Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

everything > daily mix I > Flashcards

daily mix I Flashcards

1
Q

In terms of urine output what constitutes an AKI

A

Urine output of <0.5 ml/kg/hr over 6 consecutive hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What constitutes an AKI (3 things)

A

-rise in serum creatinine of 26 micromol/litre or greater within 48 hours
-50% or greater rise in serum creatinine known or presumed to have occurring within the past 7 days
-fall in urine output less than 0.5ml/if/gout more than 6 hours in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why does CKD commonly cause anaemia

A

Loss of kidney’s production of erythropoietin

Also poor iron absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Treatment of anaemia in CKD

A

1st = start oral iron replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which disease gives a hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis ?

A

Renal tubular acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the first-line screening test for adult poly cystic kidney disease

A

Renal ultrasounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can cause contrast-induced nephropathy ?

A

Iodine based CT and X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should be given to counter contrast-induced nephropathy ?

A

Volume expansion via 1L IV 0.9% sodium chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most common extra-renal manifestation of ADPKD

A

Liver cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what causes subarachnoid haemorrhage in ADPKD

A

Pancreatic cyst and berry aneurysms (much less common than liver cysts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment of Minimal change glomerulonephritis

A

Prednisolone (steroids + ACEi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When does Alports usually present ?

A

Childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Features seen in Alports

A

Microscopic haematuria
Progressive renal failure
Bilateral sensorineural deafness
Lenticonus
Retinitis pigmentosa
Splitting of lamina densa on electron microscopy
Presents at childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Investigation of Alports

A

Genetic testing
Renal biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is seen on renal biopsy for Alports

A

Splitting of the Lamina densa of the GBM - resulting in a basket weave appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

*basket weave appearance on renal biopsy

A

Alports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what to do if a patient has < 0.5ml/kg/hr urine output post-operatively ?

A

Administer 500ml 0.9% sodium chloride over 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most likely cause of death in someone with CKD on HD

A

Ischaemic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is acral lentiginous melanoma

A

Pigmentation of nail bed affecting proximal nail fold = melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  • red or black lump / lump that bleeds or oozes
A

Nodular Malignant melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of lesion is most commonly seen with renal transplantation

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drug can cause patchy depigmentation in patients with darker skin

A

Topical steroids (ie clobetasone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Steroid cream potency (eczema)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where are keloid scars most commonly found

A

Sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is used to treat dermatophyte infection

A

Oral terbafine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What fungus is responsible for pityriasis versicolor

A

Malassezia furfur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

*central dimple, 2mm in diameter, multiple raised lesions

A

Molluscum contagiosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What medication can cause toxic epidermal necrolysis

A

Penicillins ie co-amoxiclav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is nikolsky’s sign

A

Epidermis separates with mild lateral pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Skin lesion associated with UC

A

Pyoderma gangrenosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Most common cause of cauda equina syndrome

A

Central disc prolapse at L4/5 or L5/S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Investigation for suspected cauda equina syndrome

A

Urgent MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Management of Cauda equina syndrome

A

Urgent decompression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Late sign of cauda equina syndrome

A

Urinary incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What do the Ottawa rules apply to ?

A

When to use an X-ray for ankle / knee injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

MAIN ASSOCIATION for adhesive capsulitis

A

Diabetes !!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dermatomyositis associated antibody

A

Anti-Jo-I and ANA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what needs to be done after confirmed diagnosis of Dermatomyositis

A

Screen for underlying malignancy ie breast or lung (typically)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Main side effect of hydroxychloroquine

A

Bull’s eye retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

*BULLS EYE RETINOPATHY

A

Hydroxychloroquine use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What do you have to check in a patient before commencing them on azathioprine

A

Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency

If they have a deficiency then they are predisposed to azathioprine toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

S1 compression symptoms

A

Sensory loss in posterolateral aspect of leg
Lateral aspect of foot
Weakness in the plantar flexion of the foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does S1 innervate

A

Gastrocnemius and soleus = responsible for plantar flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

L3 compression symptoms

A

Sensory loss over anterior thigh
Weak hip flexion (iliopsoas)
Knee extension (quadriceps)
Hip adduction (Adductor)
Reduced knee reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

L4 compressions

A

Sensory loss over anterior aspect of knee and medial malleolus
Weak knee extension
Hip adduction
Reduced knee reflex

46
Q

L5 compression

A

Foot dorsiflexion weakness
Sensory loss over the lateral lower leg
And normal reflexes

47
Q

S2 nerve root compression

A

Sensory loss over posterior thigh and calf
Weakness in knee flexion
Reduced or absent ankle reflex

48
Q

*sensory loss over dorsum of foot

A

L5 nerve root compression

49
Q

*metaphyseal tumour of long bone with a ‘sunburst’ pattern

A

Osteosarcoma

50
Q

Most common primary malignant bone tumour in children and adolescents ?

A

Osteosarcoma

51
Q

Protein associated with Ewings

A

EWS-FLI1

52
Q

4-year-old girl with a three month history of a limp. Her parents report that she has ‘not been right’ for a few weeks now. She typically complains of pain in her left hip and right knee in the morning which gets better during the day.

What’s going on here ?

