Conducting Project Implementation Activities Flashcards

1
Q

The 2M standard serves to verify the following:

An outline that indicates which sections of the standard are applicable to the project according to contractual agreements, as well as any services not applicable (indicated as N/A)

A. Documentation of applicability
B. Consideration
C. Completion

A

A. Documentation of applicability

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2
Q

The 2M standard serves to verify the following:

Written verification that the service providers have read and understand this standard and agree to be referred to as the Responsible Party for the applicable sections

A. Documentation of applicability
B. Consideration
C. Completion

A

B. Consideration

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3
Q

The 2M standard serves to verify the following:

Written verification that the service providers have completed the approved services, indicated by the party authorized to sign as Accepted By

A. Documentation of applicability
B. Consideration
C. Completion

A

C. Completion

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4
Q

The Audiovisual Systems Design and Coordination Processes Checklist includes three check boxes for each item for the project team to address.

This identifies the type of item, such as deliverable (D), coordination (C), task (T), meeting (M), other (O), or not applicable (NA).

A. Activity Code
B. Responsible Party
C. Accepted By

A

A. Activity Code

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5
Q

The Audiovisual Systems Design and Coordination Processes Checklist includes three check boxes for each item for the project team to address.

This is the designer, contractor, or integrator who is delegated and contracted to perform the activity. This may be more than one party and should be identified as such.

A. Activity Code
B. Responsible Party
C. Accepted By

A

B. Responsible Party

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6
Q

The Audiovisual Systems Design and Coordination Processes Checklist includes three check boxes for each item for the project team to address.

The client, designer, contractor, or integrator who is authorized and contracted to verify that the activity has been performed. This may be more than one party and should be identified as such.

A. Activity Code
B. Responsible Party
C. Accepted By

A

C. Accepted By

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7
Q

The verification process in each of the phases is as follows:

Refers to items that take place prior to systems integration. These items will generally verify existing conditions, such as the presence of device enclosures, or items such as backing/blocking/framing that require coordination among the trades for AV system installation.

A. Pre-integration verification
B. Systems integration verification
C. Post-integration verification
D. Substantial/practical completion verification
E. Closeout verification
F. Final acceptance verification
A

A. Pre-integration verification

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8
Q

The verification process in each of the phases is as follows:

Refers to items that take place while the audiovisual systems are being integrated or built, including off-site and on-site work. These items will generally verify proper operation or configuration so that the system can function (for example, equipment mounted level, phantom power, termination stress, AV rack thermal gradient performance).

A. Pre-integration verification
B. Systems integration verification
C. Post-integration verification
D. Substantial/practical completion verification
E. Closeout verification
F. Final acceptance verification
A

B. Systems integration verification

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9
Q

The verification process in each of the phases is as follows:

Refers to items that take place after the audiovisual systems integration has been completed. These items will generally verify system performance against verification metrics as defined in the project documentation (for example, projected image contrast ratio, audio and video recording, control system automated functions).

A. Pre-integration verification
B. Systems integration verification
C. Post-integration verification
D. Substantial/practical completion verification
E. Closeout verification
F. Final acceptance verification
A

C. Post-integration verification

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10
Q

The verification process in each of the phases is as follows:

Indicates conditional acceptance of the project has been issued by the owner or owner’s representative, acknowledging that the project or a designated portion is partially complete and ready for use by the owner; however, some requirements and/or deliverables defined in the project documentation may not be complete.

A. Pre-integration verification
B. Systems integration verification
C. Post-integration verification
D. Substantial/practical completion verification
E. Closeout verification
F. Final acceptance verification
A

D. Substantial/practical completion verification

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11
Q

The verification process in each of the phases is as follows:

Refers to items involved with closing out the project. These items will generally be related to documenting the As-Built/As-Is status of the systems and transfer of system software, among other items such as control system test reporting, As-Built drawings complete, and warranties.

A. Pre-integration verification
B. Systems integration verification
C. Post-integration verification
D. Substantial/practical completion verification
E. Closeout verification
F. Final acceptance verification
A

E. Closeout verification

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12
Q

The verification process in each of the phases is as follows:

Indicates that acceptance of the project has been issued by the owner or owner’s representative, acknowledging that the project is 100 percent complete; all required deliverables, services, verification lists, testing, performance metrics, and sign-offs have been received; and all requirements defined in the project documentation have been satisfied and completed that occur at the completion of the closeout verification phase. No further project activity will take place after this milestone is verified.

A. Pre-integration verification
B. Systems integration verification
C. Post-integration verification
D. Substantial/practical completion verification
E. Closeout verification
F. Final acceptance verification
A

F. Final acceptance verification

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13
Q

If you encounter conflicting codes, follow the ____ code for the region in which they are working.

A. least restrictive
B. most restrictive

A

B. most restrictive

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14
Q

____ are documents that provide requirements, specifications, guidelines, or characteristics that can be used consistently to ensure that materials, products, processes, and services are fit for their purpose.

A

Standards

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15
Q

____ are the best choice of the available methods for accomplishing a specific task in an industry. They are recognized at the proper way to do a task.

A

Best practices

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16
Q

A(n) ____ is a piece of test equipment that produces calibrated electronic signals intended for the testing or alignment of electronic circuits or systems. They create sine, square, or other waves at specific frequencies to combinations of frequencies.

A

audio signal generator

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17
Q

Common sine wave frequencies used include the following:

Used for setting levels and setting system gain using the unity gain method

A. 400 Hz
B. 800 Hz
C. 1 kHz
D. 2 kHz

A

C. 1 kHz

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18
Q

Common sine wave frequencies used include the following:

Used in conjunction with a piezo tweeter to listen for clipping, as well as setting system gain using the optimization method

A. 400 Hz
B. 800 Hz
C. 1 kHz
D. 2 kHz

A

A. 400 Hz

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19
Q

____ is a measurement of all the acoustic energy present in an environment. It is typically expressed in decibels.

A

Sound Pressure Level (SPL)

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20
Q

SPL meter classification

A lab reference standard. It has the strictest tolerances and is used when extreme precision is needed.

A. Class 0
B. Class 1
C. Class 2
D. Class 3

A

A. Class 0

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21
Q

SPL meter classification

For precision measurement. It is useful for taking flat, engineering-grade accuracy measurements instead of wide-range or field measurements.

A. Class 0
B. Class 1
C. Class 2
D. Class 3

A

B. Class 1

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22
Q

SPL meter classification

For general-purpose use. It has the widest tolerances with respect to level linearity and frequency response. Required only to have A-frequency weighting. Other weightings are optional. For many audio purposes, this meter is acceptable.

A. Class 0
B. Class 1
C. Class 2
D. Class 3

A

C. Class 2

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23
Q

SPL meter classification

Intended for noise surveys. It is a simple sound level meter meant to determine whether a noise problem exists. If a problem does exist, further diagnosis will require a higher class meter.

A. Class 0
B. Class 1
C. Class 2
D. Class 3

A

D. Class 3

24
Q

SPL meter weighting settings

Setting commonly used for environmental, hearing conservation, and noise ordinance enforcement. It closely reflects the response of the human ear to noise and its relative insensitivity to lower frequencies at lower listening levels.

A. A weighting
B. B weighting
C. C weighting
D. Z weighting

A

A. A weighting

25
Q

SPL meter weighting settings

More uniform response over the entire frequency range.

A. A weighting
B. B weighting
C. C weighting
D. Z weighting

A

C. C weighting

26
Q

SPL meter weighting settings

No filtering. This is referred to as flat or zero weighting.

A. A weighting
B. B weighting
C. C weighting
D. Z weighting

A

D. Z weighting

27
Q

The _____ curve is almost the inverse of the equal loudness curve at a low listening level.

A. A weighting
B. B weighting
C. C weighting
D. Z weighting

A

A. A weighting

28
Q

____ is useful in situations with low listening levels, including most speech applications.

A. A weighting
B. B weighting
C. C weighting
D. Z weighting

A

A. A weighting

29
Q

____ lowers the decibels SPL reading of low-frequency sounds to reflect how a human being perceives those sounds.

A. A weighting
B. B weighting
C. C weighting
D. Z weighting

A

A. A weighting

30
Q

The ANSI/ASA S12.60 standard shows that maximum one-hour SPL levels, including those from building services such as heating, ventilating, and air conditioning (HVAC), should not exceed ____ for spaces not exceeding 20,000 square feet in classrooms and other learning spaces.

