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Advancment Study (In Rate) > Deck 11 > Flashcards

Deck 11 Flashcards

Get That MONEY!!!

1
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the UPDATE CASREP?
A

It contains information similar to that submitted in the Initial CASREP and is used to submit changes to previously submitted information.

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2
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are some of the requirements for when an UPDATE CASREPS must be submitted?
A

When there is a need to complete information reporting requirements or to revise previously submitted information; the casualty situation has changed (such as a new ETR, significant change in parts status, change in assistance requirements, etc); Additional malfunction are discovered in the same equipment; when all parts ordered to repair the equipment are received; and upon receipt of any significant repair parts or equipment.

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3
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose for submitting a CORRECT CASREP?
A

To report that the equipment which had been the subject of casualty reporting has been repaired and is back in an operational condition.

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4
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the only accepted way to correct a CASREP message that was sent with errors?
A

Submit an UPDATE CASREP.

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5
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When would a unit submit a CANCEL CASREP?
A

Upon commencement of an overhaul or other scheduled availability period when equipment which had been the subject of casualty reporting is scheduled to be repaired.

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6
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What essential information must be included in a CANCEL CASREP?
A

It must include the reason for cancellation.

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7
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What casualties must not be canceled during an overhaul and are to remain subject to normal follow-up casualty reporting procedures?
A

Outstanding casualties which will not be repaired during such an availability.

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8
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a Casualty Category?
A

A category associated with each reported equipment casualty to reflect the urgency or priority of the casualty in reference to degradation of the ship?s missions.

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9
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the definition of a Casualty Category 2?
A

A mission essential equipment deficiency causing a minor degradation in any primary mission, or a major degradation or total loss of a secondary mission.

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10
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the definition of a Casualty Category 3?
A

A mission essential equipment deficiency causing a major degradation, but not the loss of a primary mission.

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11
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. ‘What is the definition of a Casualty Category 4?
A

A mission essential equipment deficiency that is worse than a CAT 3, and causes the loss of at least one primary mission.

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12
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What casualty category is ALWAYS used to report casualties affecting a secondary mission?
A

CAT 2.

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13
Q

Pass and Advanced

2013, What is the relationship between the Casualty Category and the M-rating reported via SORTS for the mission affected by the casualty?

A

The Casualty Category should never be worse than the associated M-rating reported in SORTS.

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14
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the only approved way for submitting corrections to CASREPS?
A

Submit an UPDATE CASREP with the corrected information.

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15
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Where is the CASREP message serialized?
A

It is serialized in the MSGID set with numbers 1-999, and is usually derived from the Operations Department CASREP Log.

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16
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When is a new sequence of CASREP message serial numbers started with “1”?
A

After the unit has submitted CASREP message number 999.

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17
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the time requirement for submitting an INITIAL CASREP for a significant casualty which cannot be corrected within 48 hours?
A

The CASREP should be submitted as soon as possible, but not later than 24 hours after the occurrence of the casualty.

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18
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How do MINIMIZE conditions affect CASREP message transmissions?
A

MINIMIZE does not affect CASREP transmissions, CASREPS messages may still be transmitted.

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19
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What action should be taken if some of the required data isn’t available at the time of INITIAL CASREP submission?
A

Use your best estimate in the INITIAL CASREP and correct your estimate as soon as possible in an UPDATE CASREP.

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20
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What identification information on a CASREP is critical in assisting the development of trend and budget analysis?
A

The APL and EIC.

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21
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. In an INITIAL CASREP, why must you identify, to the appropriate level of detail, the status of the equipment, parts, and assistance requirements?
A

To allow operational and staff authorities to apply resources at the proper priority.

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22
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who is the Casualty Report (CASREP) designed to support for managing assigned forces?
A

The CNO and Fleet Commanders.

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23
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. In addition to the “action addressees” on the CASREP, what other commands receive a hard copy of the CASREP message?
A

The CNO, Fleet Commanders in Chief (FLTCINCS), and the Ship?s Parts Control Center (SPCC).

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24
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Date-Time Group (DTG) of the CASREP message?
A

The effective time (“as of time”) of the CASREP message transmission. Example: 312359ZDEC98 is the 31st of Dec @ 2359 in 1998. The time is usually expressed in Zulu time which is GMT.

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25
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What action is taken when a casualty results from inadequate general-purpose electronic test equipment (GPETE) or preventive maintenance (PMS)?
A

List the affected system and the subject of the INITIAL CASREP, and report GPETE or PMS as the cause in an AMPN (Amplification) data set.

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26
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. When would you use an ASSIST data set in an INITIAL CASREP?
A

To report whether or not you need outside assistance to repair all equipment casualty.

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27
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What must be included in an INITIAL CASREP when you need assistance or parts to repair a casualty?
A

You must report schedule information in the RMKS set for a full 30-day period, beginning on the earliest date that you can receive the assistance or pans.

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28
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. With what two exceptions, do you need to report in the UPDATE CASREP only previously unreported casualty information or information that has changed (or was reported in error)?
A

The CASUALTY and ESTIMATE sets.

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29
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is required if additional problems or malfunctions occur on the same item that was already reported in a CASREP?
A

These additional problems or malfunctions on the same item must be reported using an UPDATE CASREP and do not require the submission of a new INITIAL CASREP.

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30
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is an AMPN set used in an UPDATE CASREP to report the receipt of parts previously reported as being required to repair a casualty?
A

It must be used immediately following the ESTIMATE set.

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31
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What information must be included in the AMPN set when using a CASREP to report the correction of a casualty situation (CORRECT CASREP)?
A

The delay in receipt of parts expressed in hours; the number of man-hours expended to correct the casualty; the number of hours since the last failure; and the final parts status, including a list of all parts requests and dates received.

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32
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What must be included in a CANCEL CASREP if you cancel the CASREP because an equipment will be repaired during an availability?
A

You must identify the scheduled availability location and date during which a casualty is expected to be repaired in an AMPN set immediately following the CASUALTY set.

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33
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Who must be included as an information addressee on all CASREPs from Naval Air Stations and facilities?
A

The appropriate aviation type commander.

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34
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of equipment would a CASREP be appropriate for that affects the Quality of Life/Crew Support?
A

Laundry and galley equipment, ATMs, and INMARSAT.

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35
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is required if a casualty cannot be repaired within 24 hours of the ETR?
A

A CASREP UPDATE must be sent to Change the ETR.

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36
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Arc CASREPS required to be submitted for casualties to installed back-up or redundant systems?
A

Yes.

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37
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is used to mark the start of each field in a set?
A

A Field Marker, the slant symbol (/).

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38
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Explain the use of multiple slant symbols (/) within the free text of the REMARKS data set?
A

They may be used freely, but two consecutive slant symbols (//) may not be used since this indicates the end of the set.

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39
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What must he entered in a mandatory’ data field when the content is unknown?
A

They should always contain an item of information, but when it?s unknown, it should be filled with a hyphen(-).

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40
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a check-sum digit?
A

It is a single digit derived from the sum of all digits in a field to which the check-sum applies.

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41
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What fields require check-sum digits?
A

Only fields which contain latitudes, longitudes, courses and speeds.

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42
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How must the equipment used be expressed in the AMPN set when submitting a CASCOR?
A

As continuous-use, Intermittent-use, or Impulse.

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43
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is an example of a continuous-use and an intermittent-use system?
A

A search radar might be a continuous-use system, while a tire-control radar would be an intermittent-use system.

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44
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of Report is a Casualty Report?
A

It is an Operational Report.

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45
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a LAN?
A

A Local Area Network is a communications system designed to transmit and receive digital information between computers consisting of nodes interconnected by links.

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46
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are nodes and links?
A

Nodes are the hardware devices connected to the network such as PCs, printers, large capacity hard drives, etc; and Links are the communications media such as coax and fiber optic cables that connect the nodes.

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47
Q

Pass and Advanced

2047, What are the basic components of a LAN?

A

Cables, Network Interface Cards, Network Servers, peripherals, and work stations.

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48
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are some of the ?802” LAN standards the Navy is concerned with?
A

IEEE 802.3 Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD); IEEE 802.4 Token Bus; and IEEE 802.5 Token Ring.

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49
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a NIC card?
A

A Network Interface Card used to connect a PC to the LAN. It plugs into one of the expansion slots inside the PC and may have a coaxial or Fiber Optic cable connection depending on the type of LAN. Most NICs have their own built-in microprocessor designed to take care of network communications which relieves the PC?s main processor of this responsibility.

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50
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Describe the basic operation of a Fiber Optic system?
A

It consists of a transmitter (light source with a modulator or driver), a propagation medium (fiber optic cable), and a receiver (light detector and preamplifier).

