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NASM 7th Edition > CPT 7 Practice Test > Flashcards

CPT 7 Practice Test Flashcards

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1
Q

What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise test?

Select one:

a.
Any malfunction or failure of any exercise or testing equipment.

b.
The individual chooses to stop or requests to stop the test being administered.

c.
Visible signs of unusual or excessive fatigue, shortness of breath, or a wheezing type of breath that is not typical of intense exercise.

d.
The individual is tired from the test.

A

d.
The individual is tired from the test.

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2
Q

Calcium is of principal importance for what?

Select one:

a.
Clearing toxins

b.
Maintaining strong bones

c.
Maintaining a strong immune system

d.
Nutrient absorption

A

b.
Maintaining strong bones

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3
Q

Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
Select one:

a.
Core endurance

b.
Core stability

c.
Core strength

d.
Core power

A

c.
Core strength

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4
Q

Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
Select one:

a.
Stride rate

b.
Speed

c.
Agility

d.
Quickness

A

d.
Quickness

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5
Q

When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?
Select one:

a.
Below VT1

b.
From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

c.
Above VT2

d.
From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2

A

b.
From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

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6
Q

Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals?
Select one:

a.
1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight

b.
1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

c.
1.0 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

d.
1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

A

d.
1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

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7
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
Select one:

a.
1 or 2 reps

b.
6 to 8 reps

c.
3 to 5 reps

d.
8 to 10 reps

A

c.
3 to 5 reps

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8
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?
Select one:

a.
An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

b.
An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult

c.
An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable

d.
An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible

A

a.
An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

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9
Q

Which statement about cancer is most accurate?
Select one:

a.
There is a lack of cell growth in the body.

b.
Cells in the body grow abnormally.

c.
It is most common in adults between the ages of 30 and 55.

d.
Almost all cancers are preventable.

A

b.
Cells in the body grow abnormally.

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10
Q

For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?
Select one:

a.
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week

b.
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week

c.
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

d.
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week

A

c.
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

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11
Q

What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment?
Select one:

a.
Both feet on the floor

b.
The absence of perturbations

c.
A stable floor

d.
Correct technique

A

d.
Correct technique

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12
Q

Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source?
Select one:

a.
Dairy foods

b.
Legumes

c.
Grains

d.
Beans

A

a.
Dairy foods

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13
Q

Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how?
Select one:

a.
More efficiently

b.
Equally

c.
Not at all

d.
Less efficiently

A

a.
More efficiently

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14
Q

Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?
Select one:

a.
Cervical and sacral

b.
Thoracic and lumbar

c.
Thoracic and sacral

d.
Cervical and thoracic

A

c.
Thoracic and sacral

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15
Q

Proprioception is best described as which of the following statements?
Select one:

a.
The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements

b.
The resistance to the external disruptions to one’s postural equilibrium

c.
The brain’s positional awareness of the limbs, head, and trunk both at rest and in movement

d.
Awareness of the body’s position as it moves through multiple planes of motion

A

a.
The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements

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16
Q

Which of the following terms can be defined as relating to one side of the body?
Select one:

a.
Unilateral

b.
Bilateral

c.
Ipsilateral

d.
Contralateral

A

a.
Unilateral

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17
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:

a.
Hip flexor complex

b.
Gluteus maximus

c.
Lumbar extensors

d.
Latissimus dorsi

A

b.
Gluteus maximus

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18
Q

The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?
Select one:

a.
Deltoid

b.
Rhomboids

c.
Serratus anterior

d.
Rotator cuff muscles

A

c.
Serratus anterior

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19
Q

What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the shoulder blades so that they become closer together?
Select one:

a.
Scapular retraction

b.
Scapular protraction

c.
Scapular depression

d.
Scapular elevation

A

a.
Scapular retraction

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20
Q

Which of the following global muscles’ primary action is hip flexion?
Select one:

a.
Erector spinae

b.
Rectus abdominis

c.
Iliopsoas

d.
Latissimus dorsi

A

c.
Iliopsoas

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21
Q

Which of the following is a banned substance in the United States?
Select one:

a.
Creatine

b.
Hordenine

c.
Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)

d.
Caffeine

A

c.
Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)

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22
Q

What is the primary adaptation for the Muscular Development phase of the OPT model?
Select one:

a.
Power

b.
Speed

c.
Hypertrophy

d.
Stabilization

A

c.
Hypertrophy

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23
Q

When a person is thinking about implementing change but has not yet taken any steps to get started, what stage of change are they likely in?
Select one:

a.
Contemplation

b.
Action

c.
Precontemplation

d.
Maintenance

A

a.
Contemplation

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24
Q

What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?
Select one:

a.
Tuck jump with stabilization

b.
Box jump-up with stabilization

c.
Squat jump with stabilization

d.
Multiplanar jump with stabilization

A

d.
Multiplanar jump with stabilization

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25
Q

What principle describes the nervous system’s ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement?
Select one:

a.
Concentric control

b.
Neuromuscular efficiency

c.
Eccentric control

d.
All-or-nothing principle

A

b.
Neuromuscular efficiency

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26
Q

What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements?
Select one:

a.
Cognitive fusion

b.
Stopping

c.
Imagery

d.
Reverse listing

A

d.
Reverse listing

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27
Q

What is end-diastolic volume?
Select one:

a.
The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

b.
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

c.
The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

d.
The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

A

d.
The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

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28
Q

Which option is a common strength-focused resistance training exercise?
Select one:

a.
Barbell bench press

b.
Medicine ball soccer throw

c.
Single-leg cable row

d.
Box jumps

A

a.
Barbell bench press

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29
Q

Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?
Select one:

a.
Quickness

b.
Coordination

c.
Agility

d.
Balance

A

a.
Quickness

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30
Q

If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production?
Select one:

a.
The ATP-PC system

b.
The citric acid cycle

c.
Oxidative phosphorylation

d.
Glycolysis

A

a.
The ATP-PC system

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31
Q

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?
Select one:

a.
Hip hinge

b.
Pulling

c.
Pushing

d.
Squatting

A

c.
Pushing

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32
Q

Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following?
Select one:

a.
Release of stored energy during concentric phase

b.
Prolonged amortization phase

c.
Rapid amortization phase

d.
Absent stretch reflex

A

c.
Rapid amortization phase

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33
Q

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground.
Select one:

a.
Visual

b.
Somatosensory

c.
Sensorimotor function

d.
Vestibular

A

d.
Vestibular

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34
Q

When family members are not supportive of exercise-related behaviors, it can be viewed as which of the following?
Select one:

a.
Amotivation to exercise

b.
An influence on exercise

c.
A barrier to exercise

d.
Ambivalence toward exercise

A

c.
A barrier to exercise

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35
Q

Which of the following would be a helpful and sustainable strategy for achieving a moderate calorie deficit for fat loss?
Select one:

a.
Replacing high-fiber foods with low-fiber options

b.
Avoiding a food group (e.g., fats or carbohydrates)

c.
Limiting meals to once a day

d.
Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes

A

d.
Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes

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36
Q

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
Select one:

a.
Mechanical and neurophysiological response

b.
Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength

c.
Davis’s law and Wolf’s law

d.
Pain response and muscle spasm

A

a.
Mechanical and neurophysiological response

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37
Q

What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target?
Select one:

a.
Lateral triceps brachii

b.
Medial gastrocnemius

c.
Lateral hamstrings

d.
Middle deltoid

A

a.
Lateral triceps brachii

38
Q

What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis?
Select one:

a.
Linear

b.
Macrocycle

c.
Undulating

d.
Mesocycle

A

c.
Undulating

39
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?
Select one:

a.
15 to 60 seconds

b.
60 to 90 seconds

c.
90 to 120 seconds

d.
0 to 15 seconds

A

a.
15 to 60 seconds

40
Q

What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell?
Select one:

a.
With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

b.
A kettlebell is heavier.

c.
Kettlebells and dumbbells are the same.

d.
A dumbbell is safer.

A

a.
With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

41
Q

For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?
Select one:

a.
Elevated and slightly protracted

b.
Depressed and slightly retracted

c.
Depressed and slightly protracted

d.
Elevated and slightly retracted

A

b.
Depressed and slightly retracted

42
Q

A client who has been training consistently for over a year has indicated that he wants to find more efficient ways to exercise at home. Which type of social support does he need?
Select one:

a.
Instrumental support

b.
Emotional support

c.
Companionship support

d.
Informational support

A

d.
Informational support

43
Q

Which of the following is not a goal of Phase 1 of the OPT model?
Select one:

a.
Improving mobility

b.
Proper movement patterns

c.
Increasing strength

d.
Improving stability

A

c.
Increasing strength

44
Q

Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?
Select one:

a.
Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test

b.
YMCA 3-minute step test

c.
Rockport 1-mile walk test

d.
1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

A

b.
YMCA 3-minute step test

45
Q

Self-esteem is defined by which of the following?
Select one:

a.
How someone views their physical self or how they visualize their body

b.
How someone conceptualizes their place in society

c.
How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially

d.
When someone is anxious about how others view their body

A

c.
How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially

46
Q

What is the correct order of segments for the spine, starting at the top?
Select one:

a.
Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

b.
Thoracic, cervical, and lumbar

c.
Cervical, lumbar, and thoracic

d.
Lumbar, cervical, and thoracic

A

a.
Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

47
Q

What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle?
Select one:

a.
Muscle atrophy, neuromuscular recruitment, increased flexibility, muscle pain, bruising, and tissue edema

b.
Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance

c.
Muscle spasm, neuromuscular pain, increased psychological fear, poor flexibility, muscle pain, and bruising

d.
Muscle hypertrophy, altered neuromuscular inhibition, poor flexibility, muscle ache, swelling, and tissue bruising

A

b.
Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance

48
Q

What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin?
Select one:

a.
0.5

b.
0.4

c.
0.25

d.
0.1

A

a.
0.5

49
Q

When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate?
Select one:

a.
Taking longer for heart rate to return to normal after vigorous exercise is a good indicator of a healthy heart.

b.
Wrist-worn heart rate monitors are as accurate as chest strap monitors.

c.
Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

d.
Heart rate monitors provide the user with positive motivation and 100% accuracy.

A

c.
Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

50
Q

Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure?
Select one:

a.
Resting metabolism

b.
Thermic effect of food

c.
Thermic effect of activity

d.
Exercise

A

a.
Resting metabolism

51
Q

Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client’s balance during movement?
Select one:

a.
Single-leg squat

b.
40-yard dash

c.
Overhead squat

d.
Push-up test

A

a.
Single-leg squat

52
Q

Which of the following is true about body image?
Select one:

a.
Body image is a very stable variable and, once established, rarely changes for an individual.

b.
Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.

c.
Body image is more positive in individuals who regularly exercise in a group setting.

d.
Body image is measured accurately based on an individual evaluating a picture of themselves.

A

b.
Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.

53
Q

Why is the hurdler’s stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch?
Select one:

a.
The stretch is too complicated for the new client.

b.
The stretch is too advanced for the average person.

c.
The stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles.

d.
The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

A

d.
The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

54
Q

In a SWOT analysis, which of the following would be an example of a strength?
Select one:

a.
Needing to learn more about marketing and sales

b.
Taking a workshop to learn more about sales and marketing for fitness professionals

c.
Having the NASM-CPT credential

d.
Competition from the other health clubs and training studios in the immediate area

A

c.
Having the NASM-CPT credential

55
Q

Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate?
Select one:

a.
Greater caloric expenditure in exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.

b.
Greater muscle mass accumulated through exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.

c.
Cardiorespiratory fitness training does not provide many health benefits, and it should not be top priority when designing a program.

d.
An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

A

d.
An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

56
Q

What type of fitness professional has advanced knowledge, training, and experience in designing and implementing strength and conditioning programs for competitive athletes?
Select one:

a.
Certified Personal Trainer

b.
Physical therapist

c.
Strength and conditioning coach

d.
Group fitness instructor

A

c.
Strength and conditioning coach

57
Q

What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise?
Select one:

a.
Eccentric unloading, concentric loading, amortization

b.
Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading

c.
Amortization, concentric loading, eccentric unloading

d.
Concentric unloading, amortization, eccentric loading

A

b.
Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading

58
Q

Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise?
Select one:

a.
Seated leg extension

b.
Barbell squat

c.
Overhead press

d.
Bench press

A

a.
Seated leg extension

59
Q

What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?
Select one:

a.
Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities

b.
Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement

c.
Move the trunk

d.
Stabilize vertebral segments

A

d.
Stabilize vertebral segments

60
Q

Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients?
Select one:

a.
Pushing assessment

b.
Pulling assessment

c.
Single-leg squat

d.
Overhead squat

A

d.
Overhead squat

61
Q

Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
Select one:

a.
Auditory system

b.
Visual system

c.
Somatosensory system

d.
Vestibular system

A

d.
Vestibular system

62
Q

Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements?
Select one:

a.
Gluteus maximus

b.
Erector spinae

c.
Multifidus

d.
Rectus abdominis

A

c.
Multifidus

63
Q

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
Select one:

a.
Proprioceptive plyometrics

b.
Ice skaters

c.
Squat jump

d.
Depth jumps

A

b.
Ice skaters

64
Q

What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action?
Select one:

a.
Guided practice

b.
Implementation intention

c.
Coping plan

d.
Self-monitoring

A

b.
Implementation intention

65
Q

Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual’s true metabolic function?
Select one:

a.
YMCA 3-minute step test

b.
Rockport walk test

c.
Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

d.
1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

A

c.
Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

66
Q

Which joints are most associated with human movement?
Select one:

a.
Saddle

b.
Nonaxial

c.
Synovial

d.
Nonsynovial

A

c.
Synovial

67
Q

What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched?
Select one:

a.
Prolonged increases in flexibility and joint range of motion

b.
Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle

c.
Increased mobility and balance

d.
Increased muscle strength and speed

A

b.
Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle

68
Q

What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?
Select one:

a.
Variables and pattern

b.
Volume and progression

c.
Variables and progression

d.
Velocity and pattern

A

b.
Volume and progression

69
Q

What anatomical term is used to describe something that is relatively closer to the midline of the body?
Select one:

a.
Posterior

b.
Anterior

c.
Medial

d.
Lateral

A

c.
Medial

70
Q

The B vitamins have a primary role in what?
Select one:

a.
Cancer prevention

b.
Hydration

c.
Macronutrient metabolism

d.
Muscle contraction

A

c.
Macronutrient metabolism

71
Q

Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins?
Select one:

a.
Left atrium

b.
Left ventricle

c.
Right ventricle

d.
Right atrium

A

d.
Right atrium

72
Q

During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body?
Select one:

a.
Squat, curl to two-arm press

b.
Single-leg Romanian deadlift

c.
Ball squat

d.
Multiplanar step-up

A

a.
Squat, curl to two-arm press

73
Q

What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients?
Select one:

a.
5,000 kcal

b.
12,000 kcal

c.
1,200 kcal

d.
500 kcal

A

c.
1,200 kcal

74
Q

Which of the following is true of protein shakes?
Select one:

a.
They are required to build muscle.

b.
They are a poor choice for recovery.

c.
They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.

d.
They are dangerous and should be avoided.

A

c.
They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.

75
Q

What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?
Select one:

a.
Protraction

b.
Retraction

c.
Upward rotation

d.
Elevation

A

b.
Retraction

76
Q

Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults?
Select one:

a.
Exercise group

b.
The community

c.
Family

d.
Exercise leader

A

c.
Family

77
Q

In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes?
Select one:

a.
Phase 3

b.
Phase 5

c.
Phase 2

d.
Phase 4

A

c.
Phase 2

78
Q

If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?
Select one:

a.
Eccentric contraction

b.
Isometric contraction

c.
Stretch reflex

d.
Lengthening reaction

A

c.
Stretch reflex

79
Q

The TRX Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement?
Select one:

a.
Flexion and extension

b.
Abduction and Adduction

c.
Rotation

d.
Inversion and eversion

A

c.
Rotation

80
Q

What are the building blocks of body proteins?
Select one:

a.
Amino acids

b.
Glucose

c.
Ketone bodies

d.
Triglycerides

A

a.
Amino acids

81
Q

Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion?
Select one:

a.
Static posture assessment

b.
Performance assessment

c.
Dynamic posture assessment

d.
Overhead squat assessment

A

c.
Dynamic posture assessment

82
Q

How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual?
Select one:

a.
It is measured over a 10-second count during the last 30 seconds of the test.

b.
It is measured over a 20-second count immediately following the test.

c.
It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.

d.
It is measured over a 30-second count during the last minute of the test.

A

c.
It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.

83
Q

Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries?
Select one:

a.
Type IIa

b.
Type III

c.
Type IIx

d.
Type I

A

d.
Type I

84
Q

Why is third-party verification important?
Select one:

a.
It shows which supplements to trust.

b.
It sets regulations regarding illegal ingredients.

c.
It is required for a supplement to be put on the market.

d.
It provides unbiased testing for a product.

A

d.
It provides unbiased testing for a product.

85
Q

What is defined as steady-state exercise?
Select one:

a.
Exercise that burns a lot of calories

b.
Exercise that goes on for a long time

c.
Exercise performed for a short duration of time

d.
Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity

A

d.
Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity

86
Q

What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test?
Select one:

a.
A cadence of 96 steps per minute

b.
A cadence of 60 steps per minute

c.
A cadence of 36 steps per minute

d.
A cadence of 112 steps per minute

A

a.
A cadence of 96 steps per minute

87
Q

Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration?
Select one:

a.
Water

b.
An isotonic sports drink

c.
Fruit juice

d.
A hypertonic sports drink

A

a.
Water

88
Q

How is a general warm-up best defined?
Select one:

a.
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.

b.
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

c.
High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.

d.
High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following.

A

b.
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

89
Q

You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout?
Select one:

a.
3 to 5 drills

b.
10 to 15 drills

c.
6 to 10 drills

d.
1 to 3 drills

A

c.
6 to 10 drills

90
Q

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?
Select one:

a.
Axial

b.
Transverse

c.
Frontal

d.
Sagittal

A

d.
Sagittal

91
Q

What area of the chest contains the heart?
Select one:

a.
Ventricle

b.
Atrium

c.
Mediastinum

d.
Myofibril

A

b.
Atrium

NASM 7th Edition (9 decks)

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