CW Questions 13 Flashcards

1
Q

You are the Project Manager on a defense project and are creating a network diagram. Activity A (3 days) and Activity B (6 days) can start immediately. Activity C (2 days) can start after Activity A is complete. Activity D (1 day) and Activity F (2 days) can start after Activity B is complete. Activity E (4 days) can start after Activity C and Activity D are complete. Activity G (5 days) can start after Activity D and Activity F are complete. When Activity E and Activity G are complete, the project is done. What is the critical path?

(A) BDE
 	(B) ACE
(C) BFG
(D) BDG
A

Correct Answer: (C) BFG

Explanation: The critical path is the longest path in the diagram. Of the four paths, BFG is the longest at 13 days. ACE is nine days long. BDE is 11 days. BDG is 12 days. [section 6.5.7]

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2
Q

The project Planning process group is progressing. The team has involved the accounting department to set up a system of codes that the accounting department will use to track work on the project. This is known as what?

(A) Accounting codes
 	(B) WBS numbering
(C) Determine Budget
(D) Chart of accounts
A

Correct Answer: (D) Chart of accounts

Explanation: The chart of accounts sets up codes that will be used to track project cost. The other answers are noise. [section 7.13.1]

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3
Q

The Project Manager of the On-line Loan Application Interface project instructs his team to ensure that the Perform Quality Assurance process is performed thoroughly. What is involved in this process?

(A) Auditing the quality processes to ensure appropriate standards are	used
 	(B) Identifying quality requirements for the project and product, and	auditing them appropriately
(C) Implementing predefined and validated methodologies to recording the 	results of quality activities
(D) Evaluating proposed quality initiatives considering factors such as	expected customer satisfaction, the cost of conformance, and the cost of	non-conformance
A

Correct Answer: (A) Auditing the quality processes to ensure that appropriate standards are used
Explanation: This is the generally-accepted definition of the Perform Quality Assurance process. All other answers are noise. [section 8.9]

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4
Q

The project has had some challenges. Members of the team have needed constant supervision to perform the activities for which they are responsible, they do not seem to trust management, and often appear unmotivated. This is an example of what?

(A) Insufficient team building
 	(B) Theory X environment
(C) Insufficient project team training
(D) Theory Y environment
A

Correct Answer: (B) Theory X environment
Explanation: Typically in a Theory X environment, employees must be told what to do, have distrust for management, and lack motivation. Theory Y is the opposite. The other answers are noise. [section 9.1.5]

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5
Q

All the following are examples of communication requirements on a project except…
(A) Project status meeting time and location
(B) The product functionality required by the primary customer.
(C) Steps to take regarding a project change request
(D) Names and contact information for the members of the project change control board

A

Correct Answer: (B) The product functionality required by the primary customer.
Explanation: Project status meeting time and location, steps to take regarding a project change request, and contact information for the members of the CCB are all communication requirements on a project. Product functionality is communicated using some type of Requirements documentation. Notice that this answer does not indicate how or when or how often the product requirements will or should be communicated. [section 10.5]

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6
Q

As part of professional and social responsibility, a Project Manager must balance the stakeholder’s interests. To ensure this success, the Project Manager will potentially address these areas except…

(A) Communicate the impact and options associated with changes.  
 	(B) Decide which customer-requested changes will be implemented. 
(C) Do not tell customer "no." 
(D) Listen to wishes of the customer.
A

Correct Answer: (B) Decide which customer-requested changes will be implemented
Explanation: The customer should determine what changes should be implemented. The Project Manager’s job is to provide options to the customer. [section 13.2]

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7
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of a projectized organization?
(A) Business unit competency
(B) Optimization for a single focus on the project
(C) Having to get approval from Functional Management
(D) A place to go when the project is complete

A

Correct Answer: (B) Optimization for a single focus on the project

Explanation: Optimization for a single focus on the project means that the team can focus on what the work of the project is and usually only that. The other answers are associated with functional organizations. [section 3.6.2]

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8
Q

The Project Manager and his team are in the planning stage of the retooling project and they are making assumptions for scheduling and budgeting. Of the following, what is the most likely source for the assumptions they will make?