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51
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are Network Servers?
A

A combination of hardware and software used to manage the shared resources of the network. It may be a PC or other computer designed to specifically act as a sewer and is able to control network traffic as well as the sharing of other resources such as application programs, disk space, data files, and printers such as Disk Servers, File Servers, and Print Servers.

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52
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a Disk Server?
A

A software routine installed on each computer in the network that allows each PC to access the shared hard drive as if it were a local drive. It also provides for some information sharing to allow multiple users to access the same information, but this caused data loss problems when 2 users were writing data to the same block at the same time. The development of the File Server solved all the problems with the early Disk Servers.

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53
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a File Server?
A

A dedicated PC or minicomputer that performs the processing of the network control software and the central processing and storage part of the application software and data files of the network. It has a hard disk with a very large storage capacity.

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54
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a Print Server?
A

A software routine that allows all the workstations on the LAN to use a single printer. It accepts requests for print jobs from network users and directs them to the printer.

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55
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are Workstations?
A

Another name for the PCs used on a network. They can be different brands and may each be configured differently. The less capable workstations use the storage and printing resources through the network, They can be used with the LAN or independently as a stand-alone PC.

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56
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the name for the 5 level, 7 layer architecture defined by the International Standards Organization (ISO)?
A

The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.

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57
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Hardware Level of the OSI reference model?
A

It contains the first 2 layers of the OSI reference model (Physical layer and Data-Link layer). These layers are concerned primarily with the actual hardware used in a network.

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58
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Transport Level of the OSI reference model?
A

Also known as the subnet, it defines software protocols necessary to exchange data on the network.

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59
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the 3 layers in the Transport Level of the OSI reference model?
A

The Network Layer, Transport Layer, and the Session Layer.

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60
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Presentation Level of the OSI reference model?
A

It consists of the Presentation layer which formats data to be presented to the application layer. It can be viewed as the translator for the network.

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61
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are some examples of syntax independence provided by the Presentation layer of the OSI reference model?
A

Encoding data in a standard way such as integers, floating point, ASCII, etc; Data compression; and Data encryption.

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62
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Application Level/Layer of the OSI reference model?
A

As the final level which consists of the application layer, it serves as the window for the application process to access the OSI environment. It represents the services that directly support users and application tasks.

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63
Q

Pass and Advanced

2063, What are some common protocols used in the Application Layer of the OSI reference model?

A

Network virtual terminals, File transfers, Remote tile access, Electronic mail, and Network management.

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64
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are some of the different types of LANS configurations or topologies available?
A

Linear Bus Network, STAR Network, and the RING Network.

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65
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Describe the basic topology of a Linear Bus Network?
A

It is like a data highway where all the components or nodes are connected to the same cable, and the far ends of the cable never meet. Each node checks the address attached to each message to see if it matches its own address, Bus topologies allow individual nodes to be taken out of service without disrupting service to the remaining nodes.

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66
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Describe the basic topology of a STAR Network?
A

One of the earliest types of LANS where each component is connected directly to the central computer or network server. Only one cable is required from the central computer to each PC?s network interface card to tie that workstation to the LAN .

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67
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Describe the basic topology of a RING Network?
A

All the components or nodes are connected to a main cable, and the cable forms a ring. This allows a node to send messages to another node on the ring but the message must be transmitted through each node until it reaches its destination.

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68
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the 2 principal access methods for a LAN?
A

Contention and Token passing.

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69
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is an EtherNet-LAN?
A

A method for computers and data systems to connect and share cabling (PCs and mainframes) by transferring serial I/O data in a specified packet format using baseband transmission at 10 megabits per second,

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70
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What type of cables do Standard EtherNet and ThinNet LANS use?
A

Coaxial cables.

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71
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are some of the Full-Featured Network Operating Systems?
A

EtherNet, Nove1l?s NetWare, 3Com?s 3+Share, IBM Token Ring Network, and Banyan?s Vines.

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72
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are Network Protocols?
A

A handshaking type discipline that defines how networks establish communications between elements, exchange information, and terminate communications. Two representative protocols in use are the Binary Synchronous Communications Protocol (Bisync) and the Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

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73
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the AN/USQ-144(V)2 ADNS?
A

The Automated Data Network System (ADNS) is a TAC-4 based system that provides Internet Protocol (IP) packet delivery to other ADNS equipped ships. It concentrates SI, Secret, and Unclass IP traffic into a single IP path.

