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CSCS > CSCS Time 2 > Flashcards

CSCS Time 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The effects of a warm-up on performance?

A

Increases in RFD, reaction time, strength, power, oxygen delivery (Bohr effect), muscle blood flow, metabolic reactions

Decreases in viscous resistance

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2
Q

What type of sports require more static stretching in the warmup?

A

Sports with high amounts of flexibility and high uses of the SSC

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3
Q

What is the typical foot width for standing exercise?

A

Hip width or slightly wider than hip width

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4
Q

What is the objective of the barbell rack clean?

A

To develop the explosive phase of the pull and teach the athlete how to quickly get under the bar

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5
Q

What is a coaching point for all clean variations regarding hip extension and arms?

A

You want to avoid pulling with the arms prior to attaining complete hip extension

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6
Q

Barbell Hang clean objective

A

Develop explosive power in hips and legs and teach the athlete how to utilize the SSC

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7
Q

What is the objective of the barbell power clean?

A

Develop the ability to develop explosive power in the legs and hips

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8
Q

What is the objective of the barbell high pull?

A

Develop the ability to express explosive power in the hips and legs

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9
Q

What is the objective of DB front raises?

A

To isolate and strengthen the anterior deltoid

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10
Q

What is the objective of the DB lateral raise?

A

To isolate and develop strength in the lateral deltoid

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11
Q

What is the objective of the DB bent over fly?

A

Isolate and strengthen the posterior deltoid

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12
Q

What is the objective of the barbell push press?

A

Develop explosive strength in the legs and hips as well as strengthen the shoulder while stabilizing overhead loads

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13
Q

Barbell Push Jerk objective

A

Develop explosive strength in the legs and hips as well as strengthen the shoulder while stabilizing overhead loads

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14
Q

Pull Up objective

A

Develop strength in the muscles of the upper back, arms, and abdominals

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15
Q

Standing low row objective

A

Develop muscles of the upper back as well as the stabilizers of the legs and core

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16
Q

In a standing low row, how far does the handle travel?

A

Until it touches the upper abdomen

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17
Q

Lat pulldown objective

A

Develop strength in the upper back

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18
Q

In a lat pulldown, how far does the handle travel?

A

Until it reaches the clavicle/upper chest

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19
Q

Bent over row objective

A

Develop strength in the upper back

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20
Q

How far does the bar travel in a bent over row?

A

Until it reaches the upper abdomen

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21
Q

EZ bar curl objective

A

Develop bicep strength

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22
Q

Hand plank objectives

A

Develop strength, balance, and stability in the pelvis, abdominal area, back, and shoulders

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23
Q

What are 3 cues to get into the proper position of a plank

A
  1. contract the glutes
  2. roll the pelvis forward
  3. pull belly button to the spine through inner abdominal contraction
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24
Q

Elbow plank objectives

A

Develop strength, balance, and stability in the pelvis, abdominal area, back, and shoulders

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25
Q

Barbell back squat objective

A

Develop the quadriceps, adductors, gluteus Maximus, and hamstrings

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26
Q

When done correctly, what can squats do for the surroundings of the knee joint?

A

When done correctly, squats strengthen the muscles, ligaments, and tendons surrounding the knee joint as well as the core muscles through keeping the torso erect

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27
Q

What are the 4 common mistakes in the start of the back squat?

A
  1. Taking more than 2 steps
  2. Not having entire body underneath the bat
  3. Not placing body in the center of the bar
  4. Not filling the body with air and holding
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28
Q

When performing the barbell back squat, what should the grip width be for a taller vs shorter athlete?

A

Taller: medium - wide grip width
Shorter: closer - medium grip width

note: the closer the grip the more the back is activated

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29
Q

When performing a barbell back squat, what are the 3 common grip mistakes?

A
  1. trapping plates instead of bar
  2. taking the hands off the bar during the ascent
  3. using an open grip instead of a closed grip
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30
Q

What is the difference in force direction in a high bar vs low bar squat?