A. 25 db SPL A-wtd (weighted)
B. 25 db SPL C-wtd (weighted)
C. 35 db SPL A-wtd (weighted)
D. 35 db SPL C-wtd (weighted)

A

C. 35 db SPL A-wtd (weighted)

31
Q

Acoustically, a space should have a minimum ___ signal-to-noise (S/N) ratio.

A. 20 dB
B. 25 dB
C. 30 dB
D. 35 dB

A

B. 25 dB

32
Q

A ____ response time is used for capturing transient, momentary levels.

A. Fast
B. Slow

A

A. Fast

33
Q

A ____ response time is used for capturing consistent noise levels.

A. Fast
B. Slow

A

B. Slow

34
Q

When selecting a multimeter, look for the true ____ feature, which will enable you to measure the RMS value of an AC voltage.

A

“root mean square” (RMS)

35
Q

____, rather than peak voltage, is the conventional measurement most often used to compare voltage readings in audio applications.

A

“root mean square” (RMS)

36
Q

A test and measurement microphone should have three features:

A
  • It should be omnidirectional
  • Have a flat on-axis frequency response
  • Have a preferred capsule diameter of 1/2 in.
37
Q

A(n) ____ is a test device that enables measurement and evaluation of electronic signals by displaying a waveform.

A

oscilloscope

38
Q

In audio system verification, a(n) ____ may be used to identify clipped sine waves when using the optimization method for setting system gain.

A

oscilloscope

39
Q

Ensuring appropriate signal levels across all video equipment, adjusting video cameras and displays, and checking audio/video synchronization are all part of the _____ process.

A

video system verification

40
Q

A balun is a device named from the combination of ____ and ____ signals.

A

balanced / unbalanced

41
Q

____ extenders reclock the signal and output a duplicate of the original signal.

A. Active
B. Passive

A

A. Active

42
Q

____ extenders change the physical medium but do not reclock the signal.

A. Active
B. Passive

A

B. Passive

43
Q

____ frequencies will exhibit greater loss over distance.

A. Lower
B. Middle
C. Higher

A

C. Higher

44
Q

When boosting digital signals, the signal booster, or driver, should be located ____.

A. At the front end near the source
B. as close to the middle as possible
C. At the far end near the destination

A

A. At the front end near the source

45
Q

When repeating digital signals, the repeater should be. located ____.

A. At the front end near the source
B. as close to the middle as possible
C. At the far end near the destination

A

C. At the far end near the destination

46
Q

On a video camera, the ____ controls how much light comes through the lens.

A

iris

47
Q

A(n) ____ controls the amount of light that a camera must process.

A

(electronic) shutter

48
Q

When framing an image, one method is to pretend that the camera shot is split into three equal-sized, horizontal rows. The subject’s eyes should line up _____.

A. in the middle of the first row.
B. near the top of the first row.
C. in the middle of the second row.
D. near the top of the second row.

A

D. near the top of the second row.

49
Q

The ____ pattern is used to determine the maximum viewable screen size, ensuring that the image fits the screen.

A

crosshatch

50
Q

The ____ pattern is used to indicate the correct aspect ratio. The image contains a large circle or several circles.

A

geometry

51
Q

Synchronization errors between audio and video are also known as _____ errors.

A

lip-sync

52
Q

A ____ test is a common method for measuring the synchronization of audio and video signals. A test signal consisting of one full frame of white video, accompanied by an audio tone of the same time length, is required.

A

“blip-and-flash”

53
Q

HDMI uses ____ to communicate delay information to upstream devices. It will measure the amount of milliseconds of delay introduced and send that to the sink for automatic correction.

A

EDID

54
Q

The ____ contains the corrections or changes that need to be made to conform to the scope of the project.

A

punch list

55
Q

A(n) ____ should include every item examined and repaired and the service performed.

A

maintenance log