Cs FInals Flashcards

1
Q

allows users
to access one another ‘s hard drives or cloud storage and
exchange files directly via a file shar in g program

A

peer-to-peer (P2P) networksometimes called a file sharing network,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

allows users connected to a network to exchange money
from one account to another via transmission media.

A

Electronic funds transfer (EFT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

provide
home users with the following capabilities
Multiple users can share a single Internet connection.
* Files on each computer, such as photos, can be shared.
* Multiple computers can share a single hardware
resource, such as a pr in ter.
* Game consoles can connect to the Internet to facilitate
on line gamin g

A

Home Networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

can be small or
large and can exist in o ne or multiple buildings. Networks
provide the following advantages to businesses:
* Facili tate communication among employees
* Share hardware, such as printers and scann ers
* Share data, information, and software with one another
* Centra ll y store and back up cr itical informatio

A

Business networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

sends signals and data through
cables, wh i ch may have to travel through fl oors and walls
to connect to other n etwork devices.

A

wired network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

sends signals
through airwaves and usually does not require cables.

A

wireless network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

is a network standard
that defines how high-speed cellular transmissions use
broadcast radio to transmit data for mobile communications.

A

LTE (Long Term Evolution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

requires a combination of hardware and software to operate. Smaller networks usually require simple hardware and can rely on the operating system’s features to connect to other devices on the network,

A

network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Connects the sending device to transmission media

A

Communications device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Accepts the transmission of data, instructions, or information

A

Receiving device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Two basic categories of networks
are

A

home and business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

typically
exist within a single building, are easy to install and
configure, and are accessed by only a few user

A

Home networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

meant to accommodate
many users and large amounts of data a nd can be spread
across many buildings

A

Business networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Initiates an instruction to transmit data, instructions or information

A

Sending device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Means by which the data, instructions, or information travel

A

Sending device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Means by which the data, instructions, or information travel

A

transmission media, or communications channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

name of receiving data

A

downstream rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

name of sending
data).

A

upstream rate (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

s a navigation system
that consists of one or more earth-based receivers that
accept and analyze signals sent by satellites in order to
determine the receiver’s geographic location.

A

GPS (global positioning system) i

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Help users establish a connection to another computer,
mobile device, or network
* Manage the Transmission of data, instructions, and
information
* Provide an interface for users to communicate with one
another

A

Communications software

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

(the method by which computers and
devices are physicalJy arranged on a network)

A

topology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

(the log ical d es i gn of all devices on a
network

A

network architecture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

one or more comp uters
act as a server and the oth er co mputers on the network
request resour ces from the server

A

client/server network,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

is a computer or mobile device on
the network that relies on the server for its reso urces.

A

client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

netwo rk is a network archit ec tur e
that typica ll y connects a small number of computers,
often fewer than 10.

A

A peer-to-peer (P2P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

All de vices attach to a cent ral cable, called a bus, that carries t he data.
If the bus fails, the devices on the net work will no longer be ab le to
communicate .

A

Bus network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

All devices interconnect with one another. If a single de vice on the
network fails, the rest of the net work wil l continue to function by
communicat ing via an alternate route.

A

Mesh network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

(each device on the network is connected to every
other device on the network)

A

Full mesh topology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

(each device
may or may not be connected to all other devices on the network)

A

partial mesh technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Data travels from one device to the next in a sequential fashion

A

Ring network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Each device on the network is attached to a central device

A

Star network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

is a type of P2P network where users share files with
one another over the Internet.

A

Internet peer-to-peer (Internet P2P) network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Networ ks are configured in all sizes
and can be defined by n ot only th e num ber of devices th ey
co nnect or ph ys i ca l/l ogical arrangeme nt but also by their
geographic footprint.

A

Geographic Reach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

connects person al
digital devices within a range of approximately
30 feet

A

personal area network (PAN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

is a fo rm of personal area
n etwork th at consists of sma ll , li ghtweight biosensors
implanted in th e bod y

A

body area network (BAN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

specifies the amount of data your provider offers you per monht

A

data plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

define guidelin es that specify th e
way computers access a network, the type(s) of hardware
used, data transmi ss ion speeds, and the types of cable and
wireless technology used.

A

Network standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

is a standard that
outlines characteristics of how devices communicate on
a network, such as data format, coding schemes, error
handling, and the sequence in which data transfers over
the netwo rk .

A

protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

standard controls how network
interface cards (1\TJCs), routers, and modems share access
to cabl es and phone lines, as well as dictates how to
transmit data.

