Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

bar flashcards > Crim Law > Flashcards

Crim Law Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
MBE flashcards
1
Q

There’s federal jurisdiction to prosecute criminals if

A

(1) the crime occurs anywhere in the US
(2) the crime occurs on ships and planes, or
(3) the crime is committed by a US national abroad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

State jurisdiction for criminal law is limited to

A

(1) A crime that occurs in whole or in part in the state,
(2) Conduct outside the state which attempts to commit a crime in the state, or
(3) A conspiracy to commit a crime if an overt act occurs within the state

Think: Nexus with state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Actus reus requires

A

(1) Voluntary, physical act OR
(2) Failure to act (e.g. given statutory duty or special relationship)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Common Law Mens Rea crimes

A

(1) Specific Intent
(2) Malice
(3) General Intent
(4) Strict Liability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Specific Intent Mens Rea + Crimes (Common Law)

A

Actus reus committed for the very purpose of causing the result

(1) First-degree murder
(2) Inchoate Crimes
(3) Assault with attempt to commit battery
(4) Theft offenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Inchoate Crimes include

A

Conspiracy, Attempt, Solicitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Theft offenses include

A

Larceny, embezzlement, forgery, burglary, robbery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mens Rea for Malice + Crimes (Common Law)

A

Defendant acts in reckless disregard for high degree of harm

(1) Arson
(2) Murder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mens Rea for General-Intent + Crimes (Common law)

A

Intent to perform an act that is unlawful. Done knowingly, recklessly, or negligently

(1) Battery
(2) Kidnapping
(3) Rape
(4) False imprisonment

Note: Most commonly tested are Battery and Manslaughter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mens Rea in MPC

A

(1) Purpose
(2) Knowledge
(3) Recklessness
(4) Negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mens rea for Purpose (MPC)

A

Defendant’s conscious objective is to engage in conduct OR cause a certain result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mens rea for Knowledge (MPC)

A

Defendant is aware that

(1) Conduct is of nature required to commit a crime, and
(2) The result is practically certain to occur from this conduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mens rea for Recklessness

A

Defendant acts with conscious disregard of a substantial and unjustifiable risk (gross deviation from standard of reasonable person)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mens rea for Negligently

A

Defendant should be aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Transferred Intent Doctrine only applies to

A

completed crimes (not attempted crimes) and only to Homicide, Battery, Arson (NOT attempt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Merger of crimes is applicable to

A

(1) Lesser-included offenses, and
(2) Inchoate crime and completed offenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lesser Included Offenses merge because

A

Offense 2 has all the elements of Offense 1 plus something additional (e.g. Robbery + Larceny)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Merger of Inchoate and Completed offenses means a defendant

A

Cannot be convicted of
-Attempt and Completion of a crime
-Solicitation and Completion of a crime

BUT CAN be convicted of both:
-Conspiracy and Completion of a crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Culpability of children under common law

A

Under 7 years old, not capable

7-13 years old, rebuttable presumption to be incapable

14+ can be charged as adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Principals are defendants whose

A

Actions or omissions form actus reus of the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Accomplices are people who

A

Assist the principal either before or during the commission of a crime with intent to assist (bystanders cannot be accomplices)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Liability for criminal acts extends to

A

the planned crime and any other foreseeable crime that may occur in the course of the criminal act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A person protected by statute cannot be

A

an accomplice in violating the statute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Accessories after the fact are

A

individuals who assist the defendant after the crime has been committed (cannot be convicted of underlying crime but are guilty of separate crime)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Mental States of Accomplices (MPC)

A

Majority - Purpose to promote / facilitate and intent to assist or encourage criminal conduct

Minority - Intentionally or knowingly aids or causes another person to commit a crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Mistake of law goes to issues concerning

A

what the law forbids and what it permits (ignorance of law is no excuse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Exceptions to mistake of law

A

(1) Reliance on high-level government interpretations
(2) Lack of notice
(3) Mistake of law that goes to an element of specific intent (applied to FIAT / specific-intent crimes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mistake of fact is

A

(1) never a defense to strict liability crimes
(2) A defense to general-intent crimes only if reasonable and goes to criminal intent
(3) A defense to specific-intent crimes regardless of reasonable or unreasonable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tests of Insanity

