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Advancment Study (In Rate) > Deck 12 > Flashcards

Deck 12 Flashcards

Get That MONEY!!!

1
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What does a destructive readout memory mean?
A

When data is read from memory, the stored data is extracted (removed) from memory and in the process the data is erased in the source. The work must be rewritten to the same storage location to restore it.

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2
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What does a non-destructive readout memory mean?
A

That the data is not destroyed in the reading process, meaning it can be read over and over again without being rewritten.

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3
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is an example of a destructive readout Read/Write memory?
A

A core memory.

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4
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is an example of a non-destructive readout Read/W rite memory?
A

A flip-Hop.

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5
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is volatile memory?
A

Memory that loses its contents when the power is lost or interrupted from the source. A semiconductor memory is an example of volatile memory.

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6
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a large disadvantage of semiconductor storage?
A

It is a volatile memory.

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7
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is nonvolatile memory?
A

Memory that does not lose its contents when power is lost. Core memory is an example of non-volatile memory.

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8
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Why is magnetic core storage considered nonvolatile?
A

Core storage stores data in the form of a magnetic field instead of an electric current such as in semiconductor storage.

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9
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is bubble memory?
A

A very thin crystal made of semiconductor material that contains molecules that act as tiny magnets.

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10
Q

Pass and Advanced

2209, Why is bubble memory considered nonvolatile?

A

Since the molecules act as magnets, their polarity can be reversed allowing the storage of 1s or 0s in the magnetic field. (If power is lost, the data remains)

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11
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is Read-Only Memory (ROM)?
A

Memory where permanently stored programs are placed by the manufacturer to perform routine tasks within the computer. (ROM cannot be changed by the user.)

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12
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is Random-Access Memory (RAM)?
A

The working memory of the computer. Data can be read (retrieved) from or written (stored) into RAM. (Data in RAM can be changed by the user.)

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13
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is Programmable Read-Only Memory (PROM)?
A

ROM memory that is not programmed by the manufacturer but programmed by the user with a special device before use. Once the user programs the PROM it cannot be changed.

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14
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory (EPROM)?
A

ROM memory that is not programmed by the manufacturer but programmed by the user with a special device before use. EPROMS can be erased by the user and reprogrammed with the latest release of a new program.

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15
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How are EPROMS erased?
A

By a burst of ultra-violet light. For this reason EPROMS should have a protective covering over the lens to avoid inadvertent corruption of erasure of the stored program.

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16
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the three levels of storage used in computers?
A

Internal, secondary and external storage.

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17
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is internal storage?
A

Storage within the arithmetic unit (usually has limited capacity but is very fast).

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18
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is secondary (auxiliary) storage?
A

Memory that is part of the computer system but is outside the main body of the CPU where programs and data are stored for future use.

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19
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Why is secondary storage considered nonvolatile?
A

retain data.

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20
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the three most commonly used secondary storage devices?
A

Magnetic disks, tapes, and drums.

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21
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is external storage?
A

Punched cards and tapes, and magnetic tapes stored in files or cabinets. (Externally stored information is physically Secondary storage devices use magnetic fields instead of electrical current to store data so they don?t rely on power to separate from the computer.)

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22
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is data stored on a disk?
A

In a number of invisible concentric circles called tracks.

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23
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What precedes each record on a disk?
A

A disk address.

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24
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is the storage capacity of a disk determined?
A

By the bits per inch of track and the tracks per inch of surface.

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25
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How does a magnetic drum differ from a magnetic disk?
A

Drum tracks are assigned to channels that form a circular band around the drum where data is stored.

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26
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are tracks grouped on each channel of a magnetic drum called?
A

Sectors.

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27
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What Navy instruction directs that all symbols used in flowcharts be standardized?
A

SECNAVINST 5233.1 series, DON Automated Data Systems Documentation Standards.

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28
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. A What is the fundamental purpose of flowcharting (flow diagramming) used in the development process of a computer program?
A

To pictorially represent a step-by step procedural solution to a problem before actually writing the program computer instructions.

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29
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the 6 fundamental symbols used in flowcharts?
A

1) Processing, 2) decision, 3) input/output, 4) terminal, 5) flow lines, and 6) connector symbols. Each symbol corresponds to one of the functions of a computer and specifies the instn1ction(s) to be performed by the computer.

