Cycle 9 - Development and Cancer Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are silent mutations?

A

Mutations where the codon changes but the amino acid produced is the same (redundancy), so there is no obvious effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are missense mutations?

A

Missense mutation occur when a codon changes into another codon that makes another amino acid

  • Difficult to predict consequences
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are nonsense mutations?

A

Nonsense mutations occur when a codon changes into a stop condon, ending translation early

  • If it is early in the sequence, it likely will destroy the protein
  • If it is at the end, maybe it will have no effect, just some end piece is lost
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are frameshift mutations?

A

Frameshift mutations are insertion/deletions of a base paur, which changes all the amino acids after it

  • Likely to be the most severe
  • The protein could be too short; a stop codon could be created due to shifting
  • THe protein could be too long; the original stop codon could be lost due to shifting
  • However, the splicing of introns/exons would not be affected unless the mutation is inserted directly into the splce signal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

State the characteristics that make Drosophila an attractive model system

A
  • Genetic control of pattern formation is well documented in Drosophila and apply to many other species as well as humans
  • Development is quick
  • A complex multicellular organism
  • Cheap to raise
  • Similar genome as humans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the main stages of Drosophila embryonic development

A
  1. Begins at fertilized egg
  2. Cell doesn’t divide, the nucleus does (unusual)
  3. Cellularization (movement to the sides, formation of separate pole cells)
  4. Gastrulation: segmentation
  5. Hatches into larvae, then eventually it forms a pupae, and the becomes a fly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the role of maternal effect genes in Drosophila development

Explain Bicoid and Gurken

A
  • Maternal effect gene: is transcribed in mother but translated in offspring (pack eggs with mRNA and proteins)
    • mRNA is stopped from translating via masking proteins which come off when the offspring is ready
  • Bicoid (anterior posterior) is an important gene
    • Mothers pack one end with bicoid mRNA: lots of bicoid = head region
  • Gurken (dorsal ventral) is an important gene
    • These genes help orient the nuclei to tell them what genes to express
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are segmentation genes?

A

Segmentation genes are turned on by bicoid, and divide the embryo into segmeents/stripes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are homeotic genes?

A

Homeotic genes are turned on by segmentation genes, and create the proper structure in a sigen segment (ex., legs, wings)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the structure/function of the “homeobox” in homeotic genes

A
  • A homeobox is a 180 bp sequence within the homeotic genes coding for a DNA-binding domain (i.e., it is a transcription factor)
    • Transcription factors are proteins that help turn specific genes “on” or “off” by binding to nearby DNA.
    • Ex., a homeotic gene in the leg segment is a transcription factor that stimulates expression for leg-specific genes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the significance of evolutionary conservation of Hox genes

A
  • Hox genes are a subset of homeobox genes
  • Many organisms have all of their hox genes together in the genome in the same order of which they are expressed
  • This shows that it is a very ancient genetic system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the function of caspases

A

Caspases are proteases; they chop up essential proteins and assist in program cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Describe the path of programmed cell death cascade (C. elegans)
A
  • C. elegans cells are transparent so it is useful to study
  • As it develops, 1 cell becomes 959 cells, but 131 cells die as part of normal development using CED genes
  • CED genes (cell death genes) are found in every cell and are part of a protein cascade
    1. The death signal is received by the death signal receptor
    2. CED-9 is inhibited from blocking CED-4
    3. CED-4 can activate CED-3
    4. CED-3 kills the cell by activating proteases and nucleases
  • Note that these signals can also be internal (ex., DNA damage of infection can trigger apoptosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the role of programmed cell death in Drosophila development

A
  • In drosophila, one genome code for a larva first, and then a fly
  • It does this through imaginal discs that sit in the larvae, which expand to create legs and wings when it receives a blast of hormone
  • All the unneeded larvae tissue gets destroyed through apoptosis
  • Unique Drosophila gene called the reaper, works with the grim protein to trigger cell death
  • In the promoter of reaper, there are multiply types of control (pictured)
  • p53: when DNA repair is suppresed, the reaper is gene expressed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

State the most common cancers in Canada

Why might cancer mortality rates vary across geographical areas in Canada?

