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Histology > Connective Tissue > Flashcards

Connective Tissue Flashcards

1
Q

These are also known as APCs (antigen-presenting cells)

A

Macrophages

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2
Q

Tissue that connects/separates/supports other types of tissues in the body

A

Connective Tissue

it also has loose cells and abundant stroma

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3
Q

ground substance macromolecule that has multiple binding sites for cell surface integrin and other matrix macromolecules

w/ oligosaccharide chains and allow adhesion of cells to their substrate

A

glycoproteins

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4
Q

WBC with 3-4 lobes

A

Neuts

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5
Q

Identified by close packing of collagen fibers

A

Dense CT
1. If randomly oriented - Irregular
2. If in one direction & parallel to each other - Regular

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6
Q

Identify the CT

Ligament

A

Dense Regular CT

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7
Q

this fiber has a basic pH and is stained pink; eosinophilic

A

Collagen

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8
Q

Proteoglycan having a core protein heavily bound with chondroitin and keratan sulfate chains

A

Aggrecan

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9
Q

the most abundant type of protein in the body

A

Collagen
* has 28 types too

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10
Q

What do you call the occurrence of elastin in the wall of large blood vessels (arteries) as fenestrated sheets?

A

Elastic lamellae

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11
Q

Identify the CT Cell

responsible for IgE-mediated response & release of histamine during allergy

A

Mast cells

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12
Q

WBC with a circle nucleus; agranulocyte

A

Lymphocyte

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13
Q

Two types of Adipose CT

A
  1. White Adipose
  2. Brown Adipose
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14
Q

fiber that has a lesser affinity to eosin

A

elastic fiber

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15
Q

Important target cells of leptin are found in which organ?

A

hypothalamus

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16
Q

White adipose = unilocular; ____ = Multilocular

A

Brown adipose

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17
Q

The type of adipose present in the body is dependent on the number of?

A

dependent on the number of Mitochondria (the more the mitochondria = brown)

Brown = Multilocular

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18
Q

Two types of chromatin and specialty

A
  1. Heterochromatin = condensed chromatin and inactive for transcription (fibrocyte)
  2. Euchromatin = loose & active for transcription (fibroblast)
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19
Q

this tissue is found in the mesoderm

A

mesenchymal tissue

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20
Q

WBC with violet to black granules

A

Basophil

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21
Q

glycoprotein that is responsible for forming fibrils

A

Fibrillin

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22
Q

What are the 3 components of ECM

A
  1. Fibers
  2. Ground Substance
  3. Interstitial fluid
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23
Q

Glycoprotein with binding sites for integrin, type IV collagen, and provides adhesion for epithelial cells and other cells

A

laminin

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24
Q

Identify type of collagen present

Hyaline cartilage

A

Type 2

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25
Q

termed as adult fat

A

white fat

in white adipose tissue

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26
Q

This component of CT has glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans, and glycoproteins

A

Ground substance

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27
Q

CT characterised by signet ring appearance and its functions are fat storage, insulation, and mech support

A

Adipose tissue

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28
Q

Identify the CT

Lymph node

A

Reticular

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29
Q

Are cartilage vascular or avascular?

A

Avascular

they receive nutrienz from capillaries in surrounding CT (perichondrium)

they also have no nerves

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30
Q

the cross-section of this looks like a face with 2 arteries and a single vein with an allantoic duct

A

Umbilical cord

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31
Q

termed as adult fat

A

white fat

in white adipose tissue

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32
Q

Amino acid that promotes adhesion between amino acid chains to build collagen

A

Hydroxyproline

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33
Q

Triglyceride soures:

A
  1. Chylomicrons (dietary fats to the cells via circulation)
  2. VLDL (very low-density lipoprotein; lipids synthesized in liver)
  3. Free fatty acids & glycerol by adipocytes
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34
Q

Applied to adipocytes, the term “multilocular” refers to which of the following?
a. The large number of small cytoplasmic lipid droplets
b. The proliferation of the cells in an obese individual
c. The large number of mitochondria in the cells
d. The high density of nerves supplying the tissue
e. The type of mesenchymal cells also present

A

The large number of small cytoplasmic lipid droplets

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35
Q

This is the origin (or embryonic origin) of connective tissues

A

Mesenchyme from mesoderm

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36
Q

Identify type of collagen present

Between the basal lamina and reticular lamina

A

Type 7

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37
Q

this polypeptide hormone have target cells in hypothalamus which helps regulate the appetite and participates in regulating the formation of new adipose tissue

also known as satiety factor

A

Leptin

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38
Q

Identify type of collagen present

Endomysium

A

Type 3

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39
Q

Identify type of collagen present

Spleen

A

Type 3

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40
Q

What do you call the precursor of thrombocytes?

