cable to the NIC.

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8
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What needs to be determined before deciding the type of connector to use?
A

The type of cable and architecture.

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9
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Which cable is the best choice if a secure network is needed?
A

Fiber optic.

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10
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What cable is identified by a designation number of RG-58?
A

Coaxial.

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11
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the advantages of baseband coaxial systems?
A

They are inexpensive, simple, easy to install, low maintenance, and allows very high data transmission rates.

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12
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is one disadvantage of baseband coaxial systems?
A

They are limited to transmitting digital signals only.

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13
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What signals do broadband systems support?
A

Data, voice, and video.

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14
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the disadvantages of broadband systems?
A

Their higher installation costs and complex maintenance.

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15
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What provides the physical link between two components?
A

The connector.

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16
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What does the type of connector needed in a particular situation depend upon?
A

The components involved and, for networks, on the type of cable and architecture being used.

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17
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of connector is used to link two segments of cable in a straight run?
A

Barrel.

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18
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of connector is used to connect telephones to the wall or modem?
A

RJ.

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19
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of connector is used to attach a device to a section of cable?
A

T.

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20
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. An ST connector is rated for what number of matings?
A

1000

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21
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. An SC connector is rated for what number of matings?
A

1000

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22
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. An SMA connector is rated for what number of matings?
A

200

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23
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. In addition to attachment mechanisms, fiber-optic connectors differ in what ways?
A

Size of the ferrule, keyed connector, number of matings, and whether the fiber must be twisted to make the connection.

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24
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the inspection of the components when they are received limited to?
A

Checking for any physical damage, which includes any damage to the packing material, damage to the case, and hidden damage on the inside of the cabinet.

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25
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the three basic approaches to network testing?
A

Rely on vendors, use an organization dedicated to network problem solving (third party), and use in- house network management.

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26
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a disadvantage of in-house network control?
A

It requires more resources, such as knowledgeable people, equipment, space, and all of the other support overhead.

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27
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When should components be tested?
A

When things go wrong, before installing, and after they are installed.

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28
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What piece of test equipment will you need to test electrical activity?
A

Voltmeter or ammeter.

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29
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What piece of test equipment should be used to check for faults in a cable?
A

Scanners.

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30
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What term refers to the cable that forms the main trunk, or backbone, of a network?
A

?Backbone cable.?

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31
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is backbone cable defined by the Electronics Industries Association/Telecommunications Industry Association-568 (EIA/TIA-568) committee?
A

Any ?behind the scenes? cable (that is, cable running behind walls, in shafts, or under the ground).

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32
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. There are how many types of backbone cable?
A

Four.

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33
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of cable is a 100-ohm, multi pair UTP cable, used for voice grade communications?
A

UTP.

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34
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What cable manages the bulk of the traffic, and may connect several different locations, buildings, and even smaller networks?
A

Backbone.

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35
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is one obstacle to a successful backbone network?
A

The high bandwidth that may be required to handle potentially heavy traffic.

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36
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What do PCs need installed for networking capabilities?
A

A network interface card (NIC), which mediates between the computer and the network by doing the necessary processing and translation to enable users to send or receive commands and data over the network.

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37
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. To connect a node directly to a backbone, what cable would you use for the connection?
A

Drop cable.

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38
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the elements needed to connect a node to a network?
A

Cable (twisted-pair, coaxial, or fiber-optic), wiring centers (hubs or concentrators), Intra network links (connectors, repeaters, etc.), and Internet links (bridges, routers, gateways, etc.).

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39
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What piece of equipment enables different types of cable to be attached to each other?
A

Transceivers.

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40
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What piece of equipment absorbs a transmission at the end of a network, preventing the signal from traveling back in the other direction on the network?
A

Terminators.

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41
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What serves as a focal point for network elements, and may influence the logical arrangement of nodes on a network?
A

Wiring centers.

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42
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the central computer in a network, and is responsible for managing the network and provides its service to other processers?
A

A server.

