CW Questions 10

Question 1

To improve efficiencies for the technical infrastructure project, the Project Manager has decided to apply resource leveling while building the schedule. Of the following, which is the best description of what he’ll be doing?

(A) Reviewing the logic bar chart to determine the optimal assignment of resources

(B) Obtaining an optimal balance between delivery deadlines and resource utilization

(C) Reviewing a resource allocation chart for peaks and valleys and making adjustments to create a level use of resources

(D) Tracking the day to day details of the project so he can reassign resources as needed

Answer 1

Correct Answer: (C) Reviewing a resource allocation chart for peaks and valleys and making adjustments to create a level use of resources

Explanation: Resource leveling consists of reviewing a resource allocation chart for peaks and valleys and making adjustments to create a level use of resources. Applying resource leveling and schedule compression helps the PM obtain an optimal balance between delivery deadlines and resource utilization. The other answers are noise. [section 6.5.12]

Question 2

The project team is planning an upgrade to a client’s Web site and infrastructure. During Planning, the team discovers the need for a data communications line to connect to the servers. What type of cost is this?

(A) Direct

(B) Indirect

(C) Variable

(D) Indirect fixed

Answer 2

Correct Answer: (A) Direct

Explanation: The data communication line is a direct cost. It is something purchased directly for the project. It is not an indirect or variable cost. [section 7.1]

Question 3

The finance department is building a call center for its new auto finance division. The Project Manager and his team completed a model project management plan. What component of the plan will they most likely reference during the project’s Perform Quality Control process?

(A) Detailed process improvement plan

(B) Clearly defined standards of acceptable completion criteria

(C) Complete testing matrix developed for auto loan call centers

(D) Acceptable quality management methodology specifics

Answer 3

Correct Answer: (B) Clearly defined standards of acceptable completion criteria

Explanation: A complete project management contains clearly defined standards of acceptable completion criteria which is the primary reason the project management plan is helpful during the Perform Quality Control process. [section 4.4 and 8.10]

Question 4

The Project Manager of the systems upgrade project uses a variety of power types. Which of the following is an example of Penalty power?

(A) The Project Manager instructs the team leaders to prepare status reports for the weekly meeting

(B) The Project Manager takes the most productive team member to lunch at an expensive restaurant

(C) The Project Manager announces that those who do not complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus

(D) The Project Manager’s degree and prior work experience were in systems engineering

Answer 4

Correct Answer: (C) The Project Manager announces that those who do not complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus

Explanation: Penalty power comes from the Project Manager’s ability to penalize an employee when his work is inadequate. Formal power is derived from the project charter for the Project Manager. Reward power comes from the Project Manager’s ability to reward an employee for good work. Expert power derives from expertise in a discipline. [section 9.1.10]

Question 5

Stakeholder management strategy entails managing to increase support from and minimize the negative impact of stakeholders. Project Managers often create an analysis matrix as a strategy tool during the Identify Stakeholders process. What are typical matrix entries?

(A) Stakeholder name, level of interest in the project, level of impact on the project, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact

(B) Stakeholder name, level of interest in the project, political influence within the organization, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact

(C) Stakeholder name, level of interest in the project, level of impact on the project, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact, requirements for level of communication

(D) Stakeholder name, level of interest in the project, political influence within the organization, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact, requirements for level of communication

Answer 5

Correct Answer: (A) Stakeholder name, level of interest in the project, level of impact on the project, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact

Explanation: The stakeholder analysis matrix typically contains the stakeholder name, level of interest in the project, level of impact on the project, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact. The other answers are noise. [section 10.3.2]

Question 6

In response to economic and market changes, the company is moving from a conservative strategy to a more market-driven strategy. As a result of this change, the company has just approved a project that aligns with the new strategy. A number of the stakeholders, however, are still risk-averse. The Project Manager is meeting with them to explain his risk management plan. The stakeholders are very interested in the concept of a risk review. Which of the following best describes a risk review?

(A) The process of determining the project risks

(B) The process of determining the characteristics of the project risks

(C) The process of determining the validity of the documented risks and looking for new risks that could occur

(D) The process of determining who will implement a risk response plan

Answer 6

Correct Answer: (C) The process of determining the validity of the documented risks and looking for any new risks that could occur

Explanation: Risk reviews verify that the risks are still valid and that no new risks have appeared on the project. The other answers come before or after risk reviews. [section 11.3.4]

Question 7

All the following are reasons for outsourcing work except…

(A) Your company doesn’t possess the skills needed for the work

(B) Your company doesn’t have excessive capacity for the work

(C) Your company isn’t concerned about protecting the information associated with the work

(D) Your company has excessive capacity for the work

Answer 7

Correct Answer: (D) Your company has excessive capacity for the work.

Explanation: Excessive capacity to do work is a good reason not to outsource the work. The other answers are good reasons to outsource the work. [section 12.1.2]

Question 8

Your project needs a video editing software program. The client has given you this project to test your ability to deliver. It doesn’t pay that much, but if you do well, you will likely get more projects from the client worth a lot more money. Your budget on the project doesn’t allow you the luxury of buying this software. What is the best way to acquire the software?

(A) Order a copy from the company or an authorized reseller

(B) Get a copy from a friend and buy it for future projects if needed again

(C) Use a demo copy from the software company

(D) Download a copy from a file sharing system

Answer 8

Correct Answer: (A) Order a copy from the company or an authorized reseller

Explanation: The PMI Theory Pill in this area says that if you need more time and money to do the project, you get more time and money. Thus, if the software costs money, buy the software. Don’t try to circumvent copyrights by using demos even if provided by the software company. Software that is created by someone else should be purchased and the license terms and conditions followed. Such terms and conditions often define how copies, demo copies, and file sharing systems are to be used with the software. [section 13.2.2]

Question 9

Which of the following is not an example of organizational culture and style?

(A) Accepting the majority of change requests the customer submits

(B) Working long hours, taking work home, and working weekends

(C) Empowering local managers to make most significant decisions

(D) Focusing most product development on a specific market segment

Answer 9

Correct Answer: (D) Focusing most product development on a specific market segment

Explanation: Focusing on a particular market is more a strategic business decision than a cultural aspect. All other answers are examples of the pervasive aspects of organizational culture. [section 3.6]

Question 10

The team has just completed the process of evaluating how the project went. The team members analyzed what worked well and what didn’t. They evaluated the Planning and Executing. They documented how the sponsor and senior management supported the project. What process did they perform?

(A) Compiling lessons learned

(B) Closing the project or phase

(C) Directing and managing project execution

(D) Monitoring and controlling the project

Answer 10

Correct Answer: (B) Closing the project or phase

Explanation: They completed closing the project or phase which is in the Closing process group. The activities described in the question are lessons learned. Controlling and Executing have already occurred. [section 4.8]

Question 11

The project team has just begun the Validate Scope process. Of the following, what are the inputs they will consider?

(A) Requirements traceability matrix, verified deliverables, project scope statement, and project management plan

(B) Requirements traceability matrix, work performance information, verified deliverables, project scope statement, and project management plan

(C) Requirements traceability matrix, work performance information, verified deliverables, requirements documentation, and project management plan

(D) Requirements traceability matrix, verified deliverables, requirements documentation, and project management plan

Answer 11

Correct Answer: (D) Requirements traceability matrix, verified deliverables, requirements documentation, and project management plan

Explanation: The Validate Scope process inputs are the requirements traceability matrix, verified deliverables, requirements documentation, and project management plan. The other answers are noise. [section 5.4]

Question 12

Of the following, which best describes a milestone schedule?

(A) A high level schedule that typically accompanies schedule variance reports

(B) A high level schedule typically prepared for executives

(C) A high level schedule typically used to determine the critical path

(D) A high level schedule typically used in daily briefings with the project team

Answer 12

Correct Answer: (B) A high level schedule typically prepared for executives

Explanation: A milestone schedule is high level schedule typically prepared for executives. The milestone schedule records a 0 duration for each milestone. [section 6.5.14]

Question 13

The infrastructure project is behind schedule and over budget. So far, $3M has been spent on the project. The sponsor is considering if it should allow the project to continue. What should he consider the $3M that has been spent so far?

(A) The amount for Phase 1

(B) Sunk cost

(C) The budgeted cost of work performed

(D) Opportunity cost

Answer 13

Correct Answer: (B) Sunk cost

Explanation: Sunk cost is one that has already been spent on the project. It shouldn’t be taken into consideration when determining whether to continue on the project. There is nothing in the situation about phasing the project. The budgeted cost of work performed is the earned value (EV). Opportunity cost doesn’t apply here. [section 7.6]

Question 14

The project is going through Perform Quality Assurance. Which of the following is a key tool that will be utilized in this process?