A

Megakaryocytes

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41
Q

Identify the CT

Epiglottis

A

Elastic

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42
Q

sheath of dense connective tissue that surrounds cartilage in most places

A

perichondrium

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43
Q

These cells have granules containing histamine & heparin and is responsible for IgE-mediated responses

A

Mast cells

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44
Q

These cells are infrequent and is usually seen in areas of inflammation. Characterized also by its cartwheel appearance

A

Plasma cells

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45
Q

Type of Collagen present in hyaline and elastic cartilage

A

Type II

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46
Q

Identify the CT Cell

cell with wheel appearance that gives rise to antibodies

A

Plasma cell

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47
Q

type of CT usually seen in hematopoietic organs

A

Reticular CT

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48
Q

Identify the CT Cell

Fiber-producing

A

Fibroblast

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49
Q

Identify the CT

Dermis

A

Dense Irreg CT

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50
Q

Identify type of collagen present

Bone

A

Type 1

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51
Q

Cancer of the connective tissue that is benign

A

Fibroma

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52
Q

largest and most ubiquituous glycosaminoglycan

A

Hyaluronan

synthesized into the ECM by enzyme complex called hyraluronan synthase

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53
Q

2 classifications of CT proper

A
  1. Loose (Areolar = bcoz of air-like spaces; thus, areo)
  2. Dense (may be reg or irreg)
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54
Q

what type of cartilage has no perichondrium?

A

Fibrocartilage

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55
Q

These cells have inclusion bodies called Russel bodies

A

Plasma cells

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56
Q

Chondrocytes are located in matrix cavities called?

A

Lacuna

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57
Q

type of collagen found in dermis, bone, tendon, and fibrocartilage

A

Type I collagen

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58
Q

Fully differentiated white adipocytes are large cells, typically having diameters of approximately what size?

A

50 - 150 μm

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59
Q

2 classifications of embryonic connective tissue

A
  1. Mesenchymal
  2. Mucous
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60
Q

What are the relatively large particles formed in the intestinal epithelial cells and rich in ingested lipids?

A

chylomicrons

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61
Q

Where can mucous CT be found?

A

Umbilical cord

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62
Q

Two main components of CT

A
  1. Cells
  2. ECM
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63
Q

a differentiation of the mesenchymal cell that is considered the mother of all blood elements

A

hemocytoblast

or hematopoietic stem cell

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64
Q

Resident Macrophages in the brain

A

Microglia

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65
Q

Types of collagen accdg to r interacting
α-chains subunits:

A
  1. Fibrillar - Types I, II, III, V
  2. Network/Sheet-forming - IV
  3. Linking/Anchoring - VII
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66
Q

Identify type of collagen present

Tendon

A

Type 1

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67
Q

What is the most important form of lipid storage in both white and brown adipocytes?

A

Triglycerides

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68
Q

Identify the CT

Tendon

A

Dense Regular CT

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69
Q

This CT has slender, retractile fibers with elastin (Collagen Type II)

A

Elastic Tissue

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70
Q

what stimulates glucose uptake by adipocytes and accelerates its conversion into triglycerides?

A

insulin

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71
Q

This CT contains reticulin (Collagen Type III)

A

Reticular Tissue

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72
Q

3 classifications of CT w/ specialized properties

A
  1. Elastic
  2. Reticular
  3. Adipose
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73
Q

Identify type of collagen present

Smooth muscles

A

Type 3

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74
Q

Identify the type of collagen

usually associated with laminins & is located in the lamina lucida of the basal lamina of the basement membrane

A

Type IV

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75
Q

Which of the following contains binding sites for integrins and is an important part of the ECM in both loose connective tissue and dense irregular connective tissue?
a. Aggrecan
b. Fibronectin
c. Perlecan
d. Fibrillin
e. Most types of collagen

A

b. Fibronectin

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76
Q

What vitamin does hydroxyproline need?