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43
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. In a server-based network, what is the most important hardware server?
A

The tile sewer, which controls access to the tiles and data stored on one or more hard disks.

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44
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the networks with a dedicated server known as?
A

Server-based networks.

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45
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are networks with non-dedicated servers known as?
A

Peer-to-peer networks.

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46
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Can dedicated servers be used for ordinary work?
A

No.

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47
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Can a non-dedicated server be used as a workstation as well as a server?
A

Yes.

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48
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the procedures called that are steps to be taken when the system is not operating properly?
A

Error procedures.

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49
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the network problems, you, as a troubleshooter, must be able to identify?
A

. Hardware, software, and people ware.

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50
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is an important part of your job as a troubleshooter?
A

Classifying the problems and taking the necessary actions to resolve them.

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51
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the three major areas to consider when isolating a problem?
A

The user, the software, and the hardware.

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52
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What causes the majority of all network-related problems?
A

The user?s actions (operator errors).

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53
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of information should be gathered to determine the problem?
A

User?s name, phone number, the terminal/PC or node identification number, the nature of the problem, and what, if anything, occurred immediately preceding the problem, ask the user what application he or she was trying to access or currently working with at the time the problem occurred, and whether other users are experiencing the same or similar problem, did any error messages appear on the screen, and be sure to ask whether the PC was moved before the problem occurred.

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54
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a good thing to keep handy that will assist you in diagnosing and troubleshooting problems?
A

A list of symptoms, probable causes, and ways you can use to trace a problem to its cause.

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55
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the three primary culprits to network malfunctions?
A

Component and server failures, and data collisions.

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56
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the two categories of component failures?
A

Hard faults and soft faults.

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57
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. why can stiff faults be difficult to rind?
A

Because they occur sporadically or only under specific circumstances, rather than every time the memory location is tested.

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58
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the PC tests stored in read-only memory (ROM) known as?
A

Power-on self tests (POSTS)

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59
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the best tool to use for network malfunctions?
A

A network analyzer.

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60
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the most obvious sign that the server has failed for some reason?
A

All users, except root, will not be able to logon the system.

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61
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is one of the best ways to avoid server malfunction?
A

Conduct maintenance on the server.

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62
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the hardest part of server maintenance?
A

Finding the time to conduct the maintenance, since the network will have to be offline to conduct.

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63
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the simultaneous presence of signals from two nodes on the network called?
A

Data collision.

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64
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When can a collision occur?
A

When two nodes think the network is idle and both start transmitting at the same time.

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65
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is done to detect for a collision?
A

Node check the dc voltage on the line.

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66
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What signals does the media-access method use before sending a frame onto the network?
A

RTS (ready to send) and CTS (clear to send) signals.

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67
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a hardware signal sent from a potential transmitter to a destination to indicate that the transmitter wishes to begin a transmission?
A

RTS.

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68
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Whether the cable is pre-made or you make it, should you always test the cable before it is installed into the network?
A

Yes.

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69
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the three general categories of communication line problems?
A

Excessive noise, cabling, and backbone connections.

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70
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the term for random electrical signals that become part of a transmission, and that serve to make the signal (information) component of the transmission more difficult to identify?
A

Noise.

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71
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What can be used to remove random noise from a signal?
A

Noise filters.

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72
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. In a transmission, what is the ratio called between the signal and noise levels at a given point, usually at the receiving end of the transmission?
A

Signal-to-noise ratio (SNR).

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73
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is the SNR value generally expressed?
A

ln dBs.

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74
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What can be used to determine how long a cable segment can be before the signal loss is unacceptably high and helps to determine whether a particular type of cable will work for the intended use?
A

The SNR.

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75
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are filters applied early in the transmission, prior to modulation, known as?
A

Baseband or pre-modulation filters.

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76
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Why does a digital signal degrade when transmitted over a wire?
A

Because the binary information must be converted to electrical form for transmission, and because the shape of the electrical signal changes over distance.

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77
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What term is used to describe the decrease in signal strength, measured in decibels (dB) per 100 feet?
A

Attenuation.