A

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

> more than three months

53
Q

X-ray of Perthes disease

A

Widening of joint space and decrease femoral head size/flattening

54
Q

what’s going on here

A

SUFE - on the left side

55
Q

what’s going on here

A

Perthes - see the destruction of the femoral head / flattening

56
Q

Should high dose prednisone be given before or after investigation in clinical suspicion of GCA

A

Before

57
Q

*pain and tenderness over the lateral side of thigh / hip in a woman 50-70years

A

Greater trochanteric pain / trochanteric bursitis

58
Q

*burning sensation over anterio-lateral aspect of the thigh

A

Meralgia paraesthetica

59
Q

What is meralgia paraesthetica

A

Caused by compression of lateral cutaneous nerve

60
Q

What is pubic symphysis dysfunction

A

Common in pregnancy

Ligament laxity increases in response to hormonal changes of pregnancy

Get pain over pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thigh

61
Q

AC joint injury treatment Grade I - II

A

Conservative management with sling and immobilisation

62
Q

AC joint injury treatment Grade III, IV , V

A

Surgery

63
Q

Sensory loss over anterior thigh, weak hip flexion, knee extension, hip adduction, reduced knee reflex = what nerve root compression

A

L3

64
Q

*reduced knee reflex

A

L3

65
Q

What is this

A

Bakers cyst

66
Q

What is Bakers Cyst

A

Popliteal cyst - aren’t actually cysts but a distension of the gastrocnemius - semimembranous bursa

67
Q

Treatment of bakers cyst in a child

A

Self-resolving

68
Q

*reduced sensation over left anterior knee and medial malleolus

A

L4 nerve root compression

69
Q

management of acute renal colic

A

IM diclofenac 75mg

70
Q

Management of communicating hydrocele

A

These are common in newborn males and usually will resolve within the first few months of life

Surgical repair if does not resolve within 1-2 years

71
Q

*soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum, transilluminates with a pen torch in baby

A

Hydrocele

72
Q

Communicating vs non-communicating hydrocele

A

Non-communicating = excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis

Communicating = latency of the processes vaginalis allowing peritoneal fluid to drain down into the scrotum

73
Q

Painful swollen testes - relieved by lifting testes

A

= epididymo - orchitis

74
Q

Most common causative organism for epididymo-orchitis

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

75
Q

STI but of unknown organism - what is the recommended treatment

A

500mg IM ceftriaxone

+ doxycycline 100mg by mouth 2D for 2 weeks

76
Q

STI treatment for enteric organism ie E.coli

A

Oral quinolone for 2 weeks

77
Q

How long do you have to wait to test PSA after doing certain things …

A
78
Q

Indications for circumcision

A

Phimosis
Recurrent balanitis
Balanitis xerotica obliteratans
Paraphimosis

79
Q

How long does it take a perforated eardrum to heal ?

A

6-8 weeks

80
Q

*unexplained hoarseness in a patient aged >45

A

Urgent referral to ENT

81
Q

What type of audiogram pattern would Cholesteatoma show ?

A

Conductive pattern

82
Q

What mode of inheritance is otosclerosis

A

Autosomal dominant

83
Q

T/F there is hearing loss in vestibular neuronitis

A

F - there is no loss of hearing

Features = recent viral infection, recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days

84
Q

*absent corneal reflex, hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus

A

Acoustic neuroma

85
Q

What disease is acoustic neurome associated with ?

A

Neurofibromatosis type 2

86
Q

*pain on palpating of tragic, itching, discharge, and hearing loss

A

Otitis externa

87
Q

Management of otitis externa

A

Topical antibiotic / topical antibiotic + steroid

88
Q

What is Adies tonic pupil

A

When aniscoria is greater in bright light

There is an issue with the dilated pupil adn its inability to constrict

This could be due a problem with the parasympathetic nervous system

89
Q

what is this

A

Acute otiis media

90
Q

What is entropion

A

In Turning of the eyelids

91
Q

What can happen if entropion is left untreated

A

Corneal ulcer

92
Q

What is extropion

A

Out-turning of the eyelids

93
Q

*persistent mouth ulcer

A

Clinical suspicion of squamous cell carcinoma —> urgent referral to oral and max fax

94
Q

*red patches on fundoscopy

A

Intra-retinal or sub-retinal fluid leakage or haemorrhage (wet ARMD)

95
Q

What are the ototoxic drugs

A

Quinine, gentamicin, furosemide, aspirin

96
Q

*bilateral renal artery stenosis

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

97
Q

Where does epidermal proliferation happen

A

C - the basal layer

98
Q

Where is vitamin D metabolism carried out

A

B - by keratinocytes at the basal layer

99
Q

Where is energy storage

A

E - subcutaneous fat

100
Q

Where is tensile strength provided

A

G - where collagen is found

101
Q

Which are the common sweat glands on the face

A

Eccrine glands

102
Q

Which is the nail matrix

A

E

103
Q

Which is the nail bed

A

F

104
Q

Which is the lunula

A

B

105
Q

Name :

A

A = keratin layer
B = granular layer
C = prickle cell layer
D = basal layer
E = dermo-epidermal junctions
F = dermis

106
Q

*dinner fork appearance on x-ray

A

Distal radius fracture / Colles

107
Q

*garden spade deformity

A

Smith fracture

108
Q

What are the 2 FOOSH injuries

A

Smiths Colles

109
Q

What nerve causes wrist drop

A

Radial nerve compression

110
Q

Monteggia fracture

A

Proximal ulnar fracture

111
Q

Galeazzi fracture

A

Proximal radial

everything (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions