CW Questions 14 Flashcards

1
Q

You are the Project Manager on a project that will improve the manufacturing process at your company which has a 1 Sigma quality standard with its manufacturing process. Quality has been a major issue because there has been an excessive amount spent on inventory with a lot of waste in the building process and product returns. Which of the following is the best approach to increasing the quality standard?

(A) Watching for violations of the Seven Run Rule
(B) Making a greater use of checklists
(C) Changing the quality to a Sigma level greater than 1
(D) Utilizing a Fishbone diagram

A

Correct Answer: (C) Changing the quality to a Sigma level greater than 1

Explanation: Increasing the quality standard from 1 Sigma to 2 (or greater) Sigma will increase the quality standard. The other answers will improve quality rather than the quality standard. [section 8.8.10]

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2
Q

All the following are advantages of centralized contracting except…

(A) Lack of career path for contract administrators
(B) Career path for contract administrators
(C) Contract administrators have teammates for contract-related support
(D) Expertise in the contracting area

A

Correct Answer: (A) Lack of career path for contract administrators

Explanation: Centralized contracting provides a functional type of environment for the role, meaning that there is a career path for the person, instead of a lack of career path. The other answers fit the description of advantages for centralized contracting. [section 12.3.1]

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3
Q

As a Project Manager, you have a professional and social responsibility to encourage the growth of project management at your company or industry. To help with this growth, you could do all the following except…

(A) Mentor others who want to learn more about project management
(B) Create white papers on project management
(C) Provide senior management with information regarding the benefits of outsourcing
(D) Train people on project management

A

Correct Answer: (C) Provide senior management with information regarding the benefits of outsourcing

Explanation: Providing senior management with information regarding the benefits of outsourcing has nothing to do with professional and social responsibility. Training people on project management, mentoring others who want to learn more about project management, and creating white papers on project management are all elements of growing project management as a profession. [section 13.1.2]

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4
Q

Which of the following best describes a stakeholder on a project?

(A) A team member
(B) The Project Manager
(C) Someone who works in an area impacted by the work of the project
(D) All the answers

A

Correct Answer: (D) All the answers

Explanation: The stakeholder can be anyone impacted by the project. The stakeholder could be the sponsor, senior management, Project Manager, Functional Manager, team member, or end user. [section 3.4.5]

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5
Q

The company is determining which proposed projects it should pursue during a severe economic downturn. Of the following, which is the most likely project it will approve?

(A) A project that is proposed in response to a technological advance
(B) A project that is proposed in response to a legal requirement
(C) A project that is proposed in response to a business opportunity
(D) A project that is proposed in response to a business problem

A

Correct Answer: (B) A project that is proposed in response to a legal requirement

Explanation: A project that is proposed in response to a legal requirement is the most likely to be approved because non-compliance can be very costly. There is insufficient information to determine if there is any likelihood that a project proposed in response to a business opportunity, business problem, or technological advance would take precedence. [section 4.3.3]

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6
Q

The Project Manager and his team are deciding what tools and techniques they will use for the Collect Requirements process. Of the following, which are the most likely tools and techniques they will use?

(A) Questionnaires and surveys, facilitated workshops, focus groups, and interviews
(B) Questionnaires and surveys, direction from the key stakeholders, focus groups, and interviews
(C) Questionnaires and surveys, facilitated workshops, direction from the key stakeholders, and interviews
(D) Questionnaires and surveys, facilitated workshops, expert judgment, focus groups, and interviews

A

Correct Answer: (A) Questionnaires and surveys, facilitated workshops, focus groups, and interviews

Explanation: The key tools and techniques used during the Collect Requirements process are questionnaires and surveys, facilitated workshops, focus groups, group creativity techniques, group decision making techniques, observations, prototypes, and interviews. [section 5.1]

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7
Q

The Project Manager is creating an estimate for a data warehouse. This is something he is quite experienced at. The client needs the estimate quickly. Which of the following types of estimates is he likely to provide?