A
  • Breast cancer, prostate cancer, colon cancer, lung cancer are most common
  • Variation of geographcial mortality due to
    • Access to healthcare
    • Different genetic populations, age difference, lifestyle difference
    • Different environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe why identical twins may have different cancer indicidence

A
  • Environmental factors (carcinogens)
  • Lifestyle choices
  • Epigenetic effects: twins have very similar DNA methylation patters (epigenetic) at 3 yrs, but at 26 yrs they have a large difference
17
Q

Describe how DNA methylation can regulate gene expression

A
  • DNA methylation is epigenetic (changes over time due to environmental factors)
  • DNA methylation adds a methy group to a gene segment, repressing it by calling the HDAC (histone deacytelase complex) that increases the tightness of histones
18
Q

State some hallmarks/characteristics of cancer cells

A
  • Sustaining proliferative signalling
    • Don’t die when they are supposed to
  • Evading growth suppressors
  • Activating invasion and metastasis
  • Enabling replicative immortality
  • Inducing angiogenesis (make new blood vessels)
  • Resisting cell death
  • Tumours are constantly evolving and changing under selection pressure
19
Q

What is heritability?

Describe the heritability of cancer in humans

A

Heritability: the proportion of phenotypic variability we can attribute to genotypic variability

Heritability for cancer is 0.27-0.42

20
Q

Describe mechanisms by which a virus could cause cancer without causing mutation

A
  • The virus could introduce genes that disrupt cell cycle control or turns regulatory genes off in the host
  • Stop cyclin from being degraded, stimulate EGF (growth factor) receptors, stimulate EGF activity, etc.
21
Q

What are cyclin/CDK complexes?

A
  • CDK are cyclin dependent kinases
  • A kinase is a constitutive (constant) protein that phosphorylates other proteins to activate or inactivate
  • CDK are only functional if they are bound to cyclins, which are produced cyclically
    • This is post-translational modification
    • They enable the cell to progress through the cell checkpoints
22
Q

What are driver mutations?

A
  • Driver mutations are mutations that confer a growth advantage on cells
  • These include
    • Mutations that stimulate growth and survival
    • Mutations that reduce genome maintenance
    • Mutations that affect cell fate
23
Q

Describe cell fate and how a driver mutation can occur

A
  • Firstly, cancer cells are de-differentiated (resemble undifferentiated embryonic cells)
  • Cell fate is represented by a landscape
    • High topography = instability = cell type will easily change into something different
    • Normally development follows the blue line which is barred from changing state by the purple hills (genes that regulate growth)
      • The red line is an abnormal trajectory caused by getting over the barrier; “cancer is just another cell fate”
24
Q

Describe proto-oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes, and oncomirs in normal development

A
  • Proto-oncogenes are genes in normal cells that encode various kinds of proteins that stimulate cell division
    • Examples are growth factors and transcription factors that regulate the expression of the structural genes for progression through the cell cycle
  • Tumour suppressor genes are genes in normal cells encoding proteins that inhibit cell division, ​ex., TP53
    • These genes slow down cell division at the end of embryogenesis and regulate cell cycle
  • Oncomirs are miRNA that regulates cell cycling
25
Q

Describe proto-oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes and oncomirs in cancer

A

Proto-oncogenes can become deregulated and become oncogenes; genes that stimulate the cell to progress to the cancerous state of the unregulated cell cycle

  • Ex., EGFR (growth factor)
  • EGF is received by the EGFR (extensive pathway)
  • If upregulated, it will stimulate extreme cell growth which can lead to cancer

Tumor suppressor gene mutations result in a decrease in the inhibitory action of the cell cycle controlling proteins they encode

Oncomirs

  • Inappropriate expression of miRNA can promote cycling
  • Different microRNAs are at play in different tumor types, use this to diagnose cancer type
  • Overexpressed miRNA genes → can block target mRNAs important in inhibiting cell proliferation
  • Inactivated miRNA genes → overexpression of proto-oncogenes
26
Q

State the role of the TP53 gene

A
  • A tumour suppressor
  • It is a transcription factor that
    1. Increases DNA repair
    2. Interacts with cyclin/CDK (arrests cell by blocking it)
    3. Causes apoptosis
  • Mutated TP53 → inactive p53 protein, results in Cdks that are continually active in triggering cell division regardless of conditions
27
Q

Explain why cancer incidence tends to increase with old age

A
  • More chances for mutations as we age
  • You need 2 mutated alleles, so the longer you live the higher the probability that both alleles will be mutated
  • Exposed to more carcinogens
  • Telomeres are shorter
28
Q

Describe embryogenesis

A
  • Embryogenesis requires rapidly dividing cells that then need to stop once a certain point is reached
  • Genes are required to stimulate cells that divide rapidly and others that cause cells to stop dividing rapidly
  • This is controlled at the cell cycle checkpoints
29
Q

Consider Drosophila parents that are both heterozygous for a loss of the bicoid allele. What proportion of their children will have no heads?

A

All of them will have heads: the child’s genes do not determine whether they will have a head or not, this is dependent on only the mother since the maternal effect genes are transcribed in the mother

  • Thus, 1 working bicoid allele in the mum = all babies have heads
  • If the mother has no working bicoid allele, no babies have heads