A

Ethernet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

that defines how business documents
travel across transmi ssi on media.

A

EDI (electronic
data interchange),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

which is a set of protocols that is used by all computers
and devices on the Internet

A

TCP/IP
(Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

omputers and devices that have the appropriate
wireless capability can communicate via radio waves with
other computers or devices using

A

Wifi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

is a series of network standards that
specifies how two wireless devices communicate over the
air with each other.

A
  1. 11
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

is a network protocol that defines
how two Bluetooth devices use short-range radio waves
to transm it data.

A

Bluetooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Devices communicat i ng with one another over a short range (usual ly less than 30 feet /9 meters)

A

BlueTooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Remote controls or other data transmission within close proximity

A

IrDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Used in credit cards, smartphones, and ticke ts to faci l itate close- range communication

A

NFC( near field communication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

is a network stand ard
that specifies how two UWB devices use short-range
radio waves to communicate at ru gh speeds with each
other.

A

UWB (ultra-wideband)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

standard to
transmit data wirelessly to each other via infrared (IR)
li g ht waves

A

lrDA (Infrared Data Association)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

is a protocol
that defines how a network uses radio signals to communicate
with a tag placed in or attached to an object, an animal, or a
person.

A

RFID (radio frequency Identificaiton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

is a protocol,
based on RFID, that defines how a netwo rk uses
close-range radio signals to communi cate between two
devices or objects equipped wi th NFC t echn ol ogy

A

NFC (near field communications)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

can be computers, tablets,
mobile phones, printers, game consoles, or smart home
devices

A

Nodes, or devices on a network,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

also
called a broadband modem, is a commun ications device
that sends and receives data and information to and
from a digital line.

A

digital modem ,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

uses a cable TV Connection

A

A cable modem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

uses sta nd ard copper telephone
wir ing

A

DSL modem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

is a broadband modem that sends
digital data and information from a computer to an
ISDN li ne

A

ISDN (Integrated Services Dig ital
Network) modem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

is a type of always-on physical connection
that is established between two communications
devices.

A

dedicated line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

is
a process that combines multiple anal og or digital signals
into a single signal over a shared medium, such as a cable.

A

Multiplexing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

enters a building through a single line, usually
a coaxial cable, which connects to a modem
that typically attaches to your computer via an
Ethernet cable

A

The CATV signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

transmits on existing
standard copper phone wiring.

A

DSL (Digital Subscriber Line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

is a type of DSL that
supports faster downstream rates than upstream
rates

A

ADSL (asymmetric digital subscriber line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

refers
to both a circuit-switched te lephone network
system and a set of communication standards
used to transmit data, voice, and signal i ng.

A

ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

uses fiber-optic
cable to provide extremely high-speed Internet
access to a user’s physical permanent location

A

FTTP (Fiber to the Premises)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

use
multiplexing so that multiple signals share the
line.

A

Digital T-carrier lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

provide very fast data transfer
rates. Only medium to large companies usual ly can
afford the investment in ___________ lines because
these lines are so expensive.

A

T-carrier lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

which is an amplifier used to
im prove reception and extend the range, for your
wireless rout er or wireless access point.

A

booster , (repeater)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Ga i ns admin istra tor-leve l, or root-level, access to a computer or network without the system or users detecti ng its
presence

A

Rootkit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

devices are one or more hard drives that
connect directly to a network and provide a centralized
location for storing programs and data on large and
small networks.

A

network attached storage (NAS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

a series of numbers and/or letters some-
times also referred to as a network security key, to encrypt
data sent between devices

A

wireless network key,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

constantly assesses the status of a network and
sends an email or text message, usually to the network
administrator, when it detects a problem.

A

Network monitoring
software

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

software monitors and logs packet traffic
for later analysis. Packet sniffing can detect problems, such
as why network traffic is flowing slowly

A

packet sniffer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

, which occurs when cyberthieves tap into home
routers or cable modems or other Internet access points
to intercept a paid Internet service

A

IP hijacking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

which occurs when
cyberthieves exp loit Bluetooth devices that have been paired. Hackers can intercept the signa ls, then ta ke control and read or download persona l data,
place calls, monitor con versations, re view text and ema il messages, and modi fy contacts

A

Bluebugging,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

is to plan, design,
purchase equipment for, set up, secure, and maintain a
network

A

network administrator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

It developed a code
of ethics for system operators that provides standards for
network administrators.

A

USENIX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

have access to vast amounts of data that needs to be protected.

