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The Ultimate Contact Guide > Dash 1 Section 3 > Flashcards

Dash 1 Section 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three basic rules in any airborne emergency?

A
  1. Maintain aircraft control
  2. Analyze the situation and take proper action
  3. Land as soon as conditions permit.
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2
Q

What is a critical action?

A

An action which must be performed immediately if the emergency is not to be aggravated and injury or damage are to be avoided.

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3
Q

What is a non critical action?

A

Actions which contribute to an orderly sequence of events, improve chances for the emergency action to be successful and serve as clean-up items.

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4
Q

What is the definition of land as soon as possible?

A

1) . An emergency shall be declared
2) . A landing shall be accomplished at the nearest suitable landing area, considering the severity of the emergency, weather conditions, field facilities, ambient lighting, and command guidance.

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5
Q

What is the definition of land as soon as practical?

A

Emergency conditions are less urgent, the mission is to be terminated but an immediate landing may not be necessary.

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6
Q

What is the definition of a suitable landing area?

A

A hard surface runway, taxiway, or under/overrun.

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7
Q

The engine start should be aborted for what five situations?

A

1) . High ITT (hot start)
2) . Normal N1 increase is halted (hung start)
3) . No ITT rise within 10 s of fuel flow indications (no start)
4) . BAT BUS annunciator comes on
5) . ST READY light goes out/PCL moved

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8
Q

How do you abort a start?

A

1) . If PCL is OFF, set STARTER SWITCH to AUTO/REST
2) . If PCL between OFF and IDLE, set PCL to OFF or set STARTER SWITCH to AUTO/RESET
3) . If PCL above IDLE, set PCL to OFF

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9
Q

True/False. If a start was aborted while connected to external power, you may attempt subsequent restarts so long as no engine limits were exceeded.

A

False. There is an aircraft malfunction if it’s unable to start with external power.

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10
Q

When do you perform an emergency engine shutdown on the ground?

A

Prop strike, CHIP light, FIRE light, depart prepared surface and any other situation the pilot deems necessary.

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11
Q

What factors affect a pilot’s decision to takeoff or abort?

A

1) . Runway length and condition, weather, and area traffic

2) . If adequate directional confirm cannot be maintained or a system emergency is encountered prior to Max Abort speed

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12
Q

What systems run off hydraulic pressure?

A

NWS, main gear, main gear doors, speed brake and flaps

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13
Q

What indications will you have that the hydraulic pressure transmitter has failed?

A

Hydraulic pressure will read 0 psi but all hydraulic systems will operate normally

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14
Q

Loss of hydraulic pressure without illumination of EHYD PX LO or HYDR FL LO may indicate what?

A

An engine-driven hydraulic pump failure.

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15
Q

Low hydraulic pressure is considered what and will necessitate what?

A

1800 psi and will necessitate using emergency gear extension.

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16
Q

When should you consider divert with certain rudder malfunctions?

A

If unable to achieve full left or right rudder, crosswinds exceed 15 knots and fuel is a concern.

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17
Q

True/False. With a rudder trim push rod failure the cockpit trim position indications will respond and the rudder pedal forces will adjust accordingly.

A

False. The cockpit trim indications will respond to trim inputs but will have no effect on rudder pedal forces or actual trim tab position.

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18
Q

What may a fully deflected rudder trim gauge be indicative of?

A

Runaway rudder trim or an out of trim rudder condition.

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19
Q

What is a concern when testing rudder deflection during a rudder system malfunction?

A

Switching rudders too quickly which can result in an OCF if not neutralizing the rudder in between.

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20
Q

Keep airspeed between what range during a rudder system malfunction check?

A

125-140 KIAS

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21
Q

Climb how high before attempting rudder system malfunction checklist (if able)?

A

6,000’ AGL

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22
Q

If the aircraft slip indicator is fully deflected remain below what airspeed?

A

140 KIAS

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23
Q

True/False. If must divert and fuel is a consideration for the range, it is permissible to raise the gear and repressurize the aircraft in order to reach a suitable alternate.

A

True.

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24
Q

What check should be done after reaching a suitable alternate following a rudder system malfunction?

A

Controllability check.

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25
Q

During a controllability check to what minimum airspeed can the aircraft be slowed?

A

90 KIAS or activation of stick shaker, whichever is higher

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26
Q

If unable to manipulate a control surface what should you consider (DUAL ONLY)?

