DA42 Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the performance group for the DA42

A

Group B

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2
Q

Is the Track Diamond visible if there is no cross-track?

A

No

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3
Q

How to obtain drift from the MFD and HSI?

A

Drift = Track (MFD) - Heading (HSI)

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4
Q

Power-plant Characteristics

A

x2 Autro E4-C Engines (Mercedes A Class Diesel Engines rebranded as Austro)
The modification includes 2 ECU for redundancy, different turbochargers, …

x4 cylinders (liquid cooled)

Common rail injection

Dual Digital Engines Control

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5
Q

Turbocharger Max. Power

A

2300 RPM, 100% for 5 minutes

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6
Q

Max. Continuous Power

A

92%, 2300 RPM

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7
Q

Does the DA42 have a carburettor?

A

No, the engines are fuel injected. The injectors replace the carburettor, mitigating the risk of ice on the carburettor.

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8
Q

What is the benefit of having a turbocharged engine?

A

To maintain a constant power output to a high altitude.

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9
Q

According to SOPs, when should you select alternate air?

A

Routinely in visible moisture and anytime there is a risk of icing.

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10
Q

Why are there fully feathering propellers and when are the engines automatically feathered?

A

To decrease drag of a windmilling propeller. Automatically feathered when engines are shutdown in flight.

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11
Q

What can harsh throttle handling lead to?

A

ECU failure

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12
Q

What is the airframe made of?

A

Composite materials (carbon fibre, epoxy resin, incl. a fully monocoque fuselage)
All DAs are white in order to keep skin temperature below glass transition temperate of the epoxy resin.

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13
Q

Explain the landing gear design

A

The landing gear is a trailing link arrangement, where suspension and support features are separated to increase shock absorption.
Hydraulically operated by electrically powered hydraulic pumps.
Equipped with a squat switch to prevent retraction on ground.
Gear Extension Speed = Vne = 188 kts, which means that is can be used as an airbrake for hot descents anytime.

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14
Q

Explain the braking system.

A

Hydraulically operated disc brakes.

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15
Q

Explain the de-icing system.

A

The fluid system weeps out anti-icing fluid through pores on the leading edges of aerofoil surfaces and delivers fluid to props and windscreens.

2 independent systems, one delivers to the airframe + props, and the other delivers to the windshields. Each has 2 pumps so 4 pumps in total.
Normally powered by the LH main bus.

30L useable, 22L min. for dispatch.

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16
Q

Explain the modes of the de-icing system.

A
  • NORM
    For frequent and less severe icing conditions, prior to ice formation.
    Used in Climb + Cruise
    2 pumps simultaneously, cycled 30s ON 90s OFF
    Operating Time: 2.5h
  • HIGH
    For all known icing conditions, when ice has already accumulated.
    Used in Climb + Cruise + Approach
    1 pump simultaneously
    Operating Time: 1.0h
  • MAX
    Maximum protection for conditions outside of the icing envelope.
    2 pumps simultaneously ON for 2 minutes.
    Operating Time: 0.5h
17
Q

Maximum XWIND for approaches

A

Normal (Full Flaps): 20 kts
Flapless / APP flaps: 25 kts

18
Q

What type of ailerons are used?

A

Horn type ailerons to reduce adverse yaw.

19
Q

What system reduces adverse yaw?

A

Yaw damper for autopilot operations.

20
Q

What is the glass cockpit primarily made of?

A

PFD + MFD

21
Q

MFD characteristics - VHF Comms Radio

A

118.0 MHz to 136.975 MHz with 25 KHz or 8.33 KHz spacing with 10 W or 16 W output.

22
Q

MFD characteristics - VOR Receiver Range

A

108.0 MHz to 117.975 MHz

23
Q

What does the G1000 equipment include?

A

S B D F G R

S - Standard Com/Nav (VHF RTF, VOR, ILS)
B - LPV (APV with SBAS)
D - DME
F - ADF
G - GNSS (+ PBN capabilities in item 18)
R - PBN Approved

24
Q

How many batteries and alternators are in the electrical system? Explain the importance of the batteries.

A

4 batteries and 3 alternators.
The engines (common rail diesel engines) need constant electric power to power the ECU and the injection system. Total loss of electrical power will lead to the engines stopping when batteries are exhausted.

25
Q

What are the electric power sources?

A

4 batteries:
- Main Battery (24V 13.6 Ah)
- 2 ECU backup batteries (7.2 Ah)
- Emergency Battery

3 Alternators:
- LH alternator (28V 70A)
- RH alternator (28V 70A)
- Third alternator is on the left engine and used for air conditioning.

26
Q

The electrical trim is part of the autopilot system. What’s one threat of its use?

A

Trim runaway.

27
Q

When to NOT use fuel cross-feeding?

A

When taking-off and during approaches.

28
Q

What does “EIS” mean on the MFD display of the G1000?

A

Engine Indication Systems

29
Q

What does “EIS” mean on the MFD display of the G1000?

A

Engine Indication Systems

30
Q

What is the main purpose of the gearbox?

A

Gearbox is usually a component of the transmission system (along with shafts, for example) which is used for changing rotational speed.

31
Q

What’s the maximum overspeed (2500 RPM) time limit?

A

20 seconds

32
Q

What’s the minimum and maximum values for oil pressure?

A

Minimum:
- Below 1500 RPM: 0.9 bar
- Above 1500 RPM: 1.5 bar

Maximum: 6.5 bar

33
Q

What are the minimum and maximum values for fuel pressure?

A

4-7 bar

34
Q

What is the fuel used for the DA-42? What color is it?

A

Jet A or Jet A-1. Colorless or straw.
They are both a kerosene type fuel but Jet A has a maximum freeze point of -40°C while Jet A-1 has a maximum freeze point of -47°C.

35
Q

Maximum icing conditions?

A

Moderate icing (included).

36
Q

What are the 3 levels of alert on the CAS (Crew Alerting System)?

A
  • Warning (red) -> requires immediate action -> repeated warning sound until acknowledged.
  • Caution (amber) -> may require future corrective action -> single warning sound.
  • Annunciation/Message Advisory -> White (no sound)
  • Safe Operation Annunciation is green and is of the lowest importance.
37
Q

What is the meaning / cause of the “Landing Gear Retracted” audible warning alert?

A

A warning chime tone which repeats without delay is active when the landing gear is retracted while the flaps move into the LDG position or when the POWER lever is placed in a position below approx. 20 %.