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78
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When does attenuation occur more quickly?
A

At higher frequencies and when the cable?s resistance is higher.

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79
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. In networking environments, what is responsible for cleaning and boosting a signal before passing it on?
A

Repeaters.

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80
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Since attenuation is sensitive to frequency, some situations require the use of what equipment to boost different-frequency signals the appropriate amount?
A

Equalizers.

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81
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What name is a commonly used measure of interference in twisted-pair cable referred to as?
A

Near-end crosstalk (NEXT).

82
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What term is a measure of electrical resistance?
A

Impedance.

83
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What tries to eliminate the effects of certain types of distortions on the signal?
A

Line conditioning.

84
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How many types of line conditioning are there?
A

Two.

85
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a component that includes a transmitter and a receiver and is used to extend the transmission range between devices that are connected directly to each other?
A

A line driver.

86
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What device is used to test the integrity of a section of cable before the cable is even unwound?
A

Time domain reflectometry (TDR).

87
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When can communications be maintained at the highest possible state of readiness?
A

When all levels of command understand the capabilities and limitations of the systems.

88
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are many communications failures attributable to?
A

Poor administration.

89
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who determines the level of readiness of deploying ships and ensure they are adequately prepared?
A

Type commanders.

90
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is an excellent method to ensure that step-by-step preparations are completed prior to a deployment?
A

A check-off list.

91
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What publication provides the minimum number of check-off sheets?
A

The Basic Operational Communications Doctrine (U), NWP 4 (NWP 6-01).

92
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What frequency is used for long-range direction finding, medium- and long-range communications, aeronautical radio navigation, and submarine communications?
A

Low-frequency (LF) band (30-300 kHz).

93
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is used to transmit a high-powered signal over long distances?
A

A low-frequency transmitter.

94
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What component in a low-frequency receiver system is the LF receiver fed into?
A

The receiver transfer switchboard.

95
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What component in a low-frequency receiver system converts the received audio signal (AF) to direct current (dc) for use by the teleprinter equipment?
A

The AN/UCC-1, as a converter comparator.

96
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the difference between the black dc patch panel and the red dc patch panel?
A

The black dc patch panel allows the operator to patch the signal to any crypto equipment and the red dc patch panel restricts the printer selected to plain readable text.

97
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. In the HF transmit system, what does the AN/UCC-1 Telegraph Terminal convert dc signals into?
A

Audio tone signals.

98
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is used to key the transmitter during teleprinter operations?
A

The C-1004 Transmit Keying and Receive Control/Teleprinter.

99
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What frequency band is used for aeronautical radio navigation and communications, radar, amateur radio, and mobile communications?
A

The very-high frequency (VHF) band (30-300 MHZ).

100
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. From the receiver transfer switchboard, where is the output sent?
A

Either the C-1138 Radio Set Control or to a speaker amplifier, or both.

101
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What frequency is used for line-of-sight (short-range) communications?
A

The ultra-high-frequency (UHF) band (300-MHZ to 3-GHZ).

102
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What does the term ?line of sight”, as used in communications, mean?
A

Both transmitting and receiving antennas must be within sight of each other and unaffected by the curvature of the Earth for proper communications operation.

103
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What band is used for satellite communications?
A

UHF.

104
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. In the UHF system on the transmit side of the non-secure voice system, the operator at a remote location talks into the handset, what is the handset connected to?
A

The C-1138 Radio Set Control.

105
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What frequency is strictly for line-of-sight communications?
A

The super-high-frequency (SHF) band (3-30 Ghz).

106
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What publication provides comprehensive coverage of the Navy SHF satellite system?
A

The Navy Super High Frequency Satellite Communications, NTP 2, Section l (C).

107
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What panels are used for the interconnection and transfer of teleprinter signals aboard ship?
A

Teleprinter patch panels.

108
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type teleprinter patch panel is intended for use with cryptographic devices?
A

SB-1210/UG.

109
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the warning signs that are attached to the black patch panel?
A

?BLACK PATCH PANEL? and ?UNCLAS ONLY.?

110
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How many channels do each panel contain?
A

Six.

111
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is it called when equipment is permanently wired together because they are used in conjunction with each other?
A

Normal-through.

112
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a sequence of random binary bits used to initially set and periodically change permutations in Crypto equipment for decrypting electronic signals?
A

A key.

113
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of publication can you find information and instructions on the use of crypto equipment?
A

KAO?s.

114
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the method called for increasing circuits on a sideband?
A

Multiplexing.

115
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a frequency-division multiplexed terminal equipment for use with single-sideband (SSB) or double-sideband (DSB) radio circuits, audio-frequency wire lines, or microwave circuits?
A

The AN/UCC-l Telegraph Multiplex Terminal.

116
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the transmission with the multiplexed channels known as?
A

A tone package.

117
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What mode can the AN/UCC-1 terminal operate in?
A

Non-diversity, audio-frequency diversity, space diversity, or radio-frequency diversity mode.

118
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the total number of narrowband channels that can be obtained from a terminal?
A

16

119
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the process called when in the fleet broadcast multiplexing system, which consist of 16 channels, 2 channels normally carry the same intelligence?
A

Twinning.

120
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the method called where a digital input is fed to a TDM unit?
A

Time-division multiplexing (TDM).

121
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the three methods of operating communications circuits?
A

Duplex, simplex, and semi-duplex.

122
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How many types of duplex operations are there?
A

Two.

123
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of duplex operation refers to a communications system or equipment capable of transmitting simultaneously in two directions?
A

Full duplex (FDX).

124
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a method of operation that provides a single channel or frequency on which information can be exchanged?
A

Simplex.

125
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the reasons a ship would use the simplex method?
A

For ships that do not have sufficient equipment for duplex operation; in some cases, a simplex circuit can be established when equipment casualties occur.

126
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is done when a ship using a simplex system calls up the shore station to pass message traffic and cannot raise the shore station after the second attempt?
A

Equipment is checked to ensure proper operation.

127
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What method permits long-range, uninterrupted communications during periods of hazardous electromagnetic radiation (HERO)?
A

UHF/HF relay.

128
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the secure voice worldwide voice network?
A

To provide real-time voice communications between forces afloat and operational commanders ashore, using either HF or satellite connectivity.

129
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the total number of FLTCINC?s that control the network of secure voice area control stations?
A

Three.

130
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What must units desiring to enter the net on a temporary basis specify?
A

The length of time and purpose for entering the net.

131
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What station is responsible for completing all calls originating from senior commands to all commands, ships, or aircraft within the specific FLTCINC?s net?
A

Area net control stations (NECOS?s).

132
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are full-period terminations?
A

Dedicated circuits that provide communications between shore stations and afloat commands.

133
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When can afloat commands and individual units request full-period termination?
A

During special operations, deployments, intensive training periods, or exercises when primary ship- shore circuits will not suffice.

134
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When should commands request full-period terminations?
A

Only when traffic volume exceeds speed and capability of ship-shore circuits and when operational sensitivity requires circuit discreetness or effective command and control necessitates dedicated circuits.

135
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Ships having a need for a full-period termination, either for training or operational requirements, must submit a termination request to the COMMAREA master station in 1135. what time frame prior to activation time?
A

At least 48 hours.

136
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What may necessitate a lead time of less than 48 hours?
A

Emergency commitments or a command directive.

137
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What publication gives details of required information that must be included in a termination request message?
A

NTP 4.

138
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What station will assign a shore station for a ship?s termination circuit?
A

The COMMAREA master station.

139
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What time frame prior to the scheduled termination can the shore station coordinate with the ship by telephone, local circuitry, or by primary ship-shore?
A

Two hours.

140
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of message must be sent to cancel the termination once the full-period termination period is secured?
A

COMMSHIFT.

141
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How many types of full-period terminations are there?
A

Six.

142
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. To ensure that circuit equipment is in peak operational condition, complete system back-to-back off-the-air tests must be completed within how many hours prior to termination activations?
A

24

143
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When checking equipment, what should you look for?
A

Power levels, scorch or burn marks, proper operation of interlocks, and cleanliness.

144
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When will COMMSPOT reports be submitted by all ships, including non-terminated units?
A

Any time unusual communication difficulties are encountered.

145
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What publication can you find rules and general instructions for preparing JINTACCS formatted COMMSPOT reports?
A

In the Joint Reporting System (General Purpose Reports), NWP 1-03, Supp-1 (formerly 10-1-13).

146
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of encrypted teleprinter nets do primary ship-shore circuits use?
A

FSK/PSK.

147
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What may be used to conduct ship-shore circuit operations?
A

Navy tactical UHF satellites or the HF/UHF spectrum.

148
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where are the frequencies for N CTAMS and NAVCOMTELSTAS that guard primary fleet ship-shore circuits listed?
A

CIBs.

149
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What does the use of over-the-air transfer (OTAT) and over-the-air rekey (OTAR) procedures allow a command to do?
A

Reduce the amount of paper keying material required and reduce the potential for compromise.

150
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What publication contains detailed OTAT/OTAR procedures?
A

NAG-16B.

151
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where was the use and verification of OTAT/OTAR procedures first used?
A

Operation Desert Shield/Storm.

152
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is distress message traffic best described?
A

All communications relating to the immediate assistance required by a mobile station in distress.

153
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Does distress traffic have priority over all other traffic?
A

Yes.

154
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. If the need for assistance outweighs security considerations, who may authorize the transmission of an unclassified distress message on one of the national or international distress frequencies?
A

The ship?s commanding officer.

155
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When a ship in distress is traveling in company with other ships, who will the ship in distress transmit the distress, message to?
A

The officer in tactical command (OTC).

156
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What frequency would you use if you are in a survival craft?
A

8364 kHz.

157
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What frequency is for international worldwide voice SAR use?
A

123.1 MHZ.

158
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What frequency is used for direction finding (DF)?
A

138.78 MHZ.

159
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What frequency is monitored by all U.S. Navy ASW aircraft assigned to a SAR mission?
A

172.5 MHZ.

160
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What frequency is joint/combined on-the-scene voice and DF frequency used throughout NATO?
A

282.8 MHZ.

161
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who is in control of the distress message traffic frequency during an emergency?
A

The station in distress.

162
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What frequency does a watch station normally listen to when equipment and manpower will allow?
A

Distress.

163
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. As a minimum, what should the status board indicate?
A

Systems/circuits that are active, tuned in, or in a standby status and all inoperative equipment.

164
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who must verify the accuracy of the information contained on the status board?
A

The watch supervisors.

165
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What factors are critical to the operation of communications systems?
A

Frequency accuracy, dc distortion, inter-modulation distortion (IMD), and distribution levels.

166
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is system degradation often caused by?
A

Many small contributing factors.

167
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the primary function of the quality monitoring program?
A

The direct measurement of signal quality characteristics.

168
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What system was designed to provide a means of monitoring and evaluating performance of any communications system used by forces afloat?
A

Quality monitoring system.

169
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the reason for the development of the satellite communication (SATCOM) system?
A

It satisfies many military communications requirements with reliable, high-capacity, secure, and cost- effective telecommunications.

170
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What facilities do satellites provide an alternative to?
A

Large fixed ground installations.

171
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What antenna is used with the AN/WSC-3 transceiver and is designed primarily for shipboard installation?
A

OE-82C/WSC-l(V).

172
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where is the OE-82C/WSC-1(V) antenna mounted?
A

On a pedestal.

173
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the receiving frequency hand of the OE-82C/WSC-1(V)?
A

248 to 272 MHZ.

174
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How many AS-2815/SSR-1 antennas does the AN/SRR-1 rec1eiver system consist of?
A

Four.