A

Vitamin C

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77
Q

True or False

The plentier the mitochondria, the darker the adipocyte

A

True

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78
Q

Resident Macrophages in the Liver

A

Kuppfer’s cells

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79
Q

Identify the CT Cell

WBCs

A

Leukocytes

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80
Q

Largest WBC with a kidney-shaped nucleus; Agranulocyte

A

Monocytes

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81
Q

this fiber stains readily with Periodic Acid Schiff and Silver stains

A

Reticular fibers

seldom visible in H&E (+) in PAS = has 10% carbs than 1% in other fibers

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82
Q

what do you call the proteins wherein one or more glycosaminoglycan chains are attached to?

A

Proteoglycans

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83
Q

These are large complexes of negatively charged heteropolysaccharides (Mucopolysaccharides) chains containing modified forms of glucose

A

Glycosaminoglycans

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84
Q

what do you call the excessive accumulation of interstitial fluid in the connective tissue?

water that comes from the blood passing through capillary walls

A

edema

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85
Q

precursor cells of adipocytes

A

preadipocytes

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86
Q

Identify the CT

Nucleus at periphery

A

Adipose tissue

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87
Q

characterized by abundant ground substance and tissue fluid

A

Areolar CT (loose)

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88
Q

3 types of fibers

A
  1. Collagen
  2. Elastic
  3. Reticular
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89
Q

Identify type of collagen present

Fibrocartilage

A

Type 1

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90
Q

Identify the CT

most widespread & is associated with Type 1 Collagen

A

Loose (Areolar)

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91
Q

this tissue gives rise to all connective tissue

A

mesenchymal tissue

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92
Q

2 classifications of bone tissue

A
  1. Compact
  2. Spongy
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93
Q

cells in the CT that produce fiber

A

fibroblasts

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94
Q

Identify type of collagen present

Liver

A

Type 3

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95
Q

Identify the CT Cell

Fat cell

A

Adipocytes

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96
Q

identify the CT

Perichondrium

A

Dense Irreg CT

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97
Q

these fibers are composite of fibrillin which forms a network of microfibrils embedded in a larger mass of cross-linked elastin

A

Elastic fibers

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98
Q

these fibers are not strongly acidophilic and stain poorly with H&E; stained more with orcein & aldehyde fuchsin

A

Elastic fiber

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99
Q

the hormone-sensitive lipase in the cells of adipose tissue acts primarily on what substrate?

A

triglycerides

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100
Q

Thermogenesis is the main function of this adipose tissue type

A

Brown adipose

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101
Q

Identify type of collagen present

Kidney

A

Type 3

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102
Q

Proteoglycan that is key in all basal lamina

A

Perlecan

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103
Q

What substance, released from the adrenal gland and some autonomic neurons, increases lipolytic activity in white adipocytes?

A

norepinephrine

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104
Q

Amino acid that promotes adhesion between amino acid chains to build collagen

A

Hydroxyproline

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105
Q

Identify type of collagen present

Lung

A

Type 3

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106
Q

Identify the CT

Trachea

A

Hyaline

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107
Q

This CT is widely distributed and has few collagen fibers

A

Loose CT

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108
Q

fiber present in embryonic tissue & represents maturity of tissue

A

reticular

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109
Q

Identify type of collagen present

Dermis

A

Type 1

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110
Q

this CT is the framework of hematopoietic and lymphoid organs

A

Reticular Tissue

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111
Q

4 types of glycosaminoglycans

A
  1. Chondroitin/dermatan sulfate
  2. Keratan sulfate
  3. Heparan sulfate
  4. Hyaluronan
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112
Q

Identify type of collagen present

Fetal membrane

A

Type 5

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113
Q

Plasma cells are derived from where?

A

B lymphocytes

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114
Q

Classifications of Adult Connective tissue

A
  1. CT proper
  2. Ct w/ specialized properties
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115
Q

type of adipocytes that are often closely packed around large capillaries

A

brown adipocytes

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116
Q

Cartilage consists of cells called what?

A

Chondrocytes

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117
Q

identify the CT

capsules surrounding most organs

A

dense irregular CT

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118
Q

Identify the CT

has totipotential

A

Mesenchymal CT

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119
Q

Identify the CT

Aponeurosis

A

Dense Reg CT

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120
Q

3 classifications of specialized CT

A
  1. Blood & lymph
  2. Bone
  3. Cartilage
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121
Q

3 types of cartilage

A
  1. Hyaline
  2. Fibrous
  3. Elastic
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122
Q

glycoprotein synthesized largely by fibroblasts and forms insoluble fibrillar networks thruout CT

A

fibronectin

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123
Q

Identify type of collagen present

Elastic cartilage

A

Type 2

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124
Q

What cells numerous in loose connective tissue are filled with secretory granules and stain with metachromasia

A

Mast cells

125
Q

this is what you call the matrix in mucous connective tissue

A

mucopolysaccharide matrix

126
Q

Cancer of the connective tissue that is malignant

A

Sarcoma

127
Q

CT that fills in the spaces of the body just below the skin

A

Areolar CT

128
Q

Progenitor cells for preadipocytes

A

Mesenchymal stem cells

129
Q

Macrophages are sometimes referred to as what?