(A) Analogous
(B) Gut feel
(C) Bottom-up
(D) Parametric

A

Correct Answer: (A) Analogous

Explanation: The analogous estimate is also considered a top-down estimate. It can be quickly created because it is based on expert knowledge of an area from previous projects. Parametric is an estimating technique that uses parameters, such as so much time per unit. A bottom-up estimate is created by the team and can take time to create because of the details. “Gut feel” is noise. [section 6.3.2]

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8
Q

The project is using some application and database servers in the development environment. The finance department explains that the servers will be depreciated using the double declining balance (DDB) format. This is an example of what?

(A) Fixed cost
(B) Fixed direct cost
(C) Accelerated depreciation
(D) Standard depreciation

A

Correct Answer: (C) Accelerated depreciation
Explanation: Double declining balance and sum of the digits are both examples of accelerated depreciation. DDB is not standard depreciation. The other answers are noise. [section 7.7.2]

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9
Q

In testing, special cause variations should be eliminated in a timely manner. How should common cause variations be addressed?

(A) Common cause variations should be ignored
(B) Common cause variations should be addressed through long-term process improvements
(C) Common cause variations should also be eliminated in a timely manner
(D) Common cause variations should be addressed before special cause variations

A

Correct Answer: (B) Common cause variations should be addressed through long-term process improvements
Explanation: Common cause variations, also caused normal process variations or random causes, should be addressed through long-term process improvements. [section 8.10.14]

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10
Q

The Project Manager role is evolving from its focus on planning, directing, and organizing to…?

(A) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, cross-training, coaching, and motivating
(B) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, coaching, mentoring, and motivating
(C) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, coaching, and motivating
(D) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, cross-training, coaching, mentoring, and motivating

A

Correct Answer: (C) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, coaching, and motivating

Explanation: The Project Manager role is evolving from its focus on planning, directing, and organizing to evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, coaching, and motivating. [section 9.1.8]

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11
Q

There are five basic performance reports. Of the following, which best describes the contents of a progress report?

(A) Information related to the state of the schedule, budget, and scope of the project at various parts of time
(B) Information related to the difference between planned and actual occurrences
(C) Information related to future project occurrences
(D) Information related to recent project occurrences

A

Correct Answer: (D) Information related to recent project occurrences

Explanation:The progress report shows what has been completed since the last reporting period. The forecast report shows what is expected to occur on the project. The status report shows where the project is to date. The variance report shows the difference between planned and unplanned occurrences. The earned valued report shows the state of the schedule, budget, and scope of the project at various points in time. [section 10.7.1]

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12
Q

A film distribution company involved in global expansion has a chief marketing officer who is familiar with cutting edge marketing techniques and strategies. The marketing project for the expansion is set to rollout in 10 countries via the internet and wetube. It’s discovered that the chief marketing officer has been embezzling from the company for the last 90 days to help a terminally ill relative. Senior management is extremely concerned because this person knows more about this type of campaign than anyone in the industry and it doesn’t want to impact the company negatively. During risk management execution, which of the following best represents a transference strategy?

(A) Allow him to remain at the company because the embezzlement was not done for personal gain
(B) Allow him to remain in his position and reimburse the company for the amount embezzled plus all incidental expenses
(C) Terminate him, file felony theft charges, and have someone different run the campaign
(D) Terminate him and outsource the marketing function to an ad agency

A

Correct Answer: (D) Terminate him and outsource the marketing function to an ad agency

Explanation: Outsourcing the work is a transference strategy. Allowing him to stay at the company and pay back the amount represents an attempt to mitigate (or minimize) risk, but it could still occur. An avoidance strategy is the strategy that eliminates the risk, i.e. terminating him to eliminate further exposure and having someone else run the campaign is the best answer in terms of an avoidance strategy. Allowing him to stay because he did not use the money for personal gain would be to accept (or tolerate) the risk. [section 11.6.5]

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13
Q

Of the following, which best describes the purpose of the contract management plan?

(A) Provides guidance for contract interpretation
(B) Provides guidance for validating that the work of the contract is complete
(C) Provides guidance for approving any special provisions to the contract
(D) Provides guidance for contract execution

A

Correct Answer: (B) Provides guidance for validating that the work of the contract is complete

Explanation: The Contract Management Plan helps the Project Manager and team do the following: define the rules for archiving contract documentation (contract file); establish payments for the work of the contract; address changes to the contract; validate that the work of the contract is complete; and close the contract when work is completed. [section 12.2.4]

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14
Q

A Project Manager has been contracted by a company to manage development of a software game. The Project Manager discovers that half the software developers are contractors and do not have legal software licenses. What should the Project Manager do in this case?

(A) Report this violation to the company’s senior management
(B) Report this violation to PMI
(C) Call the software vendor
(D) Fill out a Software Piracy Report

A

Correct Answer: (A) Report this violation to the company’s senior management

Explanation: It is senior management’s responsibility to provide the correct number of software licenses for the contractors or enforce that they work with legal licenses as per terms of use for the software they need. Reporting to PMI, filling out a Software Piracy Report, and calling the software vendor are noise. [section 13.2.1]

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15
Q

The data warehouse project is about halfway complete at a major retail client. Your company is doing the implementation and has twelve team members in various locations across three different buildings. Communication and team-building has been a real challenge. Which of the following would fix or improve this problem?

(A) Changing the organization to a functional structure
(B) Co-location
(C) Replacing the Project Manager
(D) Hiring Project Coordinators

A

Correct Answer: (B) Co-location

Explanation: Co-location is the process of putting personnel closer together or in the same room to help with team-building and project communication. [section 3.8]

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16
Q

The Project Manager and his team have just started the Perform Integrated Change Control process for a high profile project. They are carefully considering all the inputs to make certain that the process is conducted successfully. Which of the following is not an input to this process?

(A) Work performance information
(B) Change control meetings
(C) Change requests
(D) The project management plan

A

Correct Answer: (B) Change control meetings

Explanation: “Change control meetings” is a tool and technique of the Perform Integrated Change Control process. All others are inputs. [section 4.7]

17
Q

In defining a milestone, which of the following is most correct?

(A) It defines the phase of a project
(B) It has a duration of no more than one day
(C) It has a duration of zero (0)
(D) It has value in the project charter but not in the plan

A

Correct Answer: (C) It has a duration of zero (0)

Explanation: The milestone has a duration of zero. The milestone is typically used to define the completion of a series of activities. The other answers are noise. [section 5.7]

18
Q

The Project Manager is creating an estimate for building a company WAN (wide area network). It is something that is new to the Project Manager and his team. They decide to create a bottom-up estimate. All the following are advantages of this type of estimate except…

(A) It provides supporting detail of the estimate.
(B) It provides team buy-in when they help create it.
(C) It takes a great amount of time to create.
(D) There is a greater degree of accuracy because of the detail at which it was created.

A

Correct Answer: (C) It takes a great amount of time to create

Explanation: All the answers are characteristic of the bottom-up estimate. Taking a great amount of time to create is not an advantage of the estimate. [section 6.3.2]

19
Q

The project team is developing rules for reporting updates on the project. The majority of their activities are less than two reporting periods long. Which format is best to use in this case?

(A) Fixed formula progress reporting
(B) Weighted milestone
(C) Earned value
(D) Forecast reporting

A

Correct Answer: (A) Fixed formula progress reporting

Explanation: Fixed formula uses a partial credit approach such as 50/50 and is ideal when an activity is short, such as less than two reporting periods long. The weighted milestone approach is ideal when an activity is over two reporting periods in length. Earned value shows the status of the scope, time, and cost of the project. Forecast reporting focuses on what is getting ready to be done on the project. [section 7.9]

20
Q

The company is in the testing phase of its project. It is tracking defects discovered by customers who are testing the project. Given the nature of a new project, a variety of defects are being discovered. Organizing and prioritizing the defects is becoming a challenge. What tool helps organize this type of information and why?

(A) The Pareto diagram is a cumulative history of issues prioritized by frequency
(B) The Flowchart is a cumulative history of issues prioritized by impact on the project
(C) A run chart is a cumulative history of issues prioritized by frequency
(D) A scatter diagram is a cumulative history of issues prioritized by impact on the project

A

Correct Answer: (A) The Pareto diagram is a cumulative history of issues prioritized by frequency

Explanation: The Pareto diagram shows frequency of defects in a graphical format. The flowchart shows process flow. The run chart shows process output over time. The scatter diagram shows a pattern between two variables associated with a process. [section 8.8.18, 8.10.9, 8.10.10, and 8.10.11]