A

Network administrator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

provider is a third-pa rty business that prov ides networking services, such as EDI services,
secure data and information transfer, storage, or email programs.

A

value-added network (VAN )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

which is a pane in a program window that
lets you move between objects

A

navigation pane,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

is a crucial component of most organizations,

A

Data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

are relied upon to perform the critical job of
organizing this data, making it easily accessible when
needed, and ensuring the data is kept safe and secure

A

databases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

or database program, is software that
allows you to create, access, and manage a database.

A

database management
system (DBMS),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

is a field that
uniquely identifies each record in a table, such as Student
ID

A

primary key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

occurs when you store the
same data in more than one place.

A

Data redundancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

that
acts as a portal fo r a database, enables governme nt agenci es ,
schools, and compani es to share information with a wide
audienc

A

database service, or a website

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

class ify data in a hierarchy. Each higher level
of data consists of one or more it ems from the lower leve l

A

Information technology (IT)
professionals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

in Access, is a collection of related
records stored on a storage medium, such as a hard drive,
or on cloud storage

A

data file, ca ll ed a table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

In the ASCII
coding scheme, each byte re presents a

A

Single character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

is a combination of one or
more related characters or byt es and is th e small es t unit
of data a user accesses

A

field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

uniquely identifi es
each fi eld

A

field name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

is a group of related fields

A

record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

is the highest level in the data hierarchy,
as it contains fields and records

A

table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

extracts data from a database
based on specified criteria, or conditions, for one or
more fields

A

A query

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

, where each field was spaced
out on the screen to make it easier to interact with and
understand.

A

data entry form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

specifies the kind of data a field can contain and how the field is used

A

data type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Unique number automatically assigned
by the DBMS to each added record

A

AutoNumber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Lengthy text entries, which may or may not
include separate paragraphs; also called l ong tex

A

Memo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Photo, audio, video, or a document created
in other programs or apps, such as word processing
or spreadsheet, stored as a sequence of bytes in the
database; also called BLOB

A

Object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

, contains data about each table in the database and each field
in those tables

A

data dictionary, sometimes called a repository

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

is the process of comp aring data w ith a set of
rules or va lues to determine if the data meets certain crite-
ria)

A

validation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

is a popular query language that allows users to manage, update,
and retrieve data

A

Structured Query
Language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

consists of simple,
Englis h- like statements that allow users to specify the data
they want to display, print, store, update, or delete.

A

query language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

a feature that has a graphical user inter-
face to assist users with retrieving data

A

query by
example (QBE),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

, allows users to design a report on the screen,
retrieve data into the report design

A

report writer, also called a report
generator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

which is a listing
of activities that modify the contents of the database.

A

log,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

uses logs and/or backups, and
either a rollforward or a rollback technique, to restore
a database when it becomes damaged or destroyed

A

recovery utility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

the DBMS uses
the log to reenter changes made to the database since the
last save or backup.

A

rollforward, also called forward recovery,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

the DBMS uses the log to undo any changes
made to the database during a certain period.

A

rollback, also called backward
recovery,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

is a backup plan in which changes
are backed up as they are made.

A

Continuous backup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

shows how data in one table relates to data
in another table and is one of th e main advantages of using
a database.

A

relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

is a field in one table that
contains data from the primary key in another table.

A

foreign key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

connects each record in
one table to one or more records in another table.

A

one-to-many relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

is restricted to exactly one
record in the table on each si de of the relationship

A

one-to-one relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

allows more than one
record on the left side of the relationship to be con-
nected to more than one record on the ri ght side of the
relationship

A

many-to-many relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

resolve many of the weaknesses of relational
databases.

A

NoSQL databases or nonrelational
databases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

(also ca ll ed
key-value stores) create any number of key-value pairs for
each record.

A

Key-value databases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

consists of two related items:
a constant that defines tl1e set (the key) and a variable that
belongs to the set (the va lue).

A

key-value pair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

The screenshots in this module show a database
in Access. Access is designed to work with relational
databases, so it more specifically is called a

A

relational
database management system (RDBMS )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Th is means the DBMS runs on servers owned by a
cloud provider, and users access the database remotely
through a browser

A

database as a service (DBaaS ).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

is part of a split database that contains
the user interface and other objects, but not the tables that are
needed for an application

A

front-end database

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

, is part of a split
database that contains table objects and is stored on a file
server that all users can access.

A

back-end database,
sometimes simply called the backend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

work with the back-end
components to ensure a company’s business data is safe,
secure, and well-managed

A

database administrators (DBAs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

is a database
object that is created based on a field or combination of
fields.