A

High bar: force directed at knees
Low-bar: force directed at hips

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31
Q

Common mistakes with bar placement in the barbell back squat?

A

High bar: leaning forward or rounding of back
Low bar: Bar rolls down

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32
Q

2 common mistakes for head and eyes in a barbell back squat?

A
  1. head tilts forward which causes the weight to shift to the balls of the feet and rounds the back
  2. Tilting head backward which causes weight to shift on heels and places unwanted stress on neck and back
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33
Q

What are the differences between narrow stance, medium stance, and wide squat stances?

A

Narrow: Works quadriceps and glutes more
Medium: Works quadriceps and adductors more
Wide: works adductors, glutes, and outer quadriceps (Vastus laterals)

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34
Q

What is a common mistake for foot positioning on the back squat?

A

Turning the toes inward

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35
Q

Why is activation of the abdominals so important in the back squat?

A

Strong abdominal muscles help to maintain torso stability and intra-thoracic pressure

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36
Q

4 common mistakes regarding the abdominals?

A
  1. not training them
  2. Not using a variety of abdominal/oblique exercises
  3. To much hip flexion during abdominal exercises
  4. Working only one section of the abdominal area
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37
Q

2 common breathing mistakes of the barbell back squat?

A
  1. holding breath the whole time
    2 exhaling at the bottom
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38
Q

3 common torso mistakes when squatting?

A
  1. keeping torso to upright
  2. allowing torso to lean to far forward
  3. not squatting with a rigid torso
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39
Q

3 common descent mistakes in the squat?

A
  1. not keeping shins vertical
  2. rounding back
  3. dropping down to quickly
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40
Q

3 common mistakes of the ascent in the squat?

A
  1. bouncing out of the bottom
  2. tasing hips to quickly
  3. allowing the weight to shift onto the toes
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41
Q

What is the single most effective leg exercise?

A

Squat

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42
Q

What is the objective of the barbell front squat?

A

Develop strength in the quadriceps, thigh adductors, glutes, and hamstrings

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43
Q

What is the objective of the barbell clean deadlift?

A

Learn how to lift the bar off the ground properly and develop strength in the legs, his, back, and torso stabilizers

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44
Q

What is the objective of the barbell RDL?

A

Develop strength in the hamstrings, glutes, and torso stabilizers

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45
Q

What is the objective of the forward step lunge?

A

Isolate a single leg and develop strength in the hip, leg, and core muscles

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46
Q

What is a coaching point for the lunge regarding the feet

A

Keep the heel of the back foot pointed to the sky to prevent rolling and keep the front foot firmly flat on the ground

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47
Q

What is the objective of the walking lunge?

A

Develop strength in the muscles of the hips, legs, and core

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48
Q

Barbell Bench Press objective

A

Develop strength in the pectorals, shoulders, and triceps

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49
Q

What is the most common error of the barbell bench press?

A

Allowing the bar to come off the chest and move towards the legs which lowers force

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50
Q

Barbell incline bench press objective

A

Develop strength int he upper pectorals, deltoids, and triceps

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51
Q

Triceps pushdown objective

A

Isolate and strength triceps

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52
Q

Heel touches objective

A

Develop strength in abdominal muscles

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53
Q

What do plyometrics seek to improve?

A

Power, RFD, and force absorption

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54
Q

What do plyometric exercises target?

A

The nervous system

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55
Q

Where does the stress of plyometrics come from?

A

The nervous system and the mechanical demands placed on tissues

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56
Q

What is the best form of plyometrics for novice athletes?

A

Deceleration and jump training

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57
Q

What is reactive speed?

A

The ability to react to a stimulus in the shortest amount of time possible

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58
Q

What is active speed?

A

The ability to move quickly and precisely during short duration of <6 seconds without cyclic movements

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59
Q

What is frequency speed?