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74
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How does ADNS makes it possible for users in one network to transmit data to an end user in another network either onboard, ashore or to another ship?
A

By using ?smart? routers and RF subnets, interconnections between the networks may be made without the users even needing to know the details of the interconnections.

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75
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are some of the RF subnets used with ADNS and the types of users and hosts they support?
A

RF Subnets can be but are not limited to UHF, E1-IF, and SHF. Examples of users and hosts tied to LANS that are physically connected to ADNS are SCI, GENSER, UNCLASS, TCP/IP networks, NIPRNET, SIPRNET, and JWICS.

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76
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the replacement satellites for GAPFILLER, FLTSAT and LEASAT?
A

UHF F/O (UFO) Follow-on satellite.

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77
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Officer in Tactical Command Information Exchange System (OTCIXS)?
A

To support communications required for Battle Group Over-the Horizon (OTH) command and control, and for tactical targeting, It provides selectable secure voice, teletype or computer-to-computer data communication capability via satellite relay between surface ships, nuclear submarines and antisubmarine warfare operation centers.

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78
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Tactical Digital Information Exchange System (TADIX-A)?
A

To provide control and coordination of broadcast of Over-the-Horizon (OTH) targeting information from Fleet Command Centers, Mission Planning Centers, Fleet Ocean Surveillance Centers, and Shore Station-to-Fleet Based Missile Systems, and Tactical Flag Command Centers.

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79
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the difference in operation between OTCIXS and TADIXS?
A

TADIXS performs in the same manner as OTCIXS except there is no teletype capability and it is wired for receive only.

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80
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What equipment does both OTCIXS and TADD(S use to interface with the UHF SATCOM system?
A

They both use dedicated ON-l43(V)6 Interconnecting Groups and TSEC/KG-84A crypto devices to interface with the UHF SATCOM system.

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81
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What system does TADIX A interface with to provide the primary link for Ocean Surveillance Data and Tomahawk Cruise Missile mission data exchange?
A

JOTS.

82
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the AN/USQ-119(V) NTCS-A JIVICIS equipment?
A

The Navy Tactical Command System - Afloat Joint Maritime Command Information System is an Automated Command, Control, and Communications Display and Decision System used for tactical situation assessment needs of Battle Group/Force Commanders, Subordinate Warfare Commanders, Ship CO?s, and shore command centers.

83
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What other systems does JMCIS interface with?
A

It has digital interfaces with J OTS, OTCIXS, TADIX, Link-1 l, Link-14, and 2 FBCST channels and processes tactical information received from these sources and automatically correlates this data with its existing tactical database.

84
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the AN/SYQ-7A NAVMACS I1?
A

The Naval Modular Automated Communication System provides reliable automated message processing while maintaining security protection & timely message delivery. It automatically receives, processes, stores, distributes and transmits messages and is capable of handling up to (14) FBCST channels and can access DSN with a STU-III via SHF if installed.

85
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Describe the basic operation of NAVMACS II?
A

Messages are received at the NAVMACS Communications Controller (NCC) and passed via an EtherNet ThinNet LAN to the NAVMACS Main CPUs which automatically processes and distributes these messages to File Server/Workstations using the EtherNet ThinNet LAN. From the File Server/Workstations, messages are passed to other shipboard LANs for further dissemination.

86
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How many total channels can NAVMACS II handle and at what maximum data speed rate?
A

The NAVMACS Communications Controller (NCC) front-end processor has 16 channels, each capable of 9600 baud.

87
Q

Pass and Advanced

2086 phantom. What is provided by the Fleet Satellite Communications (FLTSATCOM) system?

A

Satellite communication links between designated mobile units and shore sites.

88
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the latitude range coverage for the FLTSATCOM system?
A

Latitudes between 70? N and 70? S.

89
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What system represents a composite of information exchange subsystems that use the satellites as a relay for communications?
A

FLTSATCOM.

90
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Fleet Satellite Broadcast (FBCST) subsystem?
A

An expansion of Fleet Broadcast transmissions that historically have been the central communications medium for operating naval units.

91
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What installations combine to form a communications network that is used for transmission of general service message traffic between designated ships and shore installations?
A

CUDIXS (Common User Digital Information Exchange Subsystem) and NAVMACS (Naval Modular Automated Communication Subsystem).

92
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What subsystem complements the communications between SSBN and SSN submarines and shore terminals?
A

SSIXS (Submarine Satellite Information Exchange Subsystem).

93
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Why was the Antisubmarine Warfare Information Exchange Subsystem (ASWIXS) designed?
A

As a communications link for USW operations.

94
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Tactical Intelligence (TACINTEL) subsystem?
A

A subsystem specifically’ designed for Special Intelligence (S1) communications.

95
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Teletypewriter Subsystem (ORESTES)?
A

An expansion of the existing teletypewriter transmission networks.

96
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the LEASAT Telemetry’ Tracking and Command subsystem?
A

A joint operation between the US Navy and contractors for controlling LEASAT satellites.

97
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA) subsystem?
A

Designed to multiplex several subsystems, or users, on one satellite channel. This has the effect of allowing more satellite circuits to use each UHF satellite channel.

98
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the two parts of each FLTSATCOM installation?
A

Equipment used for collecting and controlling the transmitted or received communications, and the RF terminal that’s used by the subsystem.

99
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the Fleet Broadcast?
A

It is the primary administrative link to forces afloat. It carries GENSER traffic at 75 bd data rates and is serviced by Fleet Satellite Communications (FLTSATCOM) and HF/LF facilities.

100
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the transmission translation at the Fleet Satellite Broadcast subsystem satellite, for transmission on the down link to the subscriber?
A

From SHF to UHF.

101
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How many channels of covered message traffic are provided by the Fleet Satellite Broadcast subsystem?
A

Fifteen.

102
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is fleet weather data (which is also transmitted on Fleet Broadcast) input to the transmission from the Naval Oceanographic Center?
A

By teletype.

103
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What format is used in Streamliner?
A

The same format as general service message traffic except it’s designated for Special intelligence messages.

104
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What two frequency bands are available for Fleet Broadcast transmission?
A

SHF and UHF.

105
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the two major users of FLTSATCOM?
A

Common User Digital Information Exchange Subsystem (CUDIXS) and Naval Modular Automated Communications Subsystem (NAVMACS).

106
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are the two types of CUDIXS subscribers?
A

A Primary Subscriber who can receive narrative message traffic from the NCS and a Special Subscriber that can send or receive narrative message traffic to or from, the NCS.

107
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are “order wire” messages?
A

A communications term used for operator-operator teletype communications.

108
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What docs the Secure Voice subsystem enable via satellite relay?
A

Transmission of ship-to-ship, ship-to-shore, and shore-to-ship voice communications.

109
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How does the NAVMACS message traffic separate incoming broadcast message traffic addressed to the ship for which it is guarding?
A

The system compares every addressee on each incoming first-run message against entries in its Command Guard List (CGL), which contains those addresses for which the ship is guarding. When the system finds one or more matches between addresses on the first-run message and the entries of the CGL, the message is printed completely on a line printer.

110
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Why was the UHF Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA) subsystem developed?
A

To multiplex several baseband subsystems, or users, onto one 25-kHz satellite channel.

111
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is required of each satellite communication subsystem without UHF DAMA?
A

A separate satellite channel.

112
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the transmission rate on the satellite link available with DAMA?
A

2,400, 9,600, 19,200, or 32,000 Symbols Per Second (SPS).

113
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. Why are the base-band I/0 rates independent of the satellite link characteristics?
A

For operation with DAMA.

114
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the length of the DAMA multiplexed data stream frame?
A

Each frame is 1.386 seconds, subdivided into time slots.

115
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are some of the different communications satellites that have been used by the Navy?
A

Gapfiller, FLTSATCOM, LEASAT, and UHF F/O (UFO).

116
Q

Pass and Advanced

2115.Which antiquated satellite used by the Navy has three UHF channels for military use (one wide-band 500 khz channel and two narrow-band 25 khz channels)?

A

Gapfiller.

117
Q

Pass and Advanced

2116.Which satellite used by the Navy has two major parts: a payload module including antennas, and a spacecraft module with a solar array?

A

FLTSATCOM

118
Q

Pass and Advanced

2117.Which satellite used by the Navy replaces the Gapfiller satellites when they reach the end of their operational life and orbit?

A

LEASAT

119
Q

Pass and Advanced

2118.How many satellite channels are available for use on LEASAT satellites?

A

Seven 25-kHz, one 500-kHz wide-band, and five 5-kHz channels.

120
Q

Pass and Advanced

2119.Which satellite system used by the Navy uses a SHF uplink with a UHF downlink?

A

LEASAT

121
Q

Pass and Advanced

2120.Since there is no specific list of equipments that constitutes a SAS installation, what dictates a ship’s equipment quantities?