A

(1) M’naghten test: D did not know nature of act or did not know it was wrong b/c mental disease or defect

(2) Irresistible Impulse: D prevented from controlling self b/c mental defect

(3) Durham Rule: But-for rule

(4) MPC: Due to mental disease/defect, D did not have substantial capacity to appreciate wrongfulness OR conform conduct to law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Involuntary intoxication is a defense to

A

general intent, specific intent and malice crimes when it negates mens rea necessary for the crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Voluntary intoxication is only a defense to

A

specific intent crimes if it prevented D from forming mens rea (can’t get intoxicated in ORDER to commit crime)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Elements of Common Law conspiracy

A

(1) An agreement
(2) Between 2 or more people
(3) To commit unlawful act

Conspiracy becomes committed crime at time of agreement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Elements of Modern/MPC conspiracy

A

Agreement (explicit or implicit) to commit unlawful act (can be 1 person) + Overt act in furtherance of conspiracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Scope of conviction for conspiracy (Common Law)

A

Each co-conspirator can be convicted of (1) Conspiracy and (2) All substantive crimes committed in furtherance of the conspiracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Forms of co-conspiracy liability

A

(1) Chain Conspiracy: Each participant is liable for subsequent crimes of co-conspirators (e.g. distribute drugs)

(2) Spoke-Hub Conspiracy: Participants are not liable for substantive crimes of co-conspirators b/c each spoke is treated as separate agreement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Withdrawal from a conspiracy

A

(1) Under Common law impossible b/c crime committed the moment the agreement is made

(2) Under Federal/MPC can withdraw prior to commission of overt act by communicating intent to withdraw or informing law enforcement

Note: After overt act has been taken, can withdraw by helping law enforcement thwart success

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Requirements for Attempt

A

(1) Specific intent to commit particular act, and
(2) Substantial step towards perpetrating

Note: Attempt is a specific intent crime even when completed offense is only general intent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Requirements for Solicitation

A

Intentionally invites, requests, or commands another person to commit a crime

If there’s agreement, this makes it conspiracy

If crime is completed solicitation will merge into completed offense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Homicide requires

A

(1) the killing of a living human being by another human being, and
(2) Actual and Proximate causation (but-for & foreseeability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

First-degree murder is

A

deliberate and pre-meditated killing (specific intent-crime)

41
Q

Types of Common Law murder (malice aforethought)

A

(1) Intent to kill
(2) Intent to inflict serious bodily harm
(3) Abandoned or malignant heart or depraved heart
(4) Felony murder (during BARRK)

42
Q

BARRK Felonies are

A

Burglary, Arson, Robbery, Rape, Kidnapping

43
Q

Felony murder is applicable to

A

(1) Someone who resists the felony
(2) When a bystander is killed during a felony
(3) When a third-person is killed by the resister or police officer (minority of jurisdictions)
(4) Killing of co-felon by resister or police officer (in minority of jurisdictions)

Note: killing of a co-felon by the defendant (another co-felon) will support a felony-murder conviction

44
Q

Types of manslaughter

A

Voluntary and involuntary

Manslaughter = murder that are not first degree or common law murder

45
Q

Voluntary Manslaughter may be applicable if the defendant acted

A

in the heat of passion or under extreme emotional disturbance

(Imperfect self defense also equals voluntary manslaughter)

46
Q

Involuntary manslaughter may be applicable if the defendant acted

A

negligently in killing someone or killing someone while committing a crime other than a BARRK felony (e.g. misdemeanor manslaughter)

47
Q

Elements of Larceny

A

(1) Taking (any movement)
(2) Of another’s property
(3) without consent, and
(4) With intent to deprive him of it permanently

Note: Larceny by TRICK results in obtaining POSSESSION through known misrepresentation

48
Q

Is larceny a specific-intent crime?

A

Yes (T in FIAT)

49
Q

Embezzlement is a variation of larceny which differs in that

A

the defendant starts out having victim’s consent to have property but then converts property to defendant’s own personal use

50
Q

False pretenses is another form of larceny in which

A

defendant obtains TITLE to someone else’s property through an act of deception

51
Q

Robbery can be defined as

A

Taking of another’s property without his consent with the intent to deprive him of it permanently (larceny) and the taking occurs from the victim’s person or in his presence either by violence or putting victim in fear of imminent harm

Think: Larceny + assault

52
Q

Extortion is

A

a variation of robbery where there is a threat of future harm

Note: must actually receive possession (complete crime) in order to be guilty

53
Q

Elements of Common Law burglary

A

(1) Breaking and
(2) Entering
(3) the dwelling
(4) of another
(5) at night
(6) with the intent to commit a felony once inside

54
Q

Modern burglary has changed the elements in that

A

it is property (not necessary dwelling) of another and need not be at night

Note: Cannot burglarize self

55
Q

“Breaking” in the context of a burglary requires

A

pushing open or smashing a door or window, or obtaining entry by fraud

56
Q

Battery is

A

the unlawful application of force to another person that causes bodily harm or offensive touching

AND

A general intent crime so unreasonable mistake of fact / voluntary intoxication are not defenses

57
Q

Assault is

A

(1) Attempted battery (specific intent)
(2) Intentionally placing another in fear of imminent bodily harm (general intent)

58
Q

Under the modern trend, rape is

A

gender neutral and concerns lack of consent.

General intent crime (voluntary intoxication cannot be used as a defense)

59
Q

Elements of kidnapping

A

(1) Unlawful
(2) Confinement of another person
(3) Against the person’s will
(4) Either by moving or hiding the victim

60
Q

Elements of Arson

A

(1) Malicious
(2) Burning
(3) Of another person’s
(4) Dwelling

Note: Modern trend is to relax standard, and Arson is malicious burning of any dwelling or commercial building even if there’s no structural damage or fire was caused by explosion

61
Q

Perjury is the

A

Willful act of falsely promising to tell the truth either verbally or in writing

Requires:
(1) Knowledge that person is saying is something false
(2) Intent to say something that is false
(3) Falsity must go to a MATERIAL matter

62
Q

Subornation of Perjury is when

A

A person persuades someone else to commit perjury (e.g. paying someone to testify)

63
Q

Bribery is

A

Under Common Law:
(1) Corrupt payment made for purposes of influencing an official in discharging of official duties

Modern law
(2) Does not need to be a public official (e.g. corporate execs)

Offering and receiving a bribe are BOTH felonies

64
Q

Non-deadly force may be used when

A

victim reasonably fears imminent unlawful harm

65
Q

Deadly force may be used when

A

victim reasonably believes deadly force (or serious bodily injury under MPC) will be used against him

66
Q

Duress is a defense when

A

the defendant committed a crime only because he was threatened by a third party and reasonably believe that the only way to avoid death or serious injury to self or others was to commit crime

Applicable to all crimes except intentional murder

67
Q

Necessity is a defense when response to

A

Natural forces

68
Q

There is no duty to retreat before using deadly force in self-defense in

A

the majority of jurisdictions, and when inside one’s home

69
Q

A defendant who has taken a substantial step in the attempt of a crime may not

A

legally abandon (or withdraw from) the attempt due to a change of heart or fear of apprehension

70
Q

Unreasonable (though genuine belief it was needed) use of force which results in death results in

A

voluntary manslaughter (not murder)

Think: imperfect self-defense

71
Q

Parent neglecting a child for religious reasons which leads to the child’s death results in

A

involuntary manslaughter

72
Q

Possession offenses require proof that the defendant

A

(1) knowingly received an illegal item or
(2) exercised dominion and control over the item after learning of its illegal character

73
Q

Possession offenses require proof that the defendant

A

(1) knowingly received an illegal item or
(2) exercised dominion and control over the item after learning of its illegal character

74
Q

“Breaking” in the context of burglary can still be met if the defendant had consent to enter the dwelling if

A

the defendant enters another part of the dwelling structure without consent (e.g. opening closet door or wall safe)

75
Q

A person cannot be convicted of solicitation if

A

(1) the solicited crime requires more than one participant
(2) the criminal statute imposes liability on one participant, and
(3) the soliciting party is the type of person the law was enacted to protect

76
Q

An accomplice’s intent to aid the principal can be inferred when the accomplice

A

(1) provides highly specialized goods or services
(2) receives unusually large profits from a sale (or agreement like renting to someone engaged in gambling)
(3) has some greater interest in the crime’s success

77
Q

The use of physical force in the exercise of parental authority by a parent or person in charge of a child is

A

justified if exercised for the benefit of a minor-aged child

78
Q

Criminal assault occurs when a defendant

A

(1) attempts to commit a battery or
(2) intentionally places another in reasonable apprehension of imminent harmful or offensive contact.

79
Q

The Pinkerton Rule holds all conspirators liable for

A

any foreseeable crimes committed by a coconspirator in furtherance of the conspiracy—regardless of whether they had knowledge of those crimes

80
Q

At common law, a conspirator cannot be convicted of a conspiracy if

A

all other co-conspirators are acquitted at the SAME trial

81
Q

A person cannot commit larceny by taking property freely given by another even if

A

the person was unaware of the fact the property was being freely given

82
Q

Bigamy is a

A

strict liability crime (mistake of fact is NOT a defense)

83
Q

Fraud in the inducement occurs when fraud is used to

A

gain consent to what the victim knows is an act of sexual intercourse and does not negate the victim’s consent (V knows she’s consenting to sex)

(compare with Fraud in facum - which covers fraud regarding the nature of the act itself e.g. convincing V sex is part of medical exam - which does negate consent)

84
Q

Criminal negligence is

A

grossly negligent action that puts another person at a significant risk of bodily injury or death
OR
Gross deviation from standard of conduct of a law-abiding citizen

(involuntary manslaughter)

85
Q

Simple battery may become aggravated battery (a felony) when

A

(1) D causes serious bodily injury
(2) D uses a deadly weapon in intended manner
(3) Victim is specially protected (e.g. child, woman, police)

86
Q

Simple assault may become aggravated assault (a felony) when

A

(1) D acts with intent to commit a violent crime (e.g. rape or murder)
(2) D uses a dangerous weapon, or
(3) Victim is specially protected

87
Q

Forgery requires the creation or altering of a writing with

A

apparent legal significance so that it is false and using it with intent to defraud

88
Q

An initial aggressor may regain the right of self-defense upon

A

(1) complete withdrawal perceived by the other party, or
(2) Escalation of force by the victim of the initial aggression

89
Q

Under the agency theory of felony murder (majority rule), a defendant is responsible for

A

deaths proximately caused by himself or co-felons during the commission or attempted commission of an inherently dangerous felony - but not for deaths caused by others

Compare with Proximate Cause theory (minority) which would hold co-felons liable

90
Q

Under the modern approach, an accomplice may be held liable even if

A

the principal is not found criminally liable

91
Q

When a statute does not specify the requisite mens rea, the minimum required mental state according to the MPC is

A

recklessness (conscious disregard of a substantial and unjustified risk)

92
Q

A crime is more likely to be a strict liability crime if

A

the crime comes with relatively light penalties (e.g. fines only) and are regulatory in nature (relate to public health and safety)

93
Q

Conversion, in the context of embezzlement, is

A

the inappropriate use of the property of another (which was lawfully given) which causes a serious interference with the owner’s rights to the property

94
Q

Stolen property is property that is

A

obtained through false pretenses, larceny, or embezzlement

95
Q

To be guilty of receiving stolen property, the defendant must

A

receive control of stolen property, know that the property is stolen, and intend to permanently deprive the owner of the property

Some jurisdictions: require actual, subjective knowledge

Other jurisdictions: permit knowledge by inference

96
Q

Vicarious liability may be properly applied to strict-liability regulatory crimes when

A

the punishment is limited to fines (jail time would violate due process)

97
Q

Impossibility is not a defense to attempt if

A

the crime attempted is factually impossible to commit due to circumstances unknown to the defendant

Note: think stat rape (still can be convicted even if person is over 18 but defendant thought they were under)

98
Q

When a defendant sets in motion forces that lead to the death of the victim, the defendant is

A

the actual cause of the victim’s death

99
Q

An act that accelerates impending death is

A

a legal cause (aka proximate cause) of the death

bar flashcards (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions