CW Questions 03 Flashcards
Of the following, which are the key tools and techniques of the Acquire Project Team process?
(A) Acquisition, negotiation, interpersonal skills, pre-assignment, and virtual teams
(B) Acquisition, negotiation, pre-assignment, and virtual teams
(C) Acquisition, negotiation, networking, pre-assignment, and virtual teams
(D) Acquisition, negotiation, interpersonal skills, networking, pre- assignment, and virtual teams
Correct Answer: (B) Acquisition, negotiation, pre-assignment, and virtual teams
Explanation: The key tools and techniques of the Acquire Project Team process are acquisition, negotiation, pre-assignment, and virtual teams. [section 9.2]
The Project Manager has scheduled several meetings to facilitate information sharing with the project management team and the customer. The meetings have been unorganized, chaotic, and lacking direction. Which of the following would improve the meetings?
(A) Determine who is in charge of the meeting
(B) Send the team to communication training
(C) Create and publish an agenda, and establish the leader of the meeting
(D) Create and publish an agenda
Correct Answer: (C) Create and publish an agenda, and establish the leader of the meeting.
Explanation: Creating and publishing an agenda and knowing who is in charge of a meeting are two ways to have a highly organized effective meeting. Though the project manager may organize a meeting, he or she may not necessarily be in charge of the meeting, as it sometimes the case with highly technical subject matter. [section 10.5.5]
The construction company has been awarded a $40M contract to build an upscale community shopping center. Of the following, which is the best example of an exploit type of risk response strategy?
(A) The company hires illegal aliens and pays them only 25% of the salary received by documented workers
(B) The company realizes the adjoining land will increase in value upon completion of the project, so it purchases the adjoining land at current prices
(C) The company purchases materials below the grade specified in the contract, although satisfying local building standards
(D) The company hires illegal aliens and pays them scale, but does not provide the benefits given to the union workers
Correct Answer: (B) The company realizes the adjoining land will increase in value upon completion of the project, so it purchases the adjoining land at current prices
Explanation: Having the project team assist in the creation of the WBS has a number of positive benefits. The most positive benefit is obtaining buy-in from the people doing the work. Though the WBS is reviewed later in the Planning process group to create the budget and schedule, it is the team’s buy-in (and experience) that drives the accuracy of all future documents. As a minor point, schedule and budget are equally important, and thus neither answer by itself could be the “best” answer. Authority comes from the project charter. [section 5.3.1]
The project will be using a company to provide the technicians for a national network upgrade project. The buyer of the solution is providing a design scope of work to the seller. Of the following, which is the most logical reason this scope was selected?
(A) The buyer knows exactly what is needed and wants no variance from the specifications
(B) The buyer’s only concern is that the vendor achieves the required goals
(C) The buyer must have the solution in place within a tight time-frame and needs the vendor to conform to a rigid schedule
(D) The buyer does not have the personnel to ensure that each step in the process is completed according to specifications
Correct Answer: (A) The buyer knows exactly what is needed and wants no variance from the specifications
Explanation: A design scope of work shows specifically what is to be created. The functionality scope of work shows the general functional specifications that the outcome of the project needs to have when complete. The other answers are noise. [section 12.1.9]
When determining if a project needs to continue or be altered, what is the number one question that a Project Manager should ask about the project?
(A) What is contained in the project management plan?
(B) What is contained in the project charter?
(C) Why is the project being done or what is the business need?
(D) What is contained in the statement of work?
Correct Answer: (C) Why is the project being done or what is the business need?
Explanation: Determining why the project being done or determining the business need fulfilled by the project takes precedence over the contents of the project charter and the project management plan. “What does the statement of work say” is noise. [section 13.5.1]
The Functional Manager is planning the billing system replacement project with the newest Project Manager at the company. In discussing this project, the Functional Manager focuses on the cost associated with running the system after it is created and the number of years the system will last before it must be replaced. What best describes what the Functional Manager is focusing on? (A) Project life cycle (B) Product life cycle (C) Project management life cycle (D) Program management life cycle
Correct Answer: (B) Product life cycle
Explanation: The product life cycle focuses on the overall ownership cost of the product of the project, not just the project cost to create the product. The project life cycle involves the processes used to create the product of the project such as the steps to build a house or a computer system. The project management life cycle is the project management approach to the project. “Program management life cycle” is noise. [section 3.1]
The project will be starting the Executing process group next week. The project sponsor and Project Manager have a meeting scheduled with the team and the business units that are impacted by the project. They explain what is expected to occur on the project and how each of the people can help contribute to the success of the project. What is this event called?
(A) Kickoff meeting to officially start the project
(B) An integral part of the team building effort
(C) Perform quality assurance and verify scope
(D) Project management plan development
Correct Answer: (A) Kickoff meeting to officially start the project
Explanation: The kickoff meeting is what is commonly used on a project to formally start the project and it can occur at the beginning of planning or executing depending on priority or approach. It allows the sponsor to set expectations, and the team to learn about details of the plan. Team building occurs in the Executing process group, but it’s not as definitive an answer as kickoff meeting. Project management plan development produces a project management plan. “Perform Quality Assurance and Verify Scope” are noise. [section 4.3.2]
All the following are true about a work breakdown structure (WBS) except…
(A) The project management team and the Project Manager should be involved in creating it. (B) It will resemble an organizational chart in appearance when complete. (C) Activity sequencing of WBS components requires parallel or concurrent dependencies. (D) It is a decomposition of the work of the project.
Correct Answer: (C) Activity sequencing of WBS components requires parallel or concurrent dependencies.
Explanation: Answer C is noise because it makes no logical sense. The other answers are characteristic of a work breakdown structure (WBS). [section 5.3.1]
Of the following, which is the most accurate description of the difference between the Critical Chain Method and the Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)?
(A) The Critical Chain Method emphasizes resource leveling and compression and PERT emphasizes task scheduling (B) PERT emphasizes resource flexibility and leveling and the Critical Chain Method emphasizes task order and rigid scheduling (C) The Critical Chain Method emphasizes resource flexibility and leveling and PERT emphasizes task order and rigid scheduling (D) PERT emphasizes resource leveling and compression and the Critical Chain Method emphasizes task scheduling
Correct Answer (C) The Critical Chain Method emphasizes resource flexibility and leveling and PERT emphasizes task order and rigid scheduling
Explanation: CPM emphasizes resource flexibility and leveling and PERT emphasizes task order and rigid scheduling. [section 6.5.11]
The project is using a new server that cost $25,000. The Project Manager is told to set up depreciation for the server over a five-year schedule, with the server having a value of $0 at the end of five years. Standard depreciation will be used in the calculation. What is the amount per year the server will depreciate?
(A) $5,000 (B) $10,000 (C) $2,500 (D) Not enough information
Correct Answer: (A) $5,000
Explanation: To calculate this value, determine a few values first. What is the value of the asset at the end of the schedule? What is the amount of the asset to begin with? What is the number of years of the depreciation schedule? First, subtract the ending value of the asset from the beginning value of the asset ($25K-$0=$25K). The $25K is then divided by the years (5) of the depreciation schedule. This calculation results in $5K per year of depreciation. [section 7.7.1]
While establishing an overall picture of process output over time, the team plots a chart based on the data available. The plotted chart has seven consecutive data points on one side of the mean. What can be determined from the plotted chart?
(A) The control limits are too tight (B) The control limits are acceptable (C) The control limits are too loose (D) None of the answers
Correct Answer: (D) None of the answers
Explanation:The Seven Run Rule has been violated so none of the answers are correct. [section 8.10.12]
The Project Manager is taking a leave of absence and the company has just designated his replacement. The new Project Manager is known as a director. Of the following, which best describes negative characteristics of this type of manager?
(A) This style of management is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner (B) This style of management is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project (C) This style of management is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise in the project (D) This style of management is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles which may create quality issues
Correct Answer: (C) This style of management is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise in the project
Explanation: The director is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise. The facilitator is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner. The visionary is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project. The mentor is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles which may create quality issues. [section 9.1.8]
Of the following, which are the key outputs of the Manage Stakeholder Expectations process?
(A) Resolved issues, approved change requests, and updated stakeholder registry (B) Resolved issues, approved corrective actions, and updated stakeholder registry (C) Resolved issues, approved change requests, approved corrective actions, and updated stakeholder registry (D) None of the answers
Correct Answer: (D) None of the answers
Explanation: Answers A, B, and C are noise. [section 10.6]
The Project Manager is discussing risk with a risk-averse stakeholder regarding the market expansion project. The stakeholder has been exposed to project management concepts, but wants to know more about management reserves. The Project Manager explains that management reserves are created specifically for…
(A) Risk events you know can occur on the project (B) Risk events you cannot logically forecast for the project (C) Risk events that do occur with a cumulative cost greater than the amount set aside in management reserves (D) Risk events that do occur with a cumulative cost greater than the amount set aside in contingency reserves
Correct Answer: (B) Risk events you cannot forecast for the project
Explanation: Management reserves are created for unknown unknowns: risk events you cannot forecast for the project. Contingency reserves are created for known unknowns: risk events you know can occur during the project. The other answers are noise. [section 11.6]
Of the following, what best represents a contract component and the reason for including it in a contract between a buyer and vendor in connection with the purchase of a debit card add-on system?
(A) Share because the buyer needs the work done in a timely manner (B) Incentive because the buyer needs the costs to come in as low as possible (C) Incentive because the buyer needs the work done with minimal resources (D) Share because the buyer needs the costs to come in as low as possible
Correct Answer: (D) Share because the buyer needs the costs to come in as low as possible
Explanation: A share is a contract component that divides any remaining money between the buyer and the seller. It is normally a negotiated split between the two parties. It is typically different from a traditional incentive fee in that an incentive fee pays compensation based on certain measurable performance metrics that have been established and agreed upon. [section 12.1.7]