A

index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

is a series (or chai n) of records stored in encrypted blocks across a netwo rk.

A

blockchain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

is the process of presenting data graphically
in the form of charts, maps, or oth er pictorial formats in order to
understand the resulting information easily

A

Data visualization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

This check t es ts the data in two
or mor e associated fi elds to ensur e th at the relationship
is logical and their data is in the co rrect format.

A

Consistency check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

ver ifi es
that a required fi eld contains data.

A

completeness check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

is a number(s) or char-
acter(s) that is appended to or inserted in a primary
key value.

A

check digit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

when enabled, requires
the user to add information to a particular fie ld and will
not allow the user to leave a field blank

A

Presence check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

fie ld properties can be
used to va li date data entry.

A

Field property check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

requires
the user to enter information unique to that record

A

Uniqueness check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Access allows the use of an input mask to
control how data is formatted in a field

A

Format check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

is a field property that provid es a visual guide for users
as they enter data. Figure 10-20 shows the Input Mask
wizard.

A

input mask

133
Q

is a tool that guides you through the
steps of a process or task by asking a series of questions
or presenting options.

A

wizard

134
Q

This check can be enforced
by using a data type that allows users to choose from a
preexisting list, such as a list of days of the week.

A

Multiple Choice check

135
Q

starts as soon as the database is
created and lasts as long as the database is used.

A

Database maintenance

136
Q

implies the need to protect a database
from unauthorized acces

A

Confidentiality

137
Q

refers to protecting data from unauthorized
changes

A

integrity

138
Q

indicates the need to ensure that data is
accessible by authorized users when needed

A

Availability

139
Q

large and compl ex data sources th at defy traditional
data processing method

A

Big data

140
Q

3 “v’s” of big data +2 extra

A

Volume
variety
Velocity
Value
Veracity

141
Q

Th e m ass ive amo unt of data that must be
stored and analyzed

A

Volume

142
Q

The different formats in which this data can
exist, such as music or video fil es, photos, social media
texts, financial transactions, IoT sensor data, and more

A

Variety

143
Q

Th e fact that this data is often generated and
received at high speeds

A

Velocity

144
Q

The helpfulness of the data in making strategic
decisions

A

Value

145
Q

H ow accurately this data reflects reality

A

Veracity

146
Q

The processes and technologies used to do this analysis
are called

A

business intelligence (BI)

147
Q

BI systems might collect data from existing databases (such
as a product database) and from live data streams (such as an
online transaction processing system) into a central repository
called a

A

data warehouse.

148
Q

which is a
collection of both structured and unstructured data

A

data lake,

149
Q

that provide at-a-glance views, with
live updates as data continues to pour in

A

dashboards

150
Q

processes help to inform business decisions and strategies

A

data analytics

151
Q

occurs when a compa ny uses the technology in t ended for one purpose fo r an entirely differe nt
purpose.

A

Function creep

152
Q

is th e process of creating information
systems or p rograms and apps from the id ea stage to
distribution to users.

A

Development

153
Q

is a
collection and summary of th e data, information, and
deliverables spec ifi c to the project.

A

Documentation

154
Q

occurs when one ac ti vity h as led to another th at
was not planned originall y; thus, the scope of th e project
now has grown

A

Scope creep, al so called feature
creep,

155
Q

of a project includes its goals,
o bj ectives, and e xp ecta ti ons of the project

A

scope

156
Q

which
is the process of recogniz in g when a change in th e project
h as occurred, taking actions to react to th e change, and
planning for opporUlruties because of th e change

A

change management,

157
Q

refers to
th e focus on th e user’s reaction to a nd in teraction with
a pro d uc t, includ in g its efficien cy, effectiveness, and
ease of use.

A

User experience (UX)

158
Q

is a se ries of statemen ts that inst ructs a program or app
how to complete a task .

A

macro

159
Q

T he set of activities used to
build an app is ca ll ed th e

A

software development life
cycle (SDLC)

160
Q

what is The sldc (in order)

A

Plan
Analyze
Design
Implement
Support and Secure

161
Q

for a project begi ns with a request
for the project and is triggered by the devel opment of
the project documentation

A

planning phase

162
Q

consists of two major components:
conducting a prel i minary investigati on and performing
detailed analysis.

A

analysis phase

163
Q

is the measure of the suitability
of the devel opment process to the individual project at
any given time

A

Feasibility

164
Q

measures how well the product
will work and whether it will meet the requirements of
the users

A

Operational feasibility

165
Q

determines if the deadlines for
project phases are reasonable. Issues with schedule
feasibility might lead to the project’s timeline being
extended or the scope of the features to be scal ed
back.