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30
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the most common graphic symbols used in flowcharts?
A

Plus/add (+)’, minus/subtract (-); multiply (*); and divide (/).

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31
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the two parts of the predicate contained within a programming instruction?
A

Command, or operation (it answers the question ?what?? and tells the computer what operation it is to perform such as read, print, and input), and the operand (it names the object of the operation and answers the question ?where??.)

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32
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What information may the operand (part 2 of the predicate) contain within a programming instruction?
A

The location of data to be processed, the location where results of processed data can be stored, and the location where the next instruction to be executed is found.

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33
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the five categories of computer instructions?
A

Input/Output (I/O), data movement, arithmetic, logic, and transfer of control.

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34
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the function of Input/Output instructions?
A

To communicate between I/0 devices and the central processor.

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35
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the function of data movement instructions?
A

For copying data from one storage location to another and for rearranging and changing of data elements in some prescribed manner.

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36
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What functions are arithmetic instructions used for?
A

Addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division of numbers.

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37
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What computer instruction is common in all computers?
A

Arithmetic.

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38
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What do logic instructions allow for?
A

Comparison between variables, or between variables and constants.

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39
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the two types of transfer and control instructions?
A

Conditional and unconditional.

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40
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the function of conditional transfer and control instructions?
A

To branch or change the sequence of program control, depending on the outcome of the comparison. If the output of the comparison is true, control is transferred to a specific statement number, if it proves false, processing continues sequentially through the program.

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41
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the function of unconditional transfer and control instructions?
A

To change the sequence of program control to a specified program statement regardless of any condition.

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42
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the five general steps that a computer takes when executing a program?
A

Locales parameters and data necessary for the problem; transfers the parameters and data to the point of manipulation; performs manipulation according to certain rules of logic; stores results of manipulation in specific locations; and provides user with a useful output.

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43
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are subroutines?
A

A group of routinely used instructions that are grouped together so that the main program can locate and initiate these instructions by the use of a few commands.

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44
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are executive routines?
A

The instructions that control access to the various subroutines. They are a part of the main program.

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45
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are addressable registers?
A

Any register whose contents can be accessed and altered under program control.

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46
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is housekeeping?
A

Steps taken by a programmer to preserve the contents of addressable registers, unless they have no value.

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47
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of jump and return jump instructions?
A

To facilitate construction of executive routines and provide the computer with the ability to leave the sequential execution of the main program or executive routine, execute any subroutine, and then return to the main program.

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48
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is program manipulation?
A

The sequence of procedures and events necessary to load and verify a computer program from initial start up through operation.

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49
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the three program initialization sequences that all computers use?
A

System Initialization (SI), Program Initialization (PI), Operator Initialization (OI).

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50
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is System Initialization?
A

The step-by-step procedure used to power on and cheek equipment, peripherals, and necessary-devices before the actual program instructions/data is transferred into the computer.

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51
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is Program Initialization?
A

A step-by-step procedure used to initialize, start, set, preset, or activate some conditions to transfer the program instructions/data from its stored medium into the computer.

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52
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is Operational Initialization?
A

A step-by-step procedure used to start, run, or manipulate data to produce some type of output or response through the computer system and the sequence of events that allow continuous input, output, and manipulation of data.

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53
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When are Power Interrupts (PI) generated in a computer?
A

When the source of power falls below specifications and then returns to normal; when source power is lost; and when the computer set or cabinet is shut off.

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54
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When is an automatic Master Clear (MC) generated in a computer?
A

At a specific period after a PI occurs.

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55
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the (MC) signal?
A

It is used for computer initialization after power has been applied. It is sent to all parts of the computer and will result in master clearing the CPU and I/O sections.

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56
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Stop signal?
A

To prevent any new memory references so memory data will not be lost should logic power be lost faster than a normal turn-off sequence (PI or MC) can occur. Generated when logic power goes out of tolerance and occurs whether or not a Pl signal is present.

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57
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of a maintenance program?
A

To provide a thorough and rapid method for the detection of failures in a specific portion of a computer.

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58
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the three main classes of maintenance programs?
A

Reliability, Diagnostic, and Utility programs.