A

Control may be available from the other cockpit.

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27
Q

How do you determine if the rudder will be available for landing following a bird strike or structural damage to the aircraft?

A

Attempt all power options, especially IDLE which will simulate the flare in landing.

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28
Q

Fly no slower than what after a controllability check situation?

A

Minimum controllable airspeed plus 20 KIAS.

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29
Q

What kind of approach should you execute following a controllability check situation?

A

Power-on, straight-in approach with minimum flare. Touchdown at no less than previously determined minimum controllable airspeed

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30
Q

Without full rudder authority and with a crosswind component greater than 5 knots how should you land?

A

Fly a no-flap, straight-in and use differential braking on landing roll to stay on prepared surface.

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31
Q

Landings have been accomplished at what airspeeds with landing flaps and flaps up?

A

110 KIAS and 130 KIAS respectively.

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32
Q

Illumination of the OBOGS FAIL annunciator indicates what?

A

Loss of sufficient oxygen concentration or pressure.

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33
Q

OBOGS may have failed because of what?

A

Failure of OBOGS heat exchanger, concentrator, bleed air supply, electrical system interface, excessive system leakage

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34
Q

What should you do if you have an OBOGS FAIL at low PCL settings?

A

Advance the PCL to extinguish the OBOGS FAIL and continue as normal if it extinguishes.

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35
Q

When is it possible to experience hypoxia symptoms?

A

If OBOGS has malfunctioned and cabin altitude is above 10,000’ MSL.

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36
Q

How long will emergency oxygen last?

A

10 minutes.

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37
Q

If at a certain altitude what descent rate is needed to achieve 10,000’ within 10 minutes?

A

31,000’ MSL, 2100 fpm
28,000’ MSL, 1800 fpm
25,000’ MSL, 1500 fpm
23,500’ MSL and lower, 1350 fpm

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38
Q

What if you have respiratory irritation, coughing, or white dust in the oxygen mask?

A

This could also be an OBOGS system malfunction caused by an issue with the concentrator beds which releases zeolite into the mask.

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39
Q

How should you breathe when under emergency pressure?

A

At a rate and depth slightly less than normal.

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40
Q

The OBOGS TEMP light indicates what?

A

Failure of the OBOGS heat exchanger.

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41
Q

The DUCT TEMP annunciator indicates what?

A

Bleed air temperature in the environmental systems duct has exceeded 300 deg F.

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42
Q

What will occur at altitude with the BLEED AIR INFLOW switch set to OFF?

A

Cabin pressurization will bleed out and the pressure seal and anti G systems will not be available.

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43
Q

What can you use if the Defog valve fails to close in flight and cockpit heat is uncomfortable?

A

The TEMP CONTROL switch.

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44
Q

What airspeed will best reduce control forces when have runaway trim?

A

110-150 KIAS

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45
Q

What will leaving the AIL/EL TRIM circuit breaker in during a runaway trim situation do for the pilot?

A

Allow the pilot to use pitch trim on final approach since aileron forces should remain light.

46
Q

If the elevator trim failed during high speeds, stick force will increase to what as the aircraft is slowed? What about for aileron and rudder trim?

A

10 lbs; 5 lbs; 20 lbs

47
Q

Wait a minimum of how long before resetting the AHRS/TAD circuit breaker?

A

15 seconds.

48
Q

What should you do if the TAD FAIL annunciator remains illuminated after doing the Trim Aid Device Failure checklist?

A

Notify maintenance personnel and leave the BAT and AVIONICS switches on until maintenance has expected the L1-L4 TAD failure code lights.

49
Q

True/False. If the canopy becomes unlocked in flight you should attempt to secure it immediately.

A

False. Movement of the internal canopy lock handle may inadvertently allow the canopy to open and depart the aircraft.

50
Q

What may occur with a rapid decompression near 20,000’ MSL?

A

An OBOGS FAIL annunciator may occur as the OBOGS switches to high altitude mode.

51
Q

What can a malfunctioning defog valve cause?

A

A loss of pressurization because it may trip the INFLOW SYS circuit breaker.

52
Q

What additional step must be done prior to ejection if the seat has slid partially up the rails or out of the cockpit?

A

The MOR handle must be pulled in addition to the ejection handle

53
Q

When fully extended the knee board lights interfere with the ejection envelope by how much?