A

The communications requirements of individual ships and ship classes.

122
Q

Pass and Advanced

2121.What SAS unit is the primary interface switch between the remote lines and the crypto or plain subsystems?

A

SAS, SA-2112(V). Commonly called the Coke? machine.

123
Q

Pass and Advanced

2122.What is the equivalent of SAS for the black side?

A

Black Analog Switch (BAS), SA-2112A(V).

124
Q

Pass and Advanced

2123.What is the equivalent of SAS for TTY crypto patching?

A

Red Digital Switch (RDS), SA-2112B(V).

125
Q

Pass and Advanced

2124.What are the five crypto or plain subsystems used with the SAS?

A

NESTOR, VINSON, PARKHILL, ANDVT, and PLAIN ONLY.

126
Q

Pass and Advanced

2125.What ancillary exterior communications equipment isn’t unique to the SAS?

A

Transmitter and Receiver Transfer Switchboards.

127
Q

Pass and Advanced

2126.Why are low-level TTY keying signals replacing the higher level signals?

A

It is safer, generates less heat, and makes unauthorized detection of electromagnetic signals more difficult (TEMPEST).

128
Q

Pass and Advanced

2127.What directives contain information on low-level TTY systems?

A

Equipment technical manuals, COMNAVTELCOMINST C3796.l and MIL-STD-1680 (TEMPEST information).

129
Q

Pass and Advanced

2128.What is ASCII?

A

The American Standard Code for Information Interchange. It is a 7 digit binary representation of alphanumeric characters.

130
Q

Pass and Advanced

2129.What instruction establishes documentation standards to ensure completeness and uniformity for computer system information between commands and between civilian and Navy organizations?

A

SECNAVINST 5233.1 series.

131
Q

Pass and Advanced

2130.What is a computer?

A

Any device capable of accepting information, applying mathematical and/or logical operations, and obtaining useful results from these operations.

132
Q

Pass and Advanced

2131.What are the 5 basic functions of a computer?

A

To gather, process, store, disseminate, and display data.

133
Q

Pass and Advanced

2132.What are the 3 general category types of computers?

A

Mainframe computers, minicomputers, and microcomputers.

134
Q

Pass and Advanced

2133.Name some examples of mainframe computers still used by the Navy?

A

The AN/UYK-7(V) and the AN/UYK-43(V).

135
Q

Pass and Advanced

2134.Name an example of a common shipboard system that uses minicomputers?

A

The Shipboard Non-tactical ADP Program (SNAP I, II, or III).

136
Q

Pass and Advanced

2135.What type of computers are the Personal Computers (PC?s) used with NIPS and JOTS?

A

Microcomputers.

137
Q

Pass and Advanced

2136.What are the 3 basic types of data systems in the Navy that rely on the use of one or more computers?

A

Tactical, Tactical Support, and Non-tactical.

138
Q

Pass and Advanced

2137.Name some examples of Tactical and Tactical Support Data Systems?

A

CDS/NTDS, ITAWDS, ASWOC/HLT, FHLT, CV-ASWM, NIPS, and TFCC.

139
Q

Pass and Advanced

2138.Name some examples of Non-Tactical Data Systems?

A

SNAP I, II, and III, and PC desktop computers.

140
Q

Pass and Advanced

2139.What are the 3 major hardware equipment groups of CDS/NTDS used in a Tactical system?

A

The Data Processing Group, Data Display Group, and the Data Communications Group, which are controlled by a mainframe computer.

141
Q

Pass and Advanced

2140.Name some examples of equipment in the Data Processing Group?

A

Computers (mainframe, mini, micro), Magnetic Tape Units, Disk Storage Units, Printers, and Plotters.

142
Q

Pass and Advanced

2141.Name some examples of equipment in the Data Display Group?

A

Display Consoles, Radar Azimuth Converters, Distribution Switchboards, Direct View Consoles, and Large Screen Displays.

143
Q

Pass and Advanced

2142.Name some examples of equipment in the Data Communications Group?

A

Modems, Converters, Multiplexers, and Communications Interfaces.

144
Q

Pass and Advanced

2143.What is a mechanical or analog computer?

A

A device used for computation of mathematical problems using components such as integrators, sliding racks, cams, gears, springs, and drive shafts.

145
Q

Pass and Advanced

2144.What is the primary purpose for using analog computers in the Navy?

A

Gun (Weapon) Fire Control systems.

146
Q

Pass and Advanced

2145.When is an analog computer best?

A

When continually varying solutions are needed for problems whose physical factors are continuously varying.

147
Q

Pass and Advanced

2146.What are some common functions of analog computers?

A

To measure continuous electrical or physical factors such as current, voltage, flow, temperature, length, pressure, velocity, direction, and range.

148
Q

Pass and Advanced

2147.How do electro-mechanical computers differ from mechanical computers?

A

They use electrical components in addition to mechanical components to increase the accuracy and to perform some of the calculations.

149
Q

Pass and Advanced

2148.What components perform calculations in electro-mechanical computers?

A

Synchros, servos, resolvers, amplifiers, servo amplifiers, summing networks, potentiometers, and linear potentiometers.

150
Q

Pass and Advanced

2149.How does an electrical computer differ from an electro-mechanical computer?

A

Only electrical components and inputs are used (no moving parts).

151
Q

Pass and Advanced

2150.What components make up a digital computer?

A

Amplifiers, summing networks, differentiation, and integrating circuits.

152
Q

Pass and Advanced

2151.How is the accuracy of an analog computer restricted?

A

By the accuracy with which physical quantities can be sensed and displayed.

153
Q

Pass and Advanced

2152.What factor governs the accuracy of a digital computer?

A

The number of significant figures carried in its computations.

154
Q

Pass and Advanced

2153.What determines the number of significant figures (digits) carried in the computations within a digital computer?

A

The design of the computer and its processing unit.

155
Q

Pass and Advanced

2154.What does each generation of digital computer systems indicate?

A

Significant change in computer design.

156
Q

Pass and Advanced

2155.How was processing speed and reliability increased in second generation digital computers?

A

By the use of small, long lasting transistors.

157
Q

Pass and Advanced

2156.How was the storage capacity greatly increased in second generation digital computers?

A

By the use of magnetic disk storage and the use of a core for main storage.

158
Q

Pass and Advanced

2157.What kind of computer languages could be used in second generation digital computers?

A

Symbolic machine languages or assembly languages.

159
Q

Pass and Advanced

2158.What fourth generation digital computer technology has enabled computers to become lower in cost and smaller in size?

A

Large Scale Integration (LSI) and Very Large Scale Integration (VLSI). Thousands of circuits may be placed on a silicon wafer only a fraction of an inch in size.

160
Q

Pass and Advanced

2159.What two categories are components and tools of a computer system grouped into?

A

Hardware and software.

161
Q

Pass and Advanced

2160.What components make up the hardware of a digital computer?

A

Mechanical, electrical, electronic, and magnetic devices within the computer and all related peripheral devices such as printers, magnetic tape units, and magnetic disk drive units.

162
Q

Pass and Advanced

2161.How can an analog synchro angular measurement be transmitted to digital equipment?

A

By converting it to a digital format such as Binary Angular Measurement (BAM) or BCD.

163
Q

Pass and Advanced

2162.What is the purpose of BAM?

A

BAMs are standardized binary words used to transfer angular measurements between tactical data system equipments and are specifically designed to indicate up to 360? of angular values in binary form in steps or increments. Example: A 12 digit BAM word will indicate 0? or 360? when all zeros to 359.902? when all ones in .088? steps.

164
Q

Pass and Advanced

2163.What 2 methods are used to convert synchro signals to digital (BAM) words?

A

The Sector and Octant methods.

165
Q

Pass and Advanced

2164.What do the smaller circuits in third generation digital computers provide?

A

Faster internal processing speeds.

166
Q

Pass and Advanced

2165.What results are gained by faster internal processing speeds in third generation digital computers?

A

Faster execution of computer software instructions.

167
Q

Pass and Advanced

2166.What are the three functional units of a computer?

A

Input, Central Processing Unit (CPU), and the Output.

168
Q

Pass and Advanced

2167.What is considered to be the brain of a computer?

A

The CPU.

169
Q

Pass and Advanced

2168.What determines the speed of a digital computer?

A

The rate at which digital pulses pass a given point. Also called pulse repetition.

170
Q

Pass and Advanced

2169.What synchronizes each pulse in a digital computer?

A

A clock pulse from an oscillator whose frequency is an integral multiple of the speed of the computer.

171
Q

Pass and Advanced

2170.Name the 2 most important characteristics of an oscillator used in computer timing circuits and state which one is most critical.

A

The output level and the frequency stability (most critical).

172
Q

Pass and Advanced

2171.What three sections make tip the CPU?

A

Control section, Arithmetic-Logic section, and internal storage section (memory).

173
Q

Pass and Advanced

2172.What is the purpose of the Control Section of a CPU?

A

To interpret program instructions to control the exact sequence of operations for all other sections of the computer.

174
Q

Pass and Advanced

2173.What are the four major types of program instructions controlled by the control section of a CPU?

A

Transfer, arithmetic, logic, and control.

175
Q

Pass and Advanced

2174.What is the function of transfer instructions within the CPU?

A

To transfer (move) data from one location (section) to another.

176
Q

Pass and Advanced

2175.What is the function of arithmetic instructions within the CPU?

A

To combine two pieces of data to form a single piece of data using one of the arithmetic operations.

177
Q

Pass and Advanced

2176.What is the function of logic instructions within the CPU?

A

To provide the computer with the ability to make decisions based on the results of previously generated data.

178
Q

Pass and Advanced

2177.What is the function of control instructions within the CPU?

A

To send commands to devices not under direct command of the control section, such as I/O units or devices.

179
Q

Pass and Advanced

2178.What is the function of the arithmetic-logic section of the CPU?

A

To perform arithmetic such as adding, subtracting, multiplying, and dividing.

180
Q

Pass and Advanced

2179.What is the function of a computer input and output device?

A

To communicate with equipment external to the computer such as peripherals.

181
Q

Pass and Advanced

2180.What three types of input data are used by a computer?

A

Manual, analog, and data that has been previously stored on paper tape, magnetic tape, magnetic or floppy disks in a format compatible with the computer.

182
Q

Pass and Advanced

2181.What is a prime example of a manual input device for a computer?

A

A keyboard.

183
Q

Pass and Advanced

2182.What are the most common types of input devices used today?

A

Magnetic tape units, magnetic disk drive units, and floppy disk drive units.

184
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What three types of output data are produced by a computer?
A

Display information, control signals, (such as a lever or actuator), and recordings.

185
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the most common input device used in airborne applications?
A

The Analog-to-Digital Converter (ADC). The ADC changes the analog voltages and current into digital form for use in a digital computer.

186
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the purpose of the main memory of a computer?
A

It generally refers to the actual hardware where programs, data, calculations, and operands are stored.

187
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a memory address?
A

A particular location of a larger memory array, whereas each address usually contains one word of data.

188
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is loading defined?
A

A process by which a sequence of instructions, and tables of constants and other data used for computations are read and stored into computer memory.

189
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a bootstrap program?
A

A program loaded into a computer manually by keyboard or electronically using an operating system.

190
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a storage address?
A

A storage location found within the internal storage section of a computer.

191
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How is a word defined?
A

A series (train) of logic 1 and 0 voltage levels, or pulses. A word is usually based on a multiple of 8 bits (byte) and is either 8, 16 or 32 bits long.

192
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is the difference between a bit, nibble, byte, word & double word?
A

A bit is the smallest data element or operand; a nibble is a 4 bit group; a byte is an 8 bit group; and word or double word is 16 bits or larger.

193
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. How can a particular program instruction or word that is held in storage be located?
A

By its storage address.

194
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is a register?
A

A memory address. Simply put, a register is a means of temporarily storing limited amounts of information.

195
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is an accumulator?
A

A register or special memory cell used to perform an operation that requires 2 words in which the accumulator stores die 1” word momentarily while the 2”” word transfers in.

196
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is magnetic core storage?
A

A storage device made up of tiny doughnut-shaped rings made of ferrite (iron) that are strung on a grid of very thin wires.

197
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is semiconductor storage (memory)?
A

A storage device made up of hundreds of thousands of tiny electronic circuits etched on a silicon chip to store binary 1s and 0s.

198
Q

Pass and Advanced

2197, What is a bit cell?

A

A tiny circuit etched on a semiconductor silicon chip. (It can be either on or off depending on whether or not current is flowing through it.)

199
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What are some of the advantages of semiconductor storage?
A

Fast internal processing speeds, high reliability, low power consumption, high density (many circuits), and low cost.

200
Q

Pass and Advanced

  1. What is referred to by the access time of a computer?
A

The time required to read or write data to a particular address in memory. It is the interval from the instant the request for data is initiated until the data is available for use, usually from a few nanoseconds to microseconds.

Advancment Study (In Rate) (13 decks)

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