(A) Pertinent human resource and procurement records
 	(B) Lessons learned from prior projects
(C) Resource list and chart of accounts
(D) Expert judgment and functional management input
A

Correct Answer: (B) Lessons learned from prior projects

Explanation: Lessons learned is a source often used for making assumptions about any facet of a project. The other answers are noise. [section 4.4.2]

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9
Q

The Verify Scope process has been started at the end of phase 3 of the project. The main deliverable was sent to the customer. Three weeks have passed and the customer acts as if the deliverable was never received. Which of the following is the best action to take?

(A) Stop work on the project until the customer acknowledges and approves the deliverable.
(B) Ask the sponsor for assistance.
(C) Document the issue in the issue log.
(D) Ask the customer’s supervisor why the deliverable has not been acknowledged.

A

Correct Answer: (B) Ask the sponsor for assistance.

Explanation: If the customer is not responding and the Project Manager has already communicated with him, then the sponsor is the role that should provide assistance, particularly since this is an escalation issue. Stopping work and asking the customer’s supervisor is unprofessional. Documenting the issue and doing nothing else is inappropriate because a Project Manager should be proactive in addressing problems. [section 5.4]

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10
Q

You and a fellow Project Manager are having a discussion about his project. He says its network diagram has two paths that have the maximum duration of 32 units. He also says there is no critical path because the longest paths are the same length and there can only be one critical path. Which of the following is a true statement?

(A) You can have more than one critical path, but they are the longest paths on the project, and having more than one critical path increases your project risk.
(B) The critical path is the shortest path on the project.
(C) You can have more than one critical path, but they are the longest paths on the project, and having more than one critical path decreases your project risk.

(D) You can have more than one critical path, but they are the shortest paths not the longest

A

Correct Answer: (A) You can have more than one critical path, but they are the longest paths on the project, and having more than one critical path increases your project risk.

Explanation: The critical path is the longest path on the project. If you have more than one path of identical length, you have multiple critical paths. The more of them you have, the riskier the project is. [section 6.5.7]

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11
Q

The Planning process group is progressing. The team has involved a number of expert opinions in trying to approximate the costs needed to complete project activities. This process is known as?

(A) Determine Budget
 	(B) Control Costs
(C) Analogous Estimating
(D) Estimate Costs
A

Correct Answer: (D) Estimate Costs

Explanation: Estimate Costs obtains an approximation of the resource costs for activities or work packages. Determine Budget sums the costs to the individual work packages or activities to establish an authorized cost baseline. Control Costs manages the cost of the project. “Analogous estimating” is noise. [section 7.11]

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12
Q

The company that won the procurement contract is providing additional functionality and reporting in an effort to win more business from the customer. Which of the following best describes this situation?

(A) The company is gold plating which is a good practice because it	increases the prospect of being awarded future contracts with that	customer 
 	(B) The company is gold plating which is not a good practice because it	creates unreasonable expectations on the part of the customer
(C) The company is gold plating which is a good practice because it	exceeds the standard of delivering the exact product, service, or result 	that is finalized in the project charter
(D) The company is gold plating which is not a good practice because it	violates the standard of delivering the exact product, service, or result 	that is finalized in the project charter
A

Correct Answer: (D) The company is gold plating which is not a good practice because it violates the standard of delivering the exact product, service, or result that is finalized in the project charter

Explanation: The company is gold plating which is not a good practice because it violates the standard of delivering the exact product, service, or result that is finalized in the project charter. Gold plating is a form of scope creep. The other answers are noise. [section 8.7]

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13
Q

The Project Manager is taking a leave of absence and the company has just designated his replacement. The new Project Manager is known as a facilitator. Of the following, which best describes negative characteristics of this type of manager?

(A) This style of management is not proactive and may fail to avert	issues in a timely manner
 	(B) This style of management is focused more on the big picture than the 	details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project 
(C) This style of management is focused on specific activities and goals 	and may fail to see opportunities that arise in the project 
(D) This style of management is focused on helping employees take on	new skills and roles which may create quality issues
A

Correct Answer: (A) This style of management is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner

Explanation: The facilitator is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner. The visionary is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project. The director is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise. The mentor is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles which may create quality issues. [section 9.1.8]

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14
Q

Of the following, which are the key tools available for use during the Distribute Information process?