A
  1. 568 in (FCP)

0. 102 in (RCP)

54
Q

What are the altitudes for controlled and uncontrolled ejection?

A

2,000’ AGL

6,000’ AGL

55
Q

The ejection drag is capable of working with sink rates up to what?

A

10,000 fpm

56
Q

When ejecting over mountainous terrain exceeding what altitude should you use the MOR handle?

A

8,000’ MSL

57
Q

What are the steps to controlled ejection?

A

1) . Notify crew member
2) . Establish what ejection altitude is (2,000’ AGL)
3) . Slow to 125-180 KIAS
4) . Distress call
5) . Squawk 7700
6) . Stow loose items
7) . Visor down, mask and helmet on
8) . Check leg straps, lock harness, set SSK
9) . Turn toward uninhabited area, set PCL to OFF, assume the position and eject

58
Q

What may occur when ejecting at lower speeds?

A

The risers may not separate which may result in an increased descent rate. You can manually separate the risers if time is permitting.

59
Q

Terrain clearance charts make how much allowance for crew reaction time?

A

None.

60
Q

Add 1% additional terrain clearance for what?

A

Every 1000’ MSL of aircraft altitude.

61
Q

Altitude sensing and G limiting devices will delay chute deployment above 8,000’ MSL by how much?

A

2 minutes at 35,000’ MSL

62
Q

When should you execute a forced landing?

A

When engine is not available and an airstart is not attempted or is unsuccessful.

63
Q

What’s a consideration with bleed air when the engine is shutdown?

A

Loss of bleed air systems which may result in fogging or icing.

64
Q

Inducing yaw with known engine/oil malfunction could do what?

A

Impair windshield visibility due to oil spraying on the canopy

65
Q

What are the normal safe indications of emergency extension?

A

Two green main lights, two red main door lights, green nose gear light, red light in the handle.

66
Q

What’s the minimum airspeed you can slow to on final during a forced landing?

A

110 KIAS

67
Q

What’s inoperative on the ground with engine shutdown?

A

NWS.

68
Q

When should you land on an unprepared surface?

A

If ejection is not possible or the ejection seat malfunctions.

69
Q

What’s the best location for landing on an unprepared surface?

A

Smooth cultivated fields.

70
Q

What should you do with your gear and flaps when landing on an unprepared surface?

A

Don’t extend them to avoid the aircraft tumbling or cartwheeling on touchdown.

71
Q

In the event if minimum winds but moderate swells how should you ditch?

A

Parallel to the swells.

72
Q

In the event of moderate to high swells and 25 knots of wind or more, how should you ditch?

A

Into the wind and attempt to land in the upwind or back side of the swell.

73
Q

If the rate of descent exceeds 1500 fpm at 4-6% during a PEL what should you do?

A

Increase torque up to 131% as necessary to achieve sufficient glide or set PCL to OFF if this does not work.

74
Q

If on profile and the engine is vibrating excessively or indications of failure are imminent, what should you do?

A

Set the PCL to OFF.

75
Q

Where is low key?

A

1500’ AGL, abeam touchdown point

76
Q

What altitude is base key?

A

600-800’ AGL

77
Q

Where is high key?

A

2,500-3,000’ AGL and approximately one-third point of the runway.

78
Q

Do not set the boost pump and ignition to ON in which three cases?

A

1) . FIRE
2) . CHIP light
3) . FOD

79
Q

How do you know you have an assymetric flap condition?

A

An uncommanded rolling or yawing motion during flap operation.

80
Q

True/False. There is sufficient control authority to counteract yaw and roll from assymetric flaps at pattern airspeeds.

A

True.

81
Q

What is the preferred method of determining abnormal landing gear positions?

A

Visual inspection from another aircraft.

82
Q

What are the four safe gear-down indications?

A

1) . Gear indications in both cockpits combine to indicate 3 greens and any combo of reds
2) . Either AOA indexer is illuminated
3) . Landing and/or taxi lights are on
4) . If main gear indicate down and locked and onboard gear doors are fully closed,the nose gear can be assumed down and locked.

83
Q

If the nose gear is the only gear indication which does not indicate good what could be wrong?

A

The micro switch may be faulty. Resetting the LDG GR CONT circuit breaker may fix the issue.

84
Q

What six methods may force the gear down if it’s stuck?

A

1) . Symmetric G forces between 0 and 2.5 Gs
2) . Slipping (side loads)
3) . Slowing airspeed
4) . Actuating speed brake
5) . Selecting flaps LDG
6) . Making quick small side to side movements of the FCP gear handle

85
Q

When should you execute the Landing with Unsafe Gear Indications checklist?

A

1) . Both inboard main gear doors are partially open
2) . Both onboard main gear doors are open with one or both main landing gear fully retracted
3) . Only one main inboard gear door is down.
4) . Only the nose gear is down and locked.
5) . A suspected landing gear jam caused by an external event (bird strike, hard landing etc)

86
Q

Following a landing with unsafe gear indications when should you taxi/be towed?

A

Once maintenance has reinstalled the gear pins.

87
Q

When should you use the landing gear emergency extension checklist?

A

When directed to by another checklist.

88
Q

What pull extension and force is needed to extend the emergency gear handle?

A

0.75 in, in excess of 80 lbs

89
Q

What constitutes an extreme case of landing with a cocked nose wheel?

A

Nose wheel deflecting more than 45 deg. You should consider diverting to a wider runway if possible in this case

90
Q

What fuel flow indications do you want during a manual start once N1 is above 13%?

A

70-80 pph

91
Q

You should abort a start for what 5 indications?

A

1) . PCL moved/ST READY light goes out
2) . ITT likely to exceed 1000 deg C
3) . No rise of ITT within 10 seconds of fuel flow
4) . Normal N1 rise halted
5) . BAT BUS light

92
Q

If contact with a BAK-15 is imminent you should:

A

Discontinue braking until past barrier. Never call for barriers in case of aborted takeoff and steer around them if you can.

93
Q

What should you do if you have a tire failure?

A

Land on side corresponding to good tire, put drag in the middle

94
Q

What indications will you have of an engine failure?

A

N1 will indicate 0% within 5 seconds; prop feathers; decay of torque and ITT; airspeed and power loss

95
Q

Zooming at 200 KIAS and 250 KIAS results in how much altitude gained?

A

600-900’

1170-1550’ (heavier A/C at high pressure altitudes)

96
Q

What will zoom results be with the engine producing useable torque (above 6%)?

A

Several hundred to several thousand feet higher.

97
Q

What are the three airstart procedures?

A

1) . PMU NORM
2) . PMU OFF
3) . Immediate airstart (PMU NORM)

98
Q

Airstarts have been demoed up to what altitudes?

A

20,000’ MSL

99
Q

When should you attempt a PMU NORM airstart?

A

When you don’t have a PMU FAIL annunciator. It is the primary method of airstart because cooler starts can be expected at lower airspeeds.

100
Q

If the airstart is successful you should have useful power?

A

Forty seconds.

101
Q

At a higher altitude, will ITT be higher or lower for an airstart?

A

Higher.

102
Q

What is the airstart envelope?

A

125-200 KIAS, SL to 15,000’ MSL

135-200 KIAS, 15,000’-20,000’ MSL

103
Q

Why should you make sure the PCL is OFF?

A

Prop will feather; also won’t prematurely introduce fuel during an airstart.

104
Q

When should you abort an airstart?

A

1) . If N1 does not rise within 5 seconds

2) . If there is no rise in ITT within 10 seconds after fuel flow indications

105
Q

The prop will unfeather and accelerate to operating RPM within how many seconds after N1 reaches 45%?

A

20

106
Q

If the starter switch is not put in NORM what will happen?

A

The starter will drain the battery in 10 minutes.

107
Q

With the bleed air INFLOW switch in NORM or HI during an airstart, the starting ITT may be how much higher?

A

40 deg C

108
Q

What are the reasons you may see an uncommanded power change/loss of power/uncommanded prop feather?

A

1) . PMU scheduling
2) . Oil/fuel system contamination
3) . Prop dump solenoid failure
4) . Loss of oil pressure to prop pitch mechanism because of prop sleeve touchdown

109
Q

What causes an uncommanded prop feather?

A

Bad electric signal to feather dump solenoid which opens it, drains all the oil pressure and causes prop to feather.

110
Q

What else happens with PMU OFF during Uncommanded Power Change boldface?

A

Oil pressure and volume output to the prop pitch control increases which will help with the reduction in oil pressure caused by a prop sleeve touch down.

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