A

The ability to walk, climb, swimming, walk and involves cyclic movements

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60
Q

What is complex speed?

A

Combines reactivity + perception + spatial relationships to produce coordinated and goal directed noncyclic movements

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61
Q

What are the 2 components that make up agility?

A

High speeds + Rapid COD

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62
Q

What is the key factor in linear speed?

A

Acceleration

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63
Q

What is the differences between acceleration and max velocity?

A

Acceleration: Small step length, high step frequency, shorter GCT, less upright, lower recovery of swing leg

Max Velocity: Longer step length, shorter step frequency, longer GCT, more upright, swing leg comes off the ground more

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64
Q

What is the objective of high knees?

A

Develop lower body strength, power, and ROM at hips

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65
Q

What is the objective of butt kickers/heel ups?

A

Develop hamstring strength and ROM at hips

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66
Q

What is the objective of the forward step lunge with elbow to instep?

A

Develop strength and ROM at hips

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67
Q

What is the objective of the side lunge with squat?

A

Develop strength and ROM at hips

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68
Q

What is the objective of the high knee foreleg extension

A

Develop strength and ROM at hips and knees

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69
Q

What is the objective of build-ups?

A

Develop proper stride length and stride frequency

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70
Q

What is the objective of form starts and position starts?

A

Develop proper stride length, stride frequency, and body positioning from a static start

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71
Q

What is the difference between form starts and position starts?

A

Form starts: 1 foot behind and other in front with hips higher than shoulders in typical sprint stance

Position starts: athletic stance with flexion of hips, knees and ankles and hands in front of body

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72
Q

What is the objective of all flying sprint exercises?

A

Develop proper stride length and frequency

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73
Q

What is the objective of power skips?

A

Develop lower body explosive power

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74
Q

What is the objective of the harness routine?

A

Develop proper body positioning during acceleration and minimize the time needed to achieve top speed

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75
Q

What is the objective for bag jumps?

A

Develop explosive power and acceleration

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76
Q

What is the objective for hollow sprints?

A

Develop stride length, stride frequency, and explosive power

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77
Q

What is the objective of every hole exercises?

A

Develop ROM at hips, knees, and ankles as well as balance and coordination

78
Q

What is the objective of bag routines?

A

Develop ROM at hips, knees, ankles, and coordination and balance when accelerating, decelerating, and changing directions

79
Q

What is the objective of line jump routines?

A

Develop ROM in ankles, knees, and hips as well as developing LB strength, balance, and coordination when changing direction

80
Q

What drills work to develop coordination, balance, reaction time, and acceleration?

A

Pro Agility and Nebraska Agility

81
Q

What drills work to develop coordination, balance, reaction time, acceleration, and deceleration?

A

3 cone drill, 4 corner drill, sprint ladder, backpedal ladder

82
Q

What is the objective of the shuffle ladder?

A

Improve coordination, balance, and strength in the abductors and adductors

83
Q

What is the objective of the drop jump?

A

Develop proper landing techniques for absorption of large impact forces

84
Q

What is the objective of the vertical jump?

A

Develop explosive power

85
Q

What drills work to develop explosive power and develop proper landing techniques?

A

Tuck jump
180 jump
broad jump with vertical jump
depth jump

86
Q

What exercises develop explosive lateral power?

A

Box shuffle step, double box shuffle step, lateral box jump

87
Q

Minimum ceiling height?

A

12-14 feet

88
Q

How far should mirrors be placed above the ground?

A

20in

89
Q

What temperature should the facility be?

A

68-78

90
Q

What lighting is recommended?

A

50-100 lumens

91
Q

What should the humidity be inside?

A

< 50

92
Q

What is the most common cause of sudden death?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

93
Q

What are the symptoms of a concussion? (12)

A

Unconscious
Unclear thinking
inability to concentrate
forgetful
headache
blurred vision
dizzy
light sensitivity
balance problems
nausea and vomiting
agitation
inability to sleep

94
Q

Symptoms of external rhabelomyolysis?

A

Pain in muscles and on exertion
muscle weakness and swelling
myoglobin inuring (brown)
muscle cell proteins and enzymes in blood
Increase in large proteins in blood

95
Q

An example of a first class lever, second class lever, and third class lever?

A

First class: tricep extension
Second class: calf raise
Third class: bicep curl

96
Q

What is the best way to increase bone strength?

A

Choose multi-joint exercises and have heavy external loads

97
Q

What is the best way to increase the strength of connective tissues?

A

High intensity is needed to see improvements in tendons, ligaments, and fascia strength

Moderate intensity can stimulate cartilage adaptations

98
Q

Resistance training frequency based on season

A

Off-season : 4-6
Preseason: 3-4
In-season: 1-3
Postseason: 0-3

99
Q

Training goal loads and reps -strength

A

> 85%, 6 or less reps

100
Q

Training goal loads and reps -power

A

Single effort: 80-90%, 1-2 reps
Multiple effort: 75-85%, 3-5 reps

101
Q

Training goal loads and reps -Hypertrophy

A

67-85%, 6-12 reps

102
Q

Training goal loads and reps -Muscular endurance

A

67% or less, 12 or more reps

103
Q

How many testing sets should the coach be able to determine the athlete’s 1RM?

A

3-5 testing sets

104
Q

What is the rest time between 1RM attempts?

A

2-4 minutes

105
Q

If an athlete fails an 1RM attempt, what happens?

A

Take away 5-10 pounds for upper body and 15-20 pounds for lower body

106
Q

If an athlete succeeds at a 1RM attempt, what happens?

A

Add 10-20 pounds for upper body and 30-40 pounds for lower body

107
Q

Load increases for untrained vs trained

A

Upper Body: untrained 2.5-5 lbs while trained 5-10+ lbs

Lower body: untrained 5-10 pounds while trained 10-15+ pounds

108
Q

Rest by goal

A

strength: 2-5 minutes
power: 2-5 minutes
hypertrophy: 30s - 1.5 minutes
muscular endurance: less than 30 seconds

109
Q

early flight joint actions

A

Eccentric hip flexion
Eccentric knee extension

110
Q

mid-flight joint actions

A

concentric hip flexion
eccentric knee extension –> eccentric knee flexion

111
Q

late flight joint actions

A

Concentric hip extension
eccentric knee flexion

112
Q

Early support joint actions

A

concentric hip extension
concentric knee flexion
eccentric plantar flexion

113
Q

Late support joint actions

A

Concentric hip flexion
concentric knee extension
concentric plantar flexion

114
Q

LSD Training

A

Frequency: 1-2 days per week
Duration: Race distance or longer
Intensity: 70% VO2max
Benefits: Cardiorespiratory and thermoregulatory functions, increased glycogen sparing , mitochondrial energy production

115
Q

Pace/tempo training

A

Frequency: 1-2days
Duration: 20-30 minutes
Intensity: At lactate threshold
Benefits: Improved running economy and lactate threshold

116
Q

Interval training

A

Frequency: 1-2days
Duration: 3-5 minutes with a 1:1 work to rest ratio
Intensity: Close to VO2max
Benefits: Increased VO2max and anaerobic metabolism

117
Q

HIIT

A

Frequency: 1 day
Duration: 30-90 seconds with 1:5 work to rest
Intensity: Above VO2max
Beenfits: improving running economy and speed

118
Q

Fartlek training

A

Frequency: 1 day per week
Duration: 20-60 minutes
Intensity: Varies between LSD and pace/tempo
Benefits: reduces boredom, challenges all body systems, improves VO2max, LT, running economy, and fuel utilization

119
Q

Space between weightlifting equipment?

A

36 inches

120
Q
A
121
Q

What do muscles spindles facilitate?

A

Facilitation of the agonist muscle

122
Q

What do GTO facilitate?

A

Inhibition of the agonist muscle

123
Q

What 2 things should we look for in plyometric exercise technique?

A
  1. Knee flexion angle
  2. Yielding elements
124
Q

What is the max amount we should progress in volume each week?

A

10%

125
Q

What type of stretches cause autogenic inhibition?

A

Hold-relax, contract-relax, hold-relax with agonist

126
Q

What type of stretches cause reciprocal inhibition?

A

Hold-relax with agonist

127
Q

If we see a deficit in the frontal plane, where can we suspect the deficit muscle is?

A

In the frontal plane

*Note: if it is transverse plane assume transverse muscle and same for sagittal

128
Q

60th percentile pro-agility - women’s volleyball

A

4.98

129
Q

60th percentile pro-agility - women’s basketball

A

4.94

130
Q

60th percentile pro-agility - women’s softball

A

5.10

131
Q

60th percentile pro-agility - men’s basketball

A

4.39

132
Q

60th percentile pro-agility - men’s baseball

A

4.46

133
Q

60th percentile pro-agility - men’s football

A

4.44

134
Q

60th percentile lifts - women’s basketball

A

1RM bench : 112
1RM squat: 135
1RM power clean: 112

135
Q

60th percentile lifts - women’s swimming

A

1RM bench: 101
1RM squat: 135

136
Q

60th percentile lifts - women’s softball

A

1RM bench: 99
1RM squat: 139
1RM power clean: 110

137
Q

60th percentile lifts - volleyball

A

1RM bench: 100
1RM squat: 153

138
Q

60th percentile lifts - D1 football

A

1RM bench: 315
1RM squat: 405
1RM power clean: 223

139
Q

60th percentile lifts - men’s baseball

A

1RM bench: 239
1RM squat: 293
1RM power clean: 216

140
Q

60th percentile lifts - men’s basketball

A

1RM bench: 230
1RM squat: 280
1RM power clean: 220

141
Q

60th percentile long jump - male and female

A

male: 110
female: 98

142
Q

60th percentile partial curl up - age 20-29

A

men: 31
women: 32

143
Q

60th percentile YMCA bench press - age 18-25

A

men: 29
women: 25

144
Q

60th percentile VO2max - age 20-29

A

male: 45.6
female: 39.5

145
Q

60th percentile 1.5 mile run - age 20-29

A

male: 11.29
female: 13.24

146
Q

60th percentile sit and reach - age 20-29

A

men: 18
female: 20

147
Q

60th percentile body fat - age 20-29

A

men: 14.8
women: 19.8

148
Q

60th percentile 12 minute run - age 20-29

A

men: 1.58 miles
women: 1.41 miles

149
Q

How is reactive strength index calculated?

A

Jump height / contact time

150
Q

How much rest does the 300 yard shuttle run require between trials?

A

5 minutes

151
Q

What is the average vertical jump height for college athletes?

A

Females: 10-16 inches
Males: 15-18 inches

152
Q

How many athletes run at a time in the 300 yard shuttle run?

A

2 athletes of similar abilities

153
Q

What should the load bearing capacity be for every square foot?

A

100 pounds per square foot

154
Q

How much should a wheelchair ramp rise for every inch?

A

12 inches

155
Q

How much space is needed for a bike?

A

24 square feet

156
Q

How much space is needed for a stair stepper?

A

24 square feet

157
Q

How much space is needed for a skier?

A

6 square feet

158
Q

How much space is needed for a rower?

A

40 square feet

159
Q

How much space is needed for a treadmill?

A

45 square feet

160
Q

What is the objective of incline sprints?

A

To attain proper acceleration mechanics

161
Q

What is the goal of resisted sprinting?

A

To overload the acceleration phase and have GCT that results in higher propulsive speed and covering short distances quicker

162
Q

What is the purpose of overspeed training?

A

To increase max sprinting velocity by increase the stride rate

163
Q

In the 4 hurdle drill, what foot do we jump with?

A

The outside foot ALWAYS

164
Q

Karvonen method formula

A

APMHR - RHR = HRR
(HRR x Exercise Intensity)+ RHR = THR

165
Q

What is the recommended height for box jumps?

A

16-42 inches

166
Q

What thickness of plywood should be used for a box used for box jumps?

A

3/4 inches

167
Q

RFD formula

A

Changes in force / change in time

168
Q

What is momentum?

A

The relationship between an object’s mass and the velocity of movement

169
Q

What is the cause of an object’s movement?

A

Impulse

170
Q

What does strength training increase in regards to the nervous system?

A

Neural drive which relates to increases in RFD and muscular force

171
Q

What cue should you give to an athlete who is jumping the first stride?

A

Drive throw the ground and allow the swing leg to horizontally cut the stance leg

172
Q

What does it mean to have a high exercise economy?

A

The athlete expends less energy to maintain a given velocity and is correlated to shorter stride length and greater stride frequency

173
Q

What number on the 1-10 RPE scale correlates to “hard”

A

7

174
Q

Sport season training frequency for aerobic training

A

Off-season: 5-6
Pre-season: 6-7
In-season: 5-6 (includes training and racing)
Off-season: 3-5

175
Q

Shoulder Flexion muscles

A

Latissimus dorsi
Pectoralis Major
Anterior Deltoid
Coracobrachilais

176
Q

Shoulder Extension Muscles

A

Latissimus Dorsi
Teres Major
Posterior Deltoid
Triceps Brachii

177
Q

Shoulder Horizontal Abduction Muscles

A

Biceps Brachii
Latissimus Dorsi
teres Major
Deltoid

178
Q

Shoulder Horizontal Adduction Muscles

A

Pectoralis Major
Triceps brachii
Deltoid

179
Q

Shoulder Vertical Abduction Muscles

A

Supraspinatus
Deltoid

180
Q

Shoulder Vertical Adduction Muscles

A

Latissimus dorsi
Teres Major
teres Minor
Infraspinatus
Pec Major
Triceps Brachii

181
Q

Shoulder Internal Rotation

A

Subscapularis
pec Major
Latissimus Dorsi
Teres Major
Anterior Deltoid

182
Q

Shoulder Exertnal Rotation

A

Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Posterior Deltoid

183
Q

Hip Flexors

A

Sartorius
Rectus Femoris
iliopsoas
Pectines

184
Q

Hip Extensor Muscles

A

Glute max
Hamstrings
Adductor Magnus

185
Q

Hip abduction muscles

A

Glute medius
Glute minimus
TFL
Sartoris

*When thigh is flexed: obturator internees, S/I Gemelli, Piriformis

186
Q

Hip adduction muscles

A

Adductor longus
adductor Magnus
adductor brevis
gracilis
pectinous

187
Q

Hip external rotation muscles

A

glute max
biceps femoris
satorius
piriofrmis
quadrates femoris
obturator externes

*When thigh extended: S/I gemelli, obturator internus

188
Q

Hip internal rotation muscles

A

Glute medius
Glute Minimus
TFL
Pectinues

  • When thigh flexed: semimembranous, semitendinosus*

Gracillis assists

189
Q

Dorsiflexion muscles

A

Tibialis Anterior
Fibularis Tertius
Extensor Digitorum Longus
Extensor Hallucus Longus

190
Q

Plantar Flexion muscles

A

gastrocnemius
soleus
plantairs
flexor hallucus longus
flexor digitorum longus
tibialis posterior

191
Q

Foot eversion muscles

A

Fibularis longus
Fibularis brevis
fibulas tertius

192
Q

Foot inversion muscles

A

tibialis posterior
tibialis anterior

CSCS (17 decks)

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