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59
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Reliability and Diagnostic maintenance program?
A

To detect the existence of errors by checking as many computer circuits as possible.

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60
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a Compiler?
A

A program that takes certain commands and then writes, in a form the machine understands, the instructions necessary for a computer to execute these commands.

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61
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the primary advantage to using a Compiler for assembly of a computer program?
A

Its error diagnostic features which detect certain types of mistakes in the program,

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62
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are bugs?
A

Errors caused by faulty logic and coding mistakes within a computer program.

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63
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the most common bugs found in computer programming?
A

Mistakes in coding punctuation, incorrect operation codes, transposed characters, keying errors and failure to provide a sequence of instructions (a program path) needed to process certain conditions.

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64
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of APL contains the equipments known LSSC but does not contain repair parts or repair part allowances?
A

A ?Bald APL”.

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65
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the GDAPL?
A

A bank of General Distribution APLs on CD Rom. It contains over 300,000 APLS and 8000 AELs consisting of FLSIP, MOD-FLSIP, and Conventional versions of APLS.

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66
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Master Repairable Item List (MRIL)?
A

It lists Navy-managed repairable items and provides guidelines for turn-in of repairable material.

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67
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What code on an APL might indicate that a part should not be replaced individually, and that the next higher assembly should be replaced?
A

The Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability (SM&R) Code.

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68
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What two digit code is used to supplement an NSN to provide visibility to designated items to ensure their technical integrity is maintained?
A

The Special Material Identification Code (SMIC).

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69
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Which Operational Report are annual updates to Mission Criticality Codes (MCC) derived from?
A

Casualty Reports (CASREPS).

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70
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is the COSAL/COSBAL both a technical document and a supply document?
A

In that it provides nomenclature, operating characteristics, specifications, parts list, and other technical data pertaining to all installed equipment and machinery. It also provides nomenclature and characteristics of the equipage and tools required to operate and maintain the unit and its equipment.

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71
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the two primary purposes for the COSAL/COSBAL?
A

To identify repair parts (storeroom items) and to determine operating space allowances for equipage.

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72
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When will certain aviation components such as Aviation Supply Offices (ASOS) be included in the COSAL?
A

When specifically designated by higher authority.

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73
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What directive contains specific instructions for using the COSAL?
A

SPCCIN ST 4441.170 series, COSAL Use and Maintenance Manual.

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74
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the three Parts of a COSAL publication?
A

Part I contains indexes, Part II contains associated APLs and AELS, and Part I1] contains allowances and cross- reference data.

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75
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is contained in COSAL Part I - Summary?
A

The Summary of Effective Allowance Parts/Equipage Lists (SOEAPL), which is a numerical listing of all APLs and AELs used to determine how many of each part is listed on the Stock Number Sequence List (SNSL).

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76
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is contained in Part I - COSAL Index?
A

An index that identities the APLS and AELs associated with equipment installed on the ship.

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77
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What documents contain the bulk of information needed to repair an item covered by the COSAL?
A

The appropriate APL or AEL.

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78
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the proper way to identify the appropriate APL or AEL?
A

You must look up either the nomenclature of the equipment in Section A of the COSAL or the use that equipment in Section B.

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79
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is an Allowance Parts List (APL)?
A

A technical document that lists the repair parts authorized to be kept on board a ship for a particular piece of equipment.

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80
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How are APLs listed in Part II of the COSAL?
A

Numerical sequence by identification number.

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81
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. In what format is Part II Section B of the COSAL for Circuit Symbol Data provided?
A

On microfiche with the COSAL.

82
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Allowance Equipage List (AEL)?
A

A technical and supply document prepared for various categories of equipage associated with mechanical, electrical, electronic, and ordnance systems.

83
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is contained in COSAL Part III, Section F - Forms and Publications?
A

The various forms and publications the ship needs to conduct normal business and provides information on how to obtain them.

84
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What chapter of the COSAL Use and Maintenance Manual provides instructions for using the COSAL?
A

Chapter 4.

85
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What should be verified anytime you use the COSAL?
A

Verify you are using the latest issue.

86
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the five methods for entering the COSAL?
A

1) By the name of the equipment/component or equipage, use Part 1, Section A of Index; 2) By the shipboard service application, location, or end use of the equipment/component or equipage, use Part I, Section B of the Index); 3) By the circuit symbol number (CSN) of the part, use Part Il, Section B (microfiche only) to cross-reference the CSN to the NIIN/PNICN/TNICN/FSCM/REF NO. Then use Part II, Section A to cross-reference the above number to the NSN/PNICN/TNICN); 4) By the NIIN/part number, use Part III, Section A or B); 5) By an alternate part number, use Part III, Section D to cross reference alternate numbers to a NIIN/PNICN/TNICN).

87
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who controls the procurement of materials and services throughout the Navy?
A

The Navy Supply Systems Command (N AVSUPSYSCOM).

88
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who has the primary responsibility for managing assigned groups or categories of items of supply in the Navy?
A

Inventory managers (systems command, project managers, bureaus, offices including Military Sealift Command (MSC), and Inventory Control Points (ICPS) under the command of NAVSUPSYSCOM.

89
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the role of Inventory Control Points (ICPs)?
A

They requisition materials at stock points, maintain inventory control through an extensive stock reporting system, and provide technical assistance and cataloging services to the supply system and its customers.

90
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are stock points?
A

Large facilities, such as supply centers and depots, that stock parts and assemblies for shipment to requesting commands.

91
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What supply activities are command organizations that furnish supply support to fleet units and shore activities?
A

Federal Industrial Supply Centers (FISCs).

92
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Mobile Logistics Support Force (MLSF)?
A

To release deployed fleet units from direct dependence on shore bases for supply support.

93
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. In what publication are the materials listed that are carried by the MLSF ships?
A

P4990-P (Pacific), Consolidated Afloat Requisitioning Guide Overseas (CARGO), and NAVSUP P4998-A (Atlantic).

94
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What supply items are controlled by the General Services Administration (GSA)?
A

Those common to both military and civilian worlds.

95
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What supply items are controlled by the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)?
A

Items that are common to all the military services but not to the civilian world.

96
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is the Navy supply system an integrated system?
A

In that it allows materials to be obtained from more than one point in the system.

97
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What action is taken by FISC when, after screening its stocks, it determines that the requested material isn?t carried?
A

It refers the requisition to the Defense Electronics Supply Center (DESC), Dayton (the cognizant inventory manager).

98
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What document drives the operational and supply support for a ship or shorebased command?
A

The Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List (COSAL) for ships or the Coordinated Shorebased Allowance List (COSBAL) for shore.

99
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Stock Number Sequence List (SNSL)?
A

A computerized printout of all parts carried onboard by NSN.

100
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is contained in the SNSL?
A

Four listings of all NSNS that apply to your unit.

101
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is identified in the General Use Consumables List (GUCL)?
A

Consumables used for general purposes in the routine maintenance and administration of a ship.

102
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who publishes the GUCL?
A

Fleet Material Support Office (FMSO).

103
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What units require the publishing of a GUCL?
A

Normally, new construction, major conversion, or reactivated units. It is not normally published for COSALS resulting from ship overhauls or maintenance actions.

104
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the two primary supply documents used by maintenance personnel?
A

NAVSUP Form 1250 and DD Form 1348.

105
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What form must be completed to requisition parts on non-automated ships?
A

NAVSUP Form 1250.

106
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What form must be completed to requisition parts on an automated ship?
A

DD Form 1348.

107
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the consumption document for all submarine forces, automated and non-automated?
A

NAVSUP Form 1250-1.

108
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What form is used by submarine tenders and bases as an invoice for material supplied to supported units of the submarine forces?
A

NAVSUP Form 1250.

109
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What two needs were the NAVSUP Forms 1250 and 1250-1 developed to meet?
A

To improve inventory control procedures, and to report consumption under the Maintenance Data System (MDS).

110
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What writing instrument must be used to prepare a NAVSUP Form 1250 or 1250-1?
A

Either a ball-point pen or typewriter. Never a pencil!

111
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Why should you NOT use a pencil to prepare a NAVSUP Form 1250 or 1250-1?
A

Because pencil marks can cause errors when the requisition is processed through mark-sensing equipment at shore activities.

112
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What symbol is used on the NAVSUP Form 1250 or 1250-1 to avoid confusion between numeral 0 and the letter O?
A

The communication symbol for zeros, which is the 0 with a slash through it from the upper right to the lower left.

113
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who normally prepares the NAVSUP Form 1250/1250-1, when a repair supply is needed?
A

The division or work center Repair Parts/Supply Petty Officer (RPPO).

114
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How do the DD Form 1348 and the NAVSUP Form 1250 compare?
A

They require the same information, but in different order.

115
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Master Repairable Item List (MRIL)?
A

A consolidation of many individual repair lists that have been developed to make it easier to identify and return Mandatory-Turn-In (MTR) items.

116
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How often is the MRIL published?
A

Monthly.

117
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the two basic parts of the MRIL?
A

Part I - Listing of Items and Part 2 - Shipping Addresses.

118
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What materials are NOT included in the MRIL?
A

Those assigned cognizance codes E, R, and V.

119
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Normally, what disposition is required of a failed item when receiving a replacement from supply?
A

It should be turned into supply as soon as possible, this way the failed item can enter the repair cycle and be made Ready For Issue (RFI) again without delay.

120
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the exception to turning in a failed item (Not Ready for Issue-NRFI) to supply?
A

When removing the part would violate the integrity of the equipment which may still be operable and needed to perform the ship?s mission, even under reduced capability. This may be authorized by an approved ?Remain in Place? chit locally prepared by the command until the replacement part is received. Check the COSAL/FEDLOG to see if the item is Remain in Place worthy and ensure the appropriate Advice Code is entered on the requisitioning document.

121
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the tool to permit the classification of all items of supply used by the federal government?
A

The Federal Supply Classification (FSC) system.

122
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the overriding identification requirement of the Federal Classification System?
A

That only one identification number be assigned for each item of material.

123
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who manages the Federal Classification System?
A

The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).

124
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is the FSC a commodity classification?
A

Items are separated into groups and classes that have been established for the numerous commodities with emphasis on supply items used by the military.

125
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the FSC commodity group for Communications Equipment?
A

58

126
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the FSC commodity group for Electrical and Electronic Equipment Components?
A

59

127
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the FSC commodity group for Electric Wire, Power, and Distribution Equipment?
A

61

128
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is included in the 13-digit National Stock Number (NSN)?
A

A four-digit FSC number and a nine-digit National Item Identification Number (NIIN).

129
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Afloat Shopping Guide (ASG)?
A

To help fleet personnel in identifying the NSN items that are most frequently requested by ships.

130
Q

Pass and Advanced

2329.How often is the ASG published and updated?

A

It is published every four years with annual updates and now available on CD Rom.

131
Q

Pass and Advanced

2330.When consulting the ASG, what should be used to verify current stock numbers, unit of issue, unit prices, and the like?

A

The Management List-Navy (ML-N). Management information can also be found in FEDLOG.

132
Q

Pass and Advanced

2331.How is consumable-type material identified in the General Services Administration (GSA) Catalog?

A

As cognizance symbol 9Q which is carried at stock points under Navy ownership for issue.

133
Q

Pass and Advanced

2332.What is contained in the MLN?

A

The basic management data for preparing requisitions such as price, cog and unit issue.

134
Q

Pass and Advanced

2333.What is the purpose of a Permanent Change?

A

They are issued to add system or equipment configuration variations, to change existing procedures or to add new procedures.

135
Q

Pass and Advanced

2334.How are most permanent changes to technical manuals identified?

A

By a vertical line, known as a change bar, extending along the margin of the changed material.

136
Q

Pass and Advanced

2335.What is the first step after receiving a Permanent Change?

A

Determine whether or not the change applies to the technical manual’ for your system/equipment configuration.

137
Q

Pass and Advanced

2336.What is the final step after receiving a Permanent Change?

A

Insert the Change Instruction Sheet immediately following the title page.

138
Q

Pass and Advanced

2337.When is a Revision to a technical manual issued?

A

Whenever it is necessary to change the majority of pages in an existing manual.

139
Q

Pass and Advanced

2338.What is required when you receive a technical manual revision?

A

Verify that the revised manual applies to your ship, system, or equipment configuration. Then you simply destroy any superseded edition according to your local disposal procedures.

140
Q

Pass and Advanced

2339.Why should two Petty Officers be assigned to maintain the division’s Technical Library?

A

An alternate should be assigned in the event the primary person is absent due to leave/liberty/school etc, to ensure that publications are maintained current and available at all times.

141
Q

Pass and Advanced

2340.What form will help the Tech Library Petty Officer to keep track of publications (issued, on hand, and so on)?

A

The (5”x7”) Publication Record and Inventory Card, OPNAV Form 5070/11.

142
Q

Pass and Advanced

2341.What directives should be consulted when setting up and maintaining a Tech Library?

A

NWP-0 and the IMA Library Guide (S8800-00-GIP-000).

143
Q

Pass and Advanced

2342.What publication distributed on CD RUM is issued quarterly that lists most Navy publications and forms?

A

NAVSUP P-2002, Navy Stock List of Publications and Forms, and is issued as part of the Navy Logistics Library (NLL) CD-ROM.

144
Q

Pass and Advanced

2343.What are the three major sections of the NAVSUP P-2002?

A

Forms, Publications, and Naval Technical Directives.

145
Q

Pass and Advanced

2344.How is the Enhanced Ships Technical Publications System (E-STEPS) published?

A

On microfiche.

146
Q

Pass and Advanced

2345.What is the purpose of the Publication Applicability List (PAL)?

A

It is an E-STEPS product that is used to determine the publication needs of the ship/shore station to which it applies.

147
Q

Pass and Advanced

2346.What publication contains a listing of instructions issued by Washington, DC headquarters organizations?

A

NAVPUBINST 5215.1, Department of the Navy Directives Issuance System Consolidated Subject Index.

148
Q

Pass and Advanced

2347.What is the Technical Manual Identification Numbering System (‘I`MINS) Application Guide and Index, M0000-00-IDX-000/TMINS?

A

The sole reference handbook for all component commands involved with the composition, construction, interpretation, or assignment of technical manual or associated technical document identification numbers.

149
Q

Pass and Advanced

2348.What are the three forms for receiving changes or updates to NAVSEA technical manuals?

A

An Advance Change Notice (ACN), Permanent Change, or Revision.

150
Q

Pass and Advanced

2349.What is the first course of action after receiving any tech manual changes or updates incident to an alteration?

A

Ensure that the Field Change, ORDALT, SI-IIPALT etc. is actually installed in your equipment.

151
Q

Pass and Advanced

2350.What is the Navy Consolidated Master Cross-Reference List (C-MCRL)?

A

A consolidated list of all NSN items of supply in the Federal Catalog System.

152
Q

Pass and Advanced

2351.Why should you exercise caution whenever you requisition items from the C-MCRL?

A

Because the C-MCRL includes many NSNs that aren’t listed in the ML-N.

153
Q

Pass and Advanced

2352.How often is the C-MCRL distributed to Navy users on microfiche by the Defense Logistics Services Center (DLSC)?

A

Semi-Annually.

154
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is contained in Part 1 of the C-MCRL?
A

A cross-reference between a reference number, all FSCM, and an NSN.

155
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is contained in Part 2 of the C-MCRL?
A

A cross-reference between an NSN and a reference number.

156
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the 3 basic methods to try when using catalogs to find a current NSN?
A

1) By an NSN which may or not be current; 2) By a reference number such as Manufacturer?s part number, Navy drawing number, or other reference number; 3) By nomenclature or a physical characteristics description.

157
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is provided by the Federal Supply Code for Manufacturers (FSCM)?
A

A five digit identification number for commercial firms, primarily manufacturers that supply material to the Department of Defense. Consists of 3 volumes.

158
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are two different methods of describing an item by other than the NSN?
A

1) By using a physical description of the item and perhaps a description of its electrical, chemical or other properties such as that provided in mail order catalogs. 2) By using a reference number such as the manufacturer’s part number.

159
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is each item of equipment marked that meets the criteria of Plant Property?
A

With an identification or registration number usually prefixed by the Unit Identification Code (UIC).

160
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where are Integrated Logistics Support (ILS) audits performed?
A

At commands that have had new equipment installations or modifications during an overhaul or availability period.

161
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When is an Anticipated Not Operationally Ready-Supply (ANORS) Requisition used?
A

When a casualty on mission critical equipment is anticipated due to a defective part that is already known to be Not-in- Stock (NIS) or Not-Carried onboard (NC). See Afloat Supply Procedures, NAVSUP P485 for details.

162
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of reports are used to report supply discrepancies?
A

A Report of Discrepancy (ROD) or Quality Deficiency Report (QDR).

163
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where are RODs and QDRs submitted?
A

RODS are submitted directly to the Navy stock point that issued and shipped the material; QDRS are submitted to the Fleet Material Support Office (FMSO).

164
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of supply report is used to report defective material that isn’t suitable for its intended use because of a deficiency in design, material, or procurement?
A

A QDR report.

165
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a Survey?
A

The procedure required by U.S. Navy Regulations when Naval property must be condemned due to damage, obsolescence, or deterioration; or acknowledged as nonexistent due to loss, theft, or total destruction. The survey is performed in accordance with NAVSUP P-485 on DD Form 200.

166
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is Command Assessment of Readiness and Training (CART)?
A

CART is a two phase process whereby each CO can assess the ship?s mission area proficiency, identify specific training strengths and deficiencies, and schedule (with ISIC approval) a tailored training program for the ship between deployments.

167
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is CART I?
A

A ship?s self-assessment of formal school training, team training, inspections/assists and material/equipment status. It is the beginning of the training cycle that usually begins near the middle of a deployment as part of the Mid-Cycle Assessment (MCA).

168
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is CART II?
A

A performance-based ship demonstration of unit proficiency in each mission area except amphibious, mine and salvage mission areas. It is normally 4 days in length and is conducted between 4 and 6 weeks after an overhaul or major maintenance availability. It is the beginning of the basic phase.

169
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the results of CART II used for?
A

To construct a unit training package for execution during the Tailored Ship?s Training Availabilities (TSTAs).

170
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is ATGs involvement during TSTA-I?
A

ATG will train the ship?s training teams (ITT, CSTT, ETT, DCTT, ATT, MTT and STT), conduct deckplate training as necessary, and work on basic warfare skills.

171
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of TSTA-II?
A

To refine skills and integrate watch teams into a single organization capable of coordinating their efforts for mission accomplishment. The primary thrust of TSTA-II is for ship?s training teams to train the ship under the guidance of ATG personnel.

172
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of TSTA-III?
A

To provide the CO and ATG trainers the opportunity to focus on building integrated training proficiency using the ship?s Integrated Training Team (ITT).

173
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the specific training for amphibious warfare, mine warfare, or salvage ships called that was formerly known as TSTA-IV?
A

Warfare Specialty Training.

174
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is FEP?
A

The Final Evaluation Period is a 3 to 4 day scenario driven evaluation of combat readiness, and marks the end of the basic phase. FEP exercises the crew?s ability to conduct multiple simultaneous combat missions and support functions and to survive complex casualty control situations under stressful conditions.

175
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How are the intermediate and advanced phases of the training cycle reinforced?
A

Through COMPTUEX (intermediate) and FLEETEX (advanced) exercises.

176
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. In accordance with the new Inter-Deployment Training Cycle (IDTC), what 5 previously required command inspections have been eliminated?
A

On-site Command Inspection, 3M Inspection, PQS Inspection, Intelligence Oversight Inspection, and the ADP Inspection.

177
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Afloat Training Group (ATG)?
A

ATG is the primary agent for coordinating all shipboard training and scheduling authority in the areas of combat systems, engineering, damage control, medical, seamanship, navigation, aviation, selected logistics, and administration.

178
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Unit Training Program?
A

To organize individual and team training to achieve the optimum level of training readiness more efficiently and effectively at each stage of the training cycle. It consists of both functional and administrative training.

179
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Long Range Training Plan (LRTP)?
A

A comprehensive list of training events (exercises, evolutions, courses of instruction, drills, GMT, lectures, seminars, inspections, and assist visits) which must be completed throughout the ship?s operational cycle. Each department must have a similar plan which lists events pertinent only to that department.

180
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Short Range Training Schedule (SRTS)?
A

A schedule derived from the LRTP and is to be prepared for the command and for each department. It should cover a period of about 3 months and include exercises, drills, and lectures.

181
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Planning Board for Training (PBFT)?
A

PBFT is the primary command organization for the implementation of unit training policy and coordination and scheduling of unit training programs. The board should meet weekly to plan the command weekly training schedule and evaluate ship?s training status.

182
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who does PBFT consist of?
A

PBFT is chaired by the XO and consists of Dept Heads, Training Officer, PQS Coordinator, Training Team Leaders, STO/ SERT Leader, Safety Officer, DCA, Senior Medical Dept Rep, Senior Enlisted Advisor, and others directed by the XO.

183
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Personnel Qualification Standards (PQS) program?
A

Accomplishment of PQS for assigned duties, watchstations, 3-M, and General Damage Control is the minimum acceptable level of individual training within the surfaces forces. Satisfactory progress is a mandatory requirement for getting the Commanding Officer?s recommendation for advancement.

184
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Combat Systems Training Team (CSTT)?
A

CSTT is responsible for training watch teams to operate in a multi-threat/multi-warfare environment ensuring all combat systems watch stations are properly manned. CSTT members will complete CSTT qualifications requirements supported by ship developed JQRs or appropriate PQS.

185
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What ratings provide the base for the Combat Systems Training Team (CSTT)?
A

CSTT members may be ET, CT, DS, IC, OS, RM, EW, SM, GM, FC, ST, and TM personnel; but might also have (MM, EM, EN, GSE, etc.) members assigned to ensure training encompasses all aspects of the combat system including support equipment.

186
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the relationship between CSTT and SERT?
A

The CSTT Coordinator is normally the System Test Officer (STO), and the STO is also the head of the SERT Team.

187
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the function of the Ship?s Electronic Readiness Team (SERT)?
A

The SERT provides the ship with the requisite integrated technical and operator expertise to maintain, troubleshoot, and monitor the combat systems and associated support systems effectively in order to maintain order and attain and sustain the highest degree of combat readiness and training.

188
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. While not a training team, per se, what is the SERTs role in support of combat systems training?
A

Through assessment of equipment readiness, maintenance management, testing, and test scheduling.

189
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who has the primary responsibility for the tactical training of naval forces provided to the Unified Commanders?
A

FLTCINCS.

190
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Shipboard Training Enhancement Program (STEP)?
A

A program that provides interactive courseware (ICW) distributed semi-annually by NETPMSA on CD-ROM. They include student testing to evaluate performance. STEP courses are equivalent to classroom instruction and satisfy course completion requirements which must be documented on Service Record Page 4s.

191
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What instruction manual establishes common training requirements and procedures for the accomplishment of Unit Training within the surfaces forces of the Atlantic and Pacific Fleets?
A

COMNAVSURFLANT/PAC 3502.2 series, Surface Forces Training Manual.

192
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How do Fleet Technical Support Centers (FTSCs) announce scheduled classes to all local units?
A

Usually by messages on a monthly or quarterly basis.

193
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How long must Division Officer Training Records be kept?
A

Until no longer useful for planning or progress review.

194
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What training records are useful in planning and tracking personnel?
A

Division Officer Personnel Record Form (NAVPERS 1070/6); PQS Progress Chart, and a Qualification and Advancement Plan.

195
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are FXPS?
A

Fleet Exercise Publications.

196
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where is the command’s copy of the CANTRAC normally maintained?
A

In the Educational Service Office (ESO), but may also be maintained by the Training Schools Officer and could be available on the LAN.

197
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the two primary methods of measuring class achievement?
A

Written tests and performance tests.

198
Q

Pass and Advanced

2397.What is a good way to keep your training presentation interesting if you see you are losing the interest of the class or of an individual?

A

Solicit participation by asking questions.

199
Q

Pass and Advanced

2398.What Navy directive discusses the quarterly training forecast, weekly schedules, and various personal and group training records that must be kept?

A

OPNAVINST 3120.32C, Standard Organization and Regulations Manual of the U.S. Navy.

200
Q

Pass and Advanced

2399.What publication lists all training manuals and correspondence courses available?

A

NAVEDTRA 12061, Catalog of Non-Resident Training Courses, which is available on CD-ROM.

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