175
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What frequencies do the AN/SRR-1 antennas use to receive satellite fleet broadcasts?
A

240 to 315 MHZ.

176
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What band do the newer satellite systems use?
A

SHF

177
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the major advantage of the AN/SRR-1 receiver system?
A

They use a very small parabolic antenna measuring only 12 inches in diameter.

178
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where must a satellite antenna be pointed to communicate?
A

At the satellite.

179
Q

Pass and Advanced

1179.What is the antenna pointing guide?

A

A clear plastic overlay, which slides across a stationary map and indicates AZ and EL angles in degrees to the satellite.

180
Q

Pass and Advanced

1180.How are the values obtained from the antenna pointing guide useful to the operator?

A

It sets up the antenna control unit of a satellite system.

181
Q

Pass and Advanced

1181.What are the three types of communications satellites in use by the U.S. Navy today?

A

GAPFILLER, Fleet Satellite Communication (FLTSATCOM), and Leased Satellite (LEASAT).

182
Q

Pass and Advanced

1182.What orbit are the three satellites in?

A

Geosynchronous orbit.

183
Q

Pass and Advanced

1183.In 1976, three satellites were placed into orbit over the Atlantic, Pacific, and Indian oceans, what were they called?

A

MARISAT.

184
Q

Pass and Advanced

1184.What were the three channels for military’ use the MARISAT satellites had?

A

One wideband 500-kHz channel, and two narrowband 25-kHz channels.

185
Q

Pass and Advanced

1185.What name did the Navy give to the leased satellites assets to distinguish the special management and control functions for communications on the UHF channels?

A

GAPFILLER

186
Q

Pass and Advanced

1186.What was the intended purpose of the GAPFILLER satellite?

A

To fill the need for a continuing satellite communications capability in support of naval tactical operations until the Navy achieved a fully operable Fleet Satellite Communications (FLTSATCM) system.

187
Q

Pass and Advanced

1187.What GAPFILLER satellite is the only one still being used by the U.S. Navy?

A

The one over the Indian Ocean.

188
Q

Pass and Advanced

1188.Within the 500-kHz band, transponders provide how many individual 25-kHz low- and high-data-rate communications channels for 75 band ship-shore communications?

A

20

189
Q

Pass and Advanced

1189.What does the UHF receiver separate on the GAPFILLER satellite?

A

The receive band and the transmit band.

190
Q

Pass and Advanced

1190.What system will replace the GAPFILLER communications subsystem?

A

FLTSATCOM system.

191
Q

Pass and Advanced

1191.How many FLTSATCOM satellites are in service?

A

Four.

192
Q

Pass and Advanced

1192.What are the FLTSATCOM satellites longitudinal position?

A

100?W, 72.5?E, 23?W, and 172?E.

193
Q

Pass and Advanced

1193.What is the RF-channel capability of each FLTSATCOM satellite?

A

23

194
Q

Pass and Advanced

1194.What is channel 1 of the 25-kHz channel of the FLTSATCOM satellite used for?

A

Fleet broadcast.

195
Q

Pass and Advanced

1195.What is the position of the CONUS LEASAT (L-3)?

A

105?W.

196
Q

Pass and Advanced

1196.What is the position of the LANT LEASAT (L-1)?

A

15?W.

197
Q

Pass and Advanced

1197.What is the position of the 10 LEASAT (L-2)?

A

72.5?E.

198
Q

Pass and Advanced

1198.How many communications channels do each LEASAT provide?

A

13

199
Q

Pass and Advanced

1199.What is the frequency of one of the 7 UHF downlink channels used for the Fleet Satellite Broadcast?

A

24-kHz.

200
Q

Pass and Advanced

1200.What operation reinforced the requirement for and greatly accelerated the introduction of SHF SATCOM capability on aircraft carriers and amphibious flagships to satisfy minimum tactical command and control (C2), intelligence and war fighting communications requirements while improving Joint and NATO/Allied communications inoperability?

A

Operations Desert Shield/Desert Storm.

Advancment Study (In Rate) (13 decks)

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