(A) Cost benefit analysis which are used to analyze how to minimize rework due to lack of quality and how to maximize satisfaction and productivity

(B) Quality audits which help verify process and output compliance

(C) Quality analysis which is used to optimize project execution and achieve high process quality

(D) Quality management plan which provides acceptable quality management methodology information

Answer 14

Correct Answer: (B) Quality audits which help verify process and output compliance

Explanation: The quality audit is used in Perform Quality Assurance to verify that process and output comply with organizational and project policies and procedures. The goals of quality audits are to identify best practices, identify gaps, and share best practices with all appropriate stakeholders. The other answers are noise. [section 8.9]

Question 15

The Project Manager needs to motivate his team and reviews Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs as a basis for his motivational strategy. Which of the following are the components of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

(A) Physiological, achievement, esteem, psychological, safety, and self-actualization

(B) Physiological, belonging, esteem, safety, and self-actualization

(C) Physiological, achievement, esteem, safety, and self-actualization

(D) Physiological, belonging, esteem, psychological safety, and self-actualization

Answer 15

(B) Physiological, belonging, esteem, safety, and self-actualization

Explanation: The levels of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs are Physiological, Belonging, Safety, Esteem, and Self Actualization. [section 9.1.5]

Question 16

The Project Manager needs to motivate his team and reviews Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs as a basis for his motivational strategy. Which of the following are the components of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

(A) Physiological, achievement, esteem, psychological, safety, and self-actualization

(B) Physiological, belonging, esteem, safety, and self-actualization

(C) Physiological, achievement, esteem, safety, and self-actualization

(D) Physiological, belonging, esteem, psychological safety, and self-actualization

Answer 16

Correct Answer: (B) Information related to the difference between planned and actual occurrences

Explanation: The variance report shows the difference between planned and unplanned occurrences. The forecast report shows what is expected to occur on the project. The progress report shows what has been completed since the last reporting period. The status report shows where the project is to date. The earned valued report shows the state of the schedule, budget, and scope of the project at various points in time. [section 10.7.1]

Question 17

The Project Manager and the team created change requests as a result of unforeseen occurrences. Which of the following best describes the process they have just completed?

(A) Identify Risks which entails determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project

(B) Plan Risk Responses which entails determining what will be done if risk events occur and who will be responsible for executing those actions

(C) Monitor and Control Risks which entails observing project activities for risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them

(D) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis which entails assigning probability and impact ratings to each risk

Answer 17

Correct Answer: (C) Monitor and Control Risks which entails observing project activities for risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them

Explanation: Monitor and Control Risks focuses on observing project activities for risk triggers and risks and implementing the means to control them. Plan Risk Responses documents who should do what if risk events occur. Identify Risks is the process of determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis assigns probability and impact ratings to the risk [section 11.7]

Question 18

What is the primary mechanism that needs to be in place for a single source non-competitive procurement?

(A) A mechanism that insures there are no kick-backs

(B) A mechanism that insures that there is no impropriety or unreasonable pricing

(C) A mechanism that insures there is no price gouging

(D) A mechanism that insures there is no inappropriate relationship between the procurer and the source

Answer 18

Correct Answer: (B) A mechanism that insures that there is no impropriety or unreasonable pricing

Explanation: One type of non-competitive forms of procurement is single source, in which a single company is chosen even though others are available. There must be a mechanism in place to insure there is no impropriety or unreasonable pricing. [section 12.2.3]

Question 19

A Project Manager has been working on the quality process for a project at a major defense contractor. The Project Manager discovers that an employee has been declaring repair material as scrap metal, then reselling it at a small profit. The item is very costly. What should the Project Manager do?

(A) Report this to the company

(B) Report this to Homeland Security

(C) Report this to General Accounting Office (GAO)

(D) Report the employee to the local authority

Answer 19

Correct Answer: (A) Report this to the company
Explanation: The company is responsible for resolving this issue, because the company has jurisdiction over materials. Reporting the employee to the local authority is the company’s option. The answers on reporting to the General Accounting Office (GAO) and to Homeland Security are noise. [section 13.2.1]

Question 20

Which process updates progress and manages changes to the schedule baseline?

(A) Control Schedule
(B) Develop Schedule Management Plan
(C) Direct and Manage Project Execution
(D) Create Project Management Plan

Answer 20

Correct Answer: (A) Control Schedule

Explanation: This is the basic definition of Control Schedule. There is no process called develop schedule management plan, though the schedule management plan (a document) would give guidance on the basic tools and techniques of HOW to update progress and manage changes through the Control Schedule process. Note the verb tense: “Which process updates progress and manages…” This implies doing it, not planning it, making Control Schedule the correct answer. [section 6.7]