(A) Communication methods and information distribution tools
 	(B) Communication model, communication methods, and information	distribution tools
(C) Communication model, communications processes, communication	methods, and information distribution tools
(D) Communication model, communications processes, communication	blockers, communication methods, and information distribution tools
A

Correct Answer: (A) Communication methods and information distribution tools

Explanation: Communication methods and information distribution tools are the key tools cited for the Distribute Information process. [section 10.5]

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15
Q

The database project team members are planning the project. They are involved in Plan Risk Responses, assigning risk owners. What is the risk owner responsible for?

(A) Watching for additional risks on the project
 	(B) Watching for risk triggers and telling the Project Manager if they occur
(C) Letting the Project Manager know that the risk has occurred
(D) Implementing a risk response if the risk event occurs
A

Correct Answer: (D) Implementing a risk response if the risk event occurs

Explanation: Risk owners are responsible for implementing the risk response assigned to them. Watching for additional risks on the project could fall under the responsibility of a risk owner, but isn’t the main responsibility. Letting the Project Manager know that a risk event has occurred isn’t the main responsibility of the risk owner. Watching for risk triggers and telling the Project Manager if they occur isn’t taking a proactive approach to risk or project management. [section 11.6.4]

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16
Q

Why is a cost-plus-percentage of cost contract bad for the buyer?

(A) It provides no reason for the seller to control cost. 
 	(B) It provides no reason for the buyer to control cost. 
(C) It requires the seller to audit all costs incurred. 
(D) It requires use of a more detailed request for proposal (RFP).
A

Correct Answer: (A) It provides no reason for the seller to control cost.

Explanation: In a cost-plus-percentage of cost contract, the seller is paid a fee that is a percentage of the total cost. As a result of this characteristic of the contract, there is no incentive for the seller to control cost. The other answers are noise. [section 12.1.6]

17
Q

A Project Manager has been contacted by PMI to investigate a complaint against the company’s most experienced senior Project Manager. The Project Manager reports this contact to the senior Project Manager. Of the following actions, which best describes what the Project Manager must do?

(A) The Project Manager must do what senior management has requested
 	(B) The Project Manager must protect his manager
(C) The Project Manager must take 5th amendment to protect his 	manager and the company
(D) The Project Manager must cooperate with PMI
A

Correct Answer: (D) The Project Manager must cooperate with PMI

Explanation: The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct requires that a Project Manager cooperate with PMI during investigations. [section 13.2.5]

18
Q

What is the name of the comprehensive document created during the Planning process group?

(A) Project charter
 	(B) Project Scope Statement
(C) Project management plan
(D) A signed contract
A

Correct Answer: (C) Project management plan

Explanation: The main output of the Planning process group is the project management plan. The project charter comes from Initiation. The project scope statement is created during the Planning process group, but it’s far less comprehensive than the project management plan. “A signed contract” is noise. [section 3.4.1]

19
Q

During the Monitor and Control Project Work process for the Meaningful Curriculum project, the Project Manager and his team are considering performance information. Of the following, which best describes what they will do with this information?

(A) Document and track the information
 	(B) Collect, measure, and interpret the information
(C) Determine who will have access to the information
(D) All of the answers
A

Correct Answer: (A) Project schedule, project management plan, and work performance information

Explanation: The key inputs to the Control Schedule Process are the project schedule, the project management plan, and work performance information. [section 6.6]

20
Q

Which of the following is an example of fixed formula status reporting?

(A) Getting status updates from the project team
 	(B) PV multiplied by % complete
(C) The Project Manager updating the status reports quantitatively
(D) 30%/70% rule
A

Correct Answer: (D) 30%/70% rule

Explanation: The 30%/70% rule is an example of fixed formula progress reporting. It means that when the activity starts, it is given a 30% complete status and will not receive the remaining 70% until it is fully complete. PV x % Complete is the formula for earned value. The other answers are noise. [section 7.9]