A

Schedule feasibility

166
Q

measures whether the developers
have the skills and resources, as we ll as the number of
programmers, to complete the features of the product.

A

Technical feasibility

167
Q

is to use the data gathered during the feasibility
study and detailed analysis to present a solution to the
need or request

A

system proposal

168
Q

is when the project team acquires the
necessary hardware and programming tools, as well as
develops the details of the finished product

A

design phase

169
Q

is
a working model that demonstrates the functionality of
the program or app.

A

prototype

170
Q

is to build
the product and deliver it to users.

A

implementation phase

171
Q

, the user stops using the old
product and begins using the new product on a certain
date.

A

direct conversion

172
Q

consists of running the old product
alongside the new product for a specified time. Results
from both products are compared.

A

Parallel conversion

173
Q

each location converts at a
separate time.

A

phased conversion,

174
Q

only one location in the
organization uses the new product so that it can be tested

A

pilot conversion,

175
Q

the product
receives necessary maintenance, such as fixing errors or
improving its functionality.

A

support and security phase,

176
Q

each function is tested to ensure it works
Creating Sys te ms and Applications
properly.

A

testing process,

177
Q

testers
perform the testing and report any issues to the
developers.

A

Quality assurance

178
Q

uses a linear, structured
development cycle

A

Predictive development

179
Q

takes each
step individually and completes it before continuing to the
next phase

A

waterfall method

180
Q

also called adaptive development,
incorporates flexibility in the goals and scope of the
project.

A

Agile development,

181
Q

uses a
condensed or shortened development process to
produce a quality product.

A

Rapid application development (RAD )

182
Q

encourages collaboration between the
devel opment and operation

A

DevOps

183
Q

is any tangible item , such as
a chart, diagram, report, or program file

A

deliverable

184
Q

is the
process of planning, scheduling, and then controllin g
the activities during system devel op ment

A

Project management

185
Q

developed by Henry L. Gantt, is a bar
chart that uses horizontal bars to show project phases or
activities

A

Gantt chart,

186
Q

short for Program Evaluation a nd Review
Technique chart, analyzes the time required to complete
a task and identifies the minimum time required for an
entire project

A

PERT chart,

187
Q

, consists of a series of
lengthy, structured group meetings in which users and
IT professionals work together to design or develop an
app li cation

A

joint-application design
GAD) session, or focus group

188
Q

an organization
usually forms a _________ to work on the project from
beginning to end.

A

Project team

189
Q

is
responsible for designing and developing an information
system.

A

systems analyst

190
Q

The goal of ___________ is to deliver an acceptable
system to the user in an agreed-upon time frame, while
maintaining costs

A

project management

191
Q

A person dedicated to coord i nating project components and ensuring that each member is
progressing as planned

A

Project manager

192
Q

Develops the program’s user interface, including colors, fonts, and layou

A

Designer

193
Q

Writes code or uses a product development app to create the program’s specifications

A

Programmer

194
Q

Review every aspect and functional ity of a prog ram to ensure it works as intended

A

Tester

195
Q

Interacts with customers and users of t he product to assist them with any issues that arise

A

IT department

196
Q

identifies the required
product(s).

A

request for quotation (RFQ)

197
Q

, the vendor selects
the product(s) that meets specified requirements and
then quotes the price(s)

A

request for proposal (RFP)

198
Q

is an organization that purchases products from
manufacturers and then resells these products to the
public - offering additional services with the product

A

value-added reseller
(VAR)

199
Q

is a professional who is hired based on technical expertise,
including service and advice.

A

IT consultant

200
Q

is a set of words,
abbreviations, and symbols that a programmer or
developer uses to create instructions for a program or
app.

A

Programming language

201
Q

are first generation language; their
instructions use a series of binary digits

A

Machine languages

202
Q

the programmer uses
symbolic instruction codes, such as A for add, M for
multiply, and L for load

A

assembly language,

203
Q

use a seri es of English-like words
to write instructions, such as ADD for addition, or PRINT
for printing.

A

Procedural languages

204
Q

provide a graphical
environment in which the programmer uses a combination
of English-like instructions, graphics, icons, and symbols
to create code.

A

Fourth generation languages, or 4GLs,

205
Q

was
an attempt to create programs that solve problems without
requiring the programmer to write algorithms.

A

Fifth generation languages, or SGLs,

206
Q

is a text editor designed for
programming.