A

histiocytes

130
Q

what are the precursos cells of macrophages?

A

monocytes

131
Q

What is an important part of the role played by macrophages during maintenance and renewal of strong extracellular fibers in connective tissue?

A

Presentation of antigens imp for collagen bundle assembly

APCs

132
Q

Fibroblast = active; ____ = quiescent

A

Fibrocyte

133
Q

These cells are responsible for anaphylactic sensitivity reactions

A

Mast cells

134
Q

What do you call the gelatinous substance within the umbilical cord that has the highest concentration of mesenchymal cells (stem cells)

A

Wharton’s jelly

135
Q

Resident Macrophages in the bone

A

Osteoclasts

136
Q

Sulfated GAGs are important constituents of what extracellular structures?

A

Proteoglycans

137
Q

tough durable form of supporting connective tissue characterized by an ECM w/ high conc. of GAGs and proteoglycans

ECM has firm consistency that allows the tissue 2 bear mechanical stress

A

Cartilage

138
Q

Adipocytes are spherical = isolated; ? = when closely packed in orig place

A

polyhedral

139
Q

Type of collagen present in the endomysium, smooth muscles, liver, spleen, kidneys, and the lungs?

A

Type III collagen

140
Q

what are the types of fibers based on its collagen type?

A
  1. Type I collagen - Collagen
  2. Type II - Elastic Fiber
  3. Type III - Reticular Fiber
141
Q

Types of collagen accdg to r interacting
α-chains subunits:

A
  1. Fibrillar - Types I, II, III, V
  2. Network/Sheet-forming - IV
  3. Linking/Anchoring - VII
142
Q

Identify the CT

It’s classification is dependent on the number of mitochondria that appear as locules in the cell

A

Adipose CT

143
Q

What do you call the water in the cround substance of connective tissue?

A

Interstitial fluid

144
Q

Which of the following connective tissue components is located in the ECM but not in the ground substance?
a. Collagen bundles
b. Fibronectin
c. GAGs
d. Hyaluronan
e. Proteoglycans

A

a. collagen bundles

145
Q

WBC that is bilobed with red to orange granules

A

Eosinophils

146
Q

the color of adipose is dependent on the number of?

A

mitochondria

147
Q

a differentiation of the mesenchymal cell that is considered the mother of all blood elements

A

hemocytoblast

or hematopoietic stem cell

148
Q

In adults, this cartilage type is located in the articular surfaces of movable joints

A

hyaline

149
Q

Identify the CT

nose

A

Hyaline

150
Q

identify the CT

larynx

A

hyaline

151
Q

Identify the CT

Bronchi

A

hyaline

152
Q

In the embryo, this cartilage forms the temporary skeleton that is gradually replaced by bone

A

hyaline cartilage

153
Q

Cartilage that is characterized as homogeneous with type II collagen and aggrecan

A

hyaline cartilage

154
Q

typical arrangement of chondrocytes in this cartilage is isolated or in small isogenous groups

A

hyaline cartilage

155
Q

typical arrangement of chondrocytes in this cartilage is usually in small isogenous groups

A

elastic cartilage

156
Q

typical arrangement of chondrocytes in this cartilage is isolated or in isogenous groups arranged axially

A

Fibrocartilage

157
Q

Cartilage in intervertebral discs

A

Fibrocartilage

158
Q

Cartlage in the respiratory tract

A

hyaline cartilage

159
Q

Cartilage in external ear

A

Elastic cartilage

160
Q

Cartilage in epiglottis

A

Elastic cartilage

161
Q

Cartiage found in pubc symphysis

A

Fibrocartilage

162
Q

This cartilage provides smooth, low-friction surfaces in joints; structural support for respiratory tract

A

Hyaline

163
Q

This cartilage provides flexible shape and support to soft tissues

A

Elastic cartilage

164
Q

cartilage that provides cushioning, tensile strength, and resistance to tearing and compression

A

fibrocartilage

165
Q

what is the most abundant proteoglycan in hyaline cartilage?

A

Aggrecan

166
Q

Water bound to GAGs in the proteoglycans consitutes up to how many of the weight of fresh hyaline cartilage?

A

60-80%

167
Q

Glycoprotein of the cartilage matrix that binds specifically to GAGs, collagen, and integrins

chondrocytes to ECM binding/adherence

A

Chondronectin

168
Q

these young cells have an elliptic shape with long axes parallel to the surface of the periphery of the cartilage

A

Chondroblasts

169
Q

the outer region of perichondrium consists of what?

A

Type I collagen fibers and fibroblasts

170
Q

inner region of perichondrium adjoining the cartilage matrix consists of what?

A

Mesenchymal stem cells

MSCs differentiate into chondroblasts -> divide & diff into chondrocytes

171
Q

Similar to hyalinne cartilage except that it contains an abundant network of elastic fibers

A

Elastic cartilage

172
Q

this type of cartilage is a mixture of hyaline cartilage and dense connective tissue

A

fibrocartilage

173
Q

Cartilage forms from mesoderm layer in a process called?

A

Chondrogenesis

174
Q

This growth is growth in length and involves mitotic division of preexisting chondrocytes

A

Interstitial growth

175
Q

This growth increases width of cartilage and involves chondroblast differentiation from progenitor cells in the perichondrium

A

Appositional growth

176
Q

what do you call the condition that commonly occurs during aging that involvs the gradual loss or changed physical properties of hyaline cartilage

hyaline cartilage to dense connective tissue due to wear-and-tear

A

osteoarthritis

177
Q

The molecular basis for the shock absorbing properties of cartilage involves which of the following?
a. Electrostatic interaction of proteoglycans with type IV collagen
b. Ability of glycosaminoglycans to bind anions
c. Noncovalent binding of glycosaminoglycans to protein cores
d. Sialic acid residues in the glycoproteins
e. Hydration of glycosaminoglycans

A

Hydration of glycosaminoglycans

nagiging water kasi eh may 60-80% weight hehe

178
Q

What distinguishes cartilage from most other connective tissues?
a. Its extracellular matrix is rich in collagen.
b. Its predominant cell type is a mesenchymal derivative.
c. Its predominant cell type secretes both fibers and proteoglycans.
d. It lacks blood vessels.
e. It functions in mechanical support.

A

lacking in blood vessels (avascular)

179
Q

Which feature is typical of elastic cartilage?
a. Primary skeletal tissue in the fetus
b. No identifiable perichondrium
c. Found in intervertebral discs
d. Most widely distributed cartilage type in the body
e. Collagen is mainly type II

A

Collagen is mainly type II

180
Q

Which area in cartilage is relatively collagen-poor and proteoglycan-rich?
a. Fibrocartilage
b. Territorial matrix
c. Epiphyseal plate
d. Interterritorial matrix
e. Perichondrium

A

Territorial Matrix

181
Q

What is the source of the mesenchymal progenitor cells activated for the repair of hyaline cartilage of accident-damaged costal cartilages?

A

Perichondrium

182
Q

How does articular cartilage differ from most/other hyaline cartilage?

A

absence of perichondrium

183
Q

Which step occurs first in chondrogenesis?
a. Appositional growth
b. Conversion of chondroblasts to chondrocytes
c. Formation of mesenchymal condensations
d. Interstitial growth
e. Secretion of collagen-rich and proteoglycan-rich matrix

A

Formation of mesenchymal condensations

184
Q

osteoarthritis is characterized by the progressive erosion of articular cartilage. The matrix metalloproteinases involved in this erosion primarily act on which matrix component?
a. Aggrecan
b. Link proteins
c. Network-forming collagen
d. Fibril-forming collagen
e. Chondronectin

A

Fibril-forming collagen

185
Q

bone cells originating from the mesenchymal stem cells that produce tye I collagen, proteoglycans, and glycoproteinns

A

Osteoblasts

186
Q

This is an unmineralized bone tissue and is a key structure in the development of mature mineralized bone

A

Osteoid

187
Q

what is formed in the first visible step in calcification?

A

hydroxyapatite crystals

188
Q

very large, motile cells with multiple nuclei that are essential for matrix resorption during bone growth and remodeling

A

osteoclasts

189
Q

where did osteoclasts originate?

A

marrow-derived monocytes

hematopoeietic in origin; not from osteoblasts; osteoprogenitor, if u will

190
Q

Tiny depressions, pits, or irregular grooves in bone that is being resorbed by osteoclasts.

A

resorption lacuna or howship lacuna

191
Q

a bone-anchored adhesion structure between the bone and the osteoclasts. This demarcates (sets the border) of the area of bone resorption from the rest of the environment.

A

sealing zone

192
Q

The border of the lower part of an osteoclast exhibits finger-like processes due to the presence of deep infoldings of the cell membrane called?

A

ruffled border

193
Q

A disease in which osteoclasts lack ruffled borders and bone resorption is defective

resuts in overgrowth and thickening of bones

A

osteopetrosis

194
Q

how much of the dry weight of bone is inorg matts?

calcium hydroxyapatite sodium, magnesium, potassium

A

about 50%

195
Q

what type of collagen is present in bone?

A

type I

196
Q

is bone basophilic or acidophilic

A

acidophilic

because of high collagen content

197
Q

what do you call the bundles of periosteal collagen that penetrate bone matrix and bind the periosteum to the bone?

A

perforating fibers (sharpey fibers)

198
Q

what do you call the bundles of periosteal collagen that penetrate bone matrix and bind the periosteum to the bone?

A

perforating fibers (sharpey fibers)

199
Q

Type of bone that represents 80% of bone mass? what about 20%?

A

compact (cortical); trabecular (cancellous)

200
Q

the bulbous end of long bones that is composed of cancellous bone w/ a thin layer of cortical bone is called?

A

epiphysis

201
Q

the cylindrical part of a long bone that is almost totally dense compact w/ a thin region of cancellous bone arnd central marrow cavity

A

diaphysis

202
Q

this refers to the complex of concentric lamellae that surrounds a central canal that contains small blood vesels, nerves, and endosteum

A

osteon or haversian system

203
Q

Scattered among the intact osteons are numerous irregularly shaped groups of parallel lamellae called

A

interstitial lamellae

204
Q

nonlamellar and characterized by random disposition of type I collagen fibers and is the first bone tissue to appear in embryonic development and in fracture repair

A

woven bone

205
Q

osteogenesis in which osteoblasts differetiate directly from mesenchyme and begin secreting osteoid

A

Intramembranous ossification

206
Q

ossification in which a preexisting matrix of hyaline cartilage is eroded and invaded by osteoblasts which then begin osteoid production

A

echochondral ossification

207
Q

this zone is composed of typical hyaline cartilage

A

zone of reserve (or resting) cartilage

208
Q

zone wherein cartilage cells divide repeatedly, enlarge and secrete more type II collagen and proteoglycans, and become organized into columns parallel to the long axis of the bone

A

proliferative zone

209
Q

this zone contains swollen, termincally differentiated chondrocytes which compress the matrix into aligned spicules

A

zonee of hypertrophy

210
Q

in this zone, chondrocytes about to undergo apoptosis release matrix vesicles and osteocalcin to begin matrix calcification by the formation of hydroxyapatite crystals

A

zone of calcified cartilage

211
Q

this is the zone where bone tissue first appears

A

zonee of ossification

212
Q

This type of CT fills in the spaces of the body just deep to the skin

A

Loose CT

213
Q

What do you call the loose CT of mucous membranes?

A

Lamina propria

214
Q

this CT is characterized by abundant ground substance and tissue fluid housing the fixed CT cells

A

Loose CT

215
Q

other term for adipocytes

A

lipocytes

216
Q

what do you call the cells that have granules containing heparin, histamine, and serotonin and is also responsible for anaphylactic sensitivity reactions

A

Mast cells

217
Q

what do you call the macromolecule that is identified by repeating disaccharide units (uronic acid & hexosamine)

A

Glycosaminoglycans

218
Q

this is the core protein where different GAGs are covalently attached

A

proteoglycans

219
Q

what pressure forces water out of the capillary wall

due to the pumping action of the heart

A

hydrostatic pressure

220
Q

what pressure draws water back into the capillaries

this is due to plasma proteins

A

osmotic pressure

221
Q

this fiber is thinner and its intermediate fibers are made up of elastin and fibrillin

branching fibers that allow for stretch and recoil

A

elastic fibers

222
Q

this fiber forms networks of very thin and highly glycolysated fibers

more glycosylated than other types

A

reticular fibers

223
Q

most common CT cell that is responsible for the synthesis of fibers and ground substance

A

fibroblast

224
Q

CT cell that possesses the characteristics of endothelial cells and smooth muscle cells and functions as contractile cells that modify capillary blood flow

smaller than fibroblast & located along capillaries

A

pericytes

225
Q

CT cells that arise from myeloid stem cells in the bone marrow and have a central spherical nucleus with cytoplasmic granules termed as primary mediators

A

Mast cells

226
Q

Mast cell substance action

Histamine

A

Vasodilator

227
Q

Mast cell substance action

Heparin

A

Anticoagulant; inactivates histamine

228
Q

Mast cell substance action

ECF

A

Attractant for eosinophils to the site of inflammation

229
Q

Mast cell substance action

NCF

A

attractant for neutrophils to the site of inflammation

230
Q

Mast cell substance action

Aryl sulfate

A

Inactivates leukotriene C4
* increase in vascular permeability

231
Q

Mast cell substance action

Chondroitin sulfate

A

anti-inflammatory effecct at the chondral and synovial levels

232
Q

Mast cell substance action

Prostaglandin D2

A

Vasoconstriction

233
Q

Mast cell substance action

Bradykinins

A

vascular permeability and pain sensation

234
Q

Mast cell substance action

Thromboxane A2

A

platelet aggregation

235
Q

this CT consists of widely scattered fibroblasts embedded in jellylike ground substance and is the main constituent of the umbilical cord

A

Mucous CT

236
Q

CT found only in embryos with gel-like morphous matrix and star-shaped mesenchymal cells are embedded

A

Mesenchymal CT

237
Q

CT that has fewer fibers but more cells and contains all CT components

A

Loose (Areolar) CT

238
Q

this CT supports epithelial tissues, forms a layer around blood
vessels and fills the spaces between muscle and nerve fibers

A

Loose (Areolar) CT

239
Q

CT found in subcutaneous layer, around organs, and in the yellow marrow of long bones

supports, protects, thermal insulator, and energy reserve

A

Adipose CT

240
Q

this CT provides firm attachment; conducts pull of muscles, reduces friction between muscles, and stabilizes relative postions of bones

A

Dense Reg CT

241
Q

Identify the CT

capsules of organs

A

Dense Irreg CT

242
Q

Identify the CT

Pericardium

A

Dense Irreg CT

243
Q

Identify the CT

Perichondrium

A

Dense Irreg CT

244
Q

Identify the CT

Periosteum

A

Dense Irreg CT

245
Q

Identify the CT

Seen in the lamina propria of the villi of the small intestine and in some lymphoid organs

A

Adenoid (Lymphoid) CT

may be be diffuse or dense

246
Q

this hormone facilitates or maintains the growth of cartilage

A

somatotropin

247
Q

growth that results from the cell dividsion of pre-existing chondrocytes

A

Interstitial growth

248
Q

growth results from the differentiation of chondrogenic cells in the perichondrium

chondrogenic cells = mesenchymal stem cells

A

Appositional growth

249
Q

arthritis wherein the immune system attacks the joint including the cartilage, bone, and synovial membrane

A

rheumatoid arthritis

250
Q

cartilage that is yellowish in color and is less prone to degeneration than hyaline

A

elastic cartilage

251
Q

volume of blood in an average human adult

A

5 Liters

252
Q

In a blood sample this is the 55% of total blood volume? what about the 45%?

A

Plasma; Cellular components

253
Q

How many percent is water in plasma?

A

91%

254
Q

How many percent is blood proteins in plasma?

A

7%

255
Q

how many percent is the nutrients part in plasma?

A

2%

256
Q

plasma protein that preserves osmotic pressure in the vascular system and helps transport some metabolites

A

albumin

257
Q

plasma protein that is designated for antibodies

A

y-globulins

258
Q

plasma protein that is for transporting metal ions and lipids

A

A and B globulins

259
Q

plasma protein that is converted into fibrin during blood clotting

activated by thrombin

A

fibrinogen

260
Q

plasma proteins for the innate immune system

A

complement proteins (C1-C9)

261
Q

yellowish fluid that is similar to plasma but lacks clotting factors and fibrinogen

A

serum

262
Q

what cell is anucleated, biconcave in shape, and is 7.5um in diameter

A

erythrocyte (RBCs)

263
Q

life span of RBCs is approximately?

A

120 days

264
Q

Oxygen-carrying molecule in erythrocytes

A

Hemoglobin

265
Q

What is the surface antigen and antibody present in blood type A?

A

A antigen; Anti-B

266
Q

What is the surface antigen and antibody present in blood type O?

A

Antigen O; Anti-A & Anti-B

267
Q

What is the surface antigen and antibody present in blood type AB?

A

Antigens A & B; no antibodies

268
Q

this is the estimation of volume of packed RBCs per unit volume of blood that is expressed in percentage

A

Hematocrit

269
Q

Hematocrit normal value in adult men

A

40-50%

270
Q

Hematocrit normal value in adult women

A

35-45%

271
Q

Hematocrit normal value in children up to 10 yrs of age

A

35%

272
Q

Hematocrit normal value in newborns

A

45%-60%

273
Q

Hemoglobin normal values for males

A

14-17.5 g/dL

274
Q

Hemogblobin normal values for women

A

12.3-15.3 g/dL

275
Q

normal red cell count for males

A

4.5-5.9 x10^6/uL

276
Q

normal red cell count for females

A

4.5-5.1 x10^6/uL

277
Q

normal white cell count

A

4.4-11 x103/uL

278
Q

this is what you call the primary granules that stain darkly and present in all WBCs

A

Azurophilic Granules

279
Q

this is what u call the secondary granules that is responsible for the staining reactions

A

specific granules

280
Q

leukocyte that is responsible for bacterial defense through phagocytosis and release of specific granules for oxidative killing

A

Neutrophils

281
Q

Neutrophils compose ___ % of WBCs

A

60-70%

282
Q

Eosinophils compose ___ % of WBCs

A

2-4%

283
Q

Leukocyte that is bilobed with red-orange cytoplasmic granules

A

Eosinophils

284
Q

Leukocyte that has a cytotoxic effect on parasites and is for allergic reactions

phagocytizes Ag-Ab complexes & lessens inflammatory reactions

A

Eosinophils

285
Q

this is the protein in the oval specific granules of eosinophils

A

Major Basic Protein (MBP)

Proteoglycan 2

286
Q

Leukocyte that has cytoplasmic granules that stain blue to purple or metachromatically and has 2 or more irregular lobes

A

Basophils

287
Q

this leukocyte is least seen in blood smears and has IgE bound on the surface

A

Basophils

288
Q

leukocyte with large off-centered nucleus that is kidney/U-shaped

opaque; gray-blue cytoplasm; agranulocyte

A

Monocytes

289
Q

Normal range (%) for lymphocytes

A

20-40%

290
Q

Normal range (%) for monocytes

A

2-8%

pero 2-10% sa ppt

291
Q

Normal range (%) for eosinophils

A

1-4%

2-4% sa ppt hehehe

292
Q

Normal range (%) for basophils

A

0.5-1%

293
Q

blood element that is anucleated and a disk-like cell fragment

A

thrombocytes

294
Q

cells in hematopoiesis that self-renews and undergo enormous proliferation; can differentiate into multiple cell lineages

A

stem cells

295
Q

cells in hematopoiesis that have reduced potentiality and are committed to a single cell lineage

A

progenitor cells

296
Q

cells in hematopoiesis that are in each lineage that display distinnct morphological characteristics; from progenitor cells

A

precursor cells

297
Q

site of hematopoiesis is where?

A

red bone marrow

yellow bone marrow is adipocyte-filled

298
Q

basic unit of bone

A

osteon

299
Q

basic unit of bone

A

osteon

300
Q

protein for bone mineralization

A

osteocalcin

301
Q

protein that is intended for sealing zone of bones

A

osteopontin

302
Q

protein that binds calcium in the bone

A

osteonectin

303
Q

what vitamin is necessary for calcium absorption in the small intestines

A

Vitamin D

304
Q

Deficiency in what vitamin causes rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults?

A

Vitamin D

305
Q

Deficiency in what vitamin inhibits proper bone formation and growth?

excess accelerates ossification of the epiphyseal plates

A

Vitamin A

306
Q

Deficiency in what vitamin results in scurvy which is characterized by poor bone growth and inadequate fracture repair

required for collagen formation

A

Vitamin C

307
Q

this disease is characterized by low bone mass (low bone mineral density)

A

osteoporosis

308
Q

this disease is characterized by very thick bones in the extremities and facial skeleton which is caused by an excess in PGH-somatropin

PGH = placental growth hormone

A

Acrogemaly

Histology (8 decks)

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