A

source code editor

207
Q

to test code in one
section, or an entire program, to determine any errors
and provide suggestions to fix them.

A

debuggers

208
Q

is a separate program that converts the
entire source program into machine language before
executing it.

A

compiler

209
Q

translates and executes one statement at
a time. Interpreters do not produce or store object code

A

interpreter

210
Q

is an application that provides multiple
pro gramming tools in one environment.

A

integrated development environment
(IDE).

211
Q

is a set of
programming tools that includes a programming
interface, compiler, debugger, and more.

A

software development kit (SDK)

212
Q

is anothe r web-based tool
programmers use to archive and ho st source code

A

code repository

213
Q

tools to impleme nt objects in a program

A

object-oriented programming
(OOP)

214
Q

is an item that can contain both
data and the procedures that read or manipulate that
data.

A

object

215
Q

is a type of object that defines the
format of the object and the actions an object can perform.

A

class

216
Q

defines the behavior of an
objec

A

method

217
Q

looks at common security practices and
ensures that the app or system meets the recommended
criteria

A

security audit

218
Q

developers attempt to break
into the app or system.

A

penetration testing,

219
Q

uses automated tools
that test a system by using unexpected input to ensure
the app or system does not crash

A

Fuzz testing (also ca ll ed fuzzing)

220
Q

prerelease versions of
the product, ca ll ed a

A

beta version,

221
Q

verifies that each in dividual program or
object works by itself.

A

unit test

222
Q

verifies that all programs in an appli cation
work together properly

A

systems test

223
Q

verifies that an application works
with other applications.

A

integration test

224
Q

is performed by end users and
checks the new system to ensure that it works wi th
actual data

A

acceptance test

225
Q

is a set of evolving principles that developers
should fo ll ow to enhance UX

A

Ethical design

226
Q

is an ale rt se nt
throu gh th e user ‘s device ‘s notifications, or by email
or te xt, th at may let users know abo ut new fe atur es or
re mind th em w hen a game boost er is available.

A

push notification

227
Q

which is sent in response to a user ‘s actions or request)

A

pull notification,

228
Q

is a process or set of rules used in
prob lem-solving, such as calculations.

A

algorithm

229
Q

is a named location in memory used to store
information, such as a value, that is used in a program

A

variable

230
Q

is an environment that allows software developers to test their prog rams wi th fictitious data without adversely affecting
other programs, information systems, or data.

A

sandbox

231
Q

you must develop a solid, detailed plan for the website, called a

A

website plan or design plan.

232
Q

are the results you want your website to accomplish within a specific time frame

A

Goals

233
Q

are those methods you will use to accomplish the website’s goals.

A

Objectives

234
Q

summarizes your website’s goals and objectives to ensure they meet the audience’s expectations and needs.

A

purpose statement

235
Q

is a suggestion or offer that requires the website visitor to interact with the website by purchasing a product

A

A call-to-action (CTA)

236
Q

is a research-based overview that includes information about potential website visitors’ demographic and psychographic characteristics

A

target audience profile

237
Q

include gender, age group, educational level, income, location, and other characteristics that define who your website visitors are

A

Demographic characteristics

238
Q

include social group affiliations, lifestyle choices, purchasing preferences, and political affiliations

A

Psychographic characteristics

239
Q

is the main webpage around which a website is built that opens every time you start a browser and is the anchor for the entire website

A

home page

240
Q

subsidiary pages provide detailed content and interest

A

subsidiary pages

241
Q

, which is the page that a browser navigates to when you click a link in an ad, email message, or other online promotion from a different website.

A

landing page

242
Q

is information that is relevant, informative, and timely; accurate and of high quality; and usable.

A

Value-added content

243
Q

unlike static information, updates periodically and can appear on a website’s pages when triggered by a specific event, such as the time of day or by visitor request.

A

Dynamically generated content,

244
Q

refers to tools to allow search engines to better find or index your website.

A

Search engine optimization (SEO)

245
Q

are HTML specification tags that tell search engines what data to use.

A

Meta tags

246
Q

is a series of pages originally developed to present scenes graphically for a movie or television program

A

storyboard

247
Q

is a diagram that shows steps or processes and is used to determine the paths users will take to find subsidiary pages

A

flowchart

248
Q

should clearly identify its target, which is the webpage or content to which the link points.

A

text link

249
Q

assigns a link to a visual element, such as an illustration or a photograph.

A

image link

250
Q

can group links in menus, bars, tabs, or a combination of techniques.

A

Navigation areas

251
Q

is an evaluation that generally takes place in a structured environment, such as a testing laboratory

A

usability test

252
Q

studies use various technologies to analyze the movement of visitors’ eyes

A

Eye-tracking

253
Q

, an analytical tool that uses color to represent data

A

heat maps

254
Q

is software used to create plain (ASCII) text files.

A

text editor

255
Q

is a text editor enhanced with special features that easily insert HTML tags and their attributes.

A

HTML editor

256
Q

is a coding system that uses tags to provide instructions about the appearance, structure, and formatting of a document

A

A markup language

257
Q

is a predesigned model webpage that you can customize for fast website or webpage creation and updating

A

web template

258
Q

is a tool used to create professional-looking websites, by dragging and dropping predefined elements to their desired locations on a page, without coding.

A

website builder

259
Q

is software that provides website creation and administrative tools that enable the management of web content development, including authoring, reviewing, editing, and publishing.

A

content management system (CMS)

260
Q

The templates, style sheets, and other frequently used content elements, such as a logo graphic, are stored in a database called a

A

content repository.

261
Q

is an object, such as a web app, that is embedded in a webpage and provides access to resources that are stored elsewhere.

A

widget

262
Q

is a third-party program that extends the built-in functionality of an application or browser.

A

plug-in

263
Q

is programming code that performs a series of commands and can be embedded in a webpage.

A

script

264
Q

that is, scripts that run in a browser to control a webpage’s behavior and often make it interactive.

A

client-side scripts,

265
Q

written in HTML to describe the content of information on a webpage.

A

tags,

266
Q

is a markup language that uses both predefined and customized tags to facilitate the consistent sharing of information, especially within large groups.

A

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

267
Q

or additional information needed to completely specify the tag.

A

attributes

268
Q

indicate the different sections of a webpage. HTML supports six levels of headings.

A

Headings

269
Q

identify the location of resources in the current website.

A

Relative references

270
Q

identify the location of resources from other websites.

A

Absolute references

271
Q

display a collection of items in a list format, with each list item preceded by a bullet symbol

A

Unordered lists

272
Q

by default, precede each list item with a number.

A

Ordered lists,

273
Q

can include audio, photos, or videos stored on media sharing websites; media content, such as online calendars, documents, and slideshows

A

Multimedia content

274
Q

items on a website, you place a copy of an object created in a source file into a destination file so that a one-way connection to the source program becomes part of the destination file

A

embed

275
Q

Include this attribute to play the audio or video automatically when the page loads (may not work on mobile devices)

A

autoplay

276
Q

Include this attribute to display audio or video controls, such as play, pause, and volume; if you do not include this option, the only way to stop playing the audio is to close the page

A

Controls

277
Q

uses rules to standardize the appearance of webpage content by defining styles for elements, such as font, margins, positioning, background colors, and more.

A

cascading style sheet (CSS)

278
Q

are specifications that define one or more formatting properties and their values (declarations) for specific HTML tags (selectors).

A

Style rules

279
Q

You also can create style sheets using

A

CSS editor software.

280
Q

, within <style> and </style> tags placed in the head section of an HTML document,

A

embedded styles

281
Q

, specified as a style attribute of most HTML tags within the body section.

A

inline style

282
Q

is a group of related fonts.

A

font family

283
Q

to encrypt data that helps protect consumers and businesses from fraud and identity theft when conducting commerce on the Internet.

A

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

284
Q

, which is an organization that sells and manages domain names.

A

domain registrar

285
Q

is a measure of a web host’s reliability. It could be costly to you if your website goes down due to an issue with your hosting provider;

A

Uptime

286
Q

is a term commonly used to describe the capacity of a communication channel.

A

Bandwidth

287
Q

involves collecting, measuring, evaluating, and reporting how your website is used.

A

Web analytics

288
Q

, which is the sequence of pages or activities the user performs on the website.

A

click path or clickstream

289
Q

gets users to spend long periods of time engaging and encourages them to return for future visits.

A

Sticky content

290
Q

are the number of times an ad is visible to users on a webpage, regardless of whether the user clicks or interacts with the ad.

A

Impressions

291
Q

rate is the number of times users click the ad to go to the sponsor’s website.

A

click-through

292
Q

computer that you use to edit your website is called your

A

local computer

293
Q

(a web server on the Internet

A

remote web server

294
Q

with a vendor specifies that you receive commission on any sales that are generated by users of your website.

A

affiliate agreement

295
Q

consists of groups of users and developers who create guidelines about usage, tools, and education regarding web accessibility

A

Web Accessibility Initiative (WAI)

296
Q

provides preventive mainte-
nance, component installation, and repair services to
customers

A

Technology
service and repair field

297
Q

program includes the study
of compute rs and tech nology and how they are used

A

computer science

298
Q

Ide ntifies business requi rements,
stra t egies, and solutions for cloud
storage and se rvices that meet a
company’s goals or needs

A

Cloud architect

299
Q

Develops art ificial-int ell ige nce-
ba sed machines and prog rams
based on data analysis to mimic
huma n thought pro cesses

A

Cognitive Engineer

300
Q

Spec ifies the structu re, interface,
and req uirem ents of a large-scale
da t abase; de t ermi nes security and
permissions for users

A

Database Designer

301
Q

, or relying on outside companies to perform certain tasks

A

outsourcing

302
Q

refers to the use of teclmology by a
company’s employees to meet the needs of a large business.

A

Enterprise computing

303
Q

ma nages one or more administrative human
resources funct ions, such as main tai ning and managing employee benefits, schedules, and payroll.

A

human resources information system (HRIS )

304
Q

aids in the development and testing of product des ig ns,
and often includes CAD (computer-aided design)

A

Computer-aided engineering (CAE )

305
Q

) monitors and controls inventory, material purchases, and
other processes related to manufacturing operations

A

Material Requirements Planning (MRP

306
Q

is an extension of MRP that also includes prod-
uct packaging and shipping, machine scheduling, fi na ncia l planning, demand fo recasting, tracking
labor producti vity, and monitoring product quality

A

Manufacturing Resource Planning II (MRP II)

307
Q

helps salespeople manage customer contacts, schedule customer
meetings, log customer inte ractio ns, manage product information, and place customer orders

A

Salesforce automation (SFA )

308
Q

manages informa tion about custome rs, past
purchases, interests, and the day -to -da y interactions, such as phone calls, email messages, web
communications, and Internet messa gi ng sessions

A

Customer relationship management (CRM )

309
Q

integ rates MRP II with
the information flow across an organization to manage
and coordinate th e ongoing activities of th e enterprise

A

Enterprise
Resource Planning (ERP)

310
Q

is an in formation system
th at ca ptures and processes data from day-to-day
business activities.

A

transaction
processing system (TPS)

311
Q

, the computer
collects data over time and processes all tran sa ctions
la ter, as a group.

A

batch processing

312
Q

the computer processes each transaction as
it is entered

A

online transaction processing
(OLTP),

313
Q

is an information system that
generates accurate, timely, and organized information

A

management
information system (MIS)

314
Q

helps users analyze information and make decisions.

A

decision support system
(DSS)

315
Q

Programs that analyze data, such
as those in a decision support system, sometimes are
called

A

online analytical processing (OLAP

316
Q

is an informa-
tion system that captures and stores the knowledge of
human experts and then imitates hum an reasoning and
decision making.

A

expert system

317
Q

is the comb in ed subject knowledge and
experiences of the human experts.

A

knowledge base

318
Q

are a set of logical judgments that are applied to the
knowledge base each time a user describes a situation to
the expert system.

A

inference rules

319
Q

system manages the fl ow of goods
and services of a business

A

supply chain
management (SCM)

320
Q

your knowledge
in a specific area to employers or potential employers.

A

certification demonstrates

321
Q

vary in scope from a narrow focus
with an emph asis on the repair of a specific device to an
integrated hardware solution that addresses a company’s
current and future technology needs.

A

Hardware certifications

322
Q

certifications focus on the discovery, co ll ection,
and analysis of evidence on computers and networks

A

Data analysis

323
Q

is acquired through years of experience
and training because so many variables exist for a total
network solution

A

Network expertise

324
Q

These
certifications focus on particular ski lls of the user, the
operator, the system administrator, and the software
engineer.

A

Operating System Certifications

325
Q

These certifications usually are supported with
training programs that prepare applicants for the certification
test.

A

Programmer/Developer Certifications

326
Q

measure a candidate’s ability to
identify and co ntr ol security risks associated with any
eve nt or action that could cause a loss of or damage
to comp uter hard wa re, software, data, information, or
processing capability

A

Security certifications

327
Q

, or working from home, can mutually
benefit emp loyers and em ployees

A

Telecommuting

328
Q

shows exampl es of your wor k.
Graphic artists and other digital media pro ducers may
use a portfo li o to de mon strate their abilities, style, and
past work

A

portfolio

329
Q
A