Conditions and assessment Flashcards

1
Q

Vessels at back of the eye pale could suggest___

A
  • central retinal artery occlusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vessels at back of eye red could suggest___

A
  • central retinal vein occlusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What should be used to assess epithelial loss?

A
  • fluorescein drops

- cobalt blue light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Blow out fractures on CT will have what appearance?

A
  • orbital contents leaked and visible on CT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What muscle is often trapped in a blow out fracture?

A
  • inferior rectus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What assessment should be performed with a suspected globe rupture?

A
  • USS or CT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define hyphema?

A
  • blood in the anterior chamber of the eye
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Explain sympathetic ophthalmia?

A
  • penetrating injury to one eye
  • exposure of intra-ocular antigens
  • immune reaction in both eyes
  • inflammation in both eyes
  • bilateral blindness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

With intra-ocular foreign bodies what should be done?

A
  • always x-ray
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A __acid/alkali___ burn is rapid penetration?

A
  • alkali burn is rapid penetration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

___Acid/alkali___ burn causes coagulation of proteins?

A
  • acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the management of chemical burns to the eye?

A
  • check toxbase
  • check pH
  • irrigate
  • assess with slit lamp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

On cover test what would esotropia appear like?

A
  • inward movement - unchallanged

- cover test - outward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

On cover test what would exotropia appear like?

A
  • outward movement - unchallanged

- cover test - eye moves inwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is hypertropia

A
  • visually one pupil is higher than the other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define emmetropia?

A
  • normal

- no refractive error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define ametropia?

A
  • refractive error present

- light focused in front or behind retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define anisometropia?

A
  • significant difference between right and left ametropia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is myopia?

A
  • short sighted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What lens is used to correct myopia?

A
  • diverging lens

- negative lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A diverging lens may be used in what condition, and what is its affect on the size of the eye?

A
  • myotopia

- eye may appear smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What risks are associated with myopia?

A
  • open angle glucoma

- retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is hyperopia?

A
  • long sighted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What lens may be used to correct hyperopia?

A
  • converging lens

- positive lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What may a converging lens be used in and what may it make the eyes appear like?

A
  • used in hyperopia

- eyes bigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are risks associated with hyperopia?

A
  • closed angle glaucoma

- childhood squints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Difficulty seeing near objects?

A
  • long sighted

- hyperopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Difficulty seeing far objects?

A
  • short sighted

- myopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define astigmatism

A
  • rugby shape lens

- unequal refractive powers at different meridia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What lens may be used to correct an astigmatism?

A
  • cylindrical lens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Presbyopia?

A
  • reduction in ability of the eye to accommodate for close work
  • with age
  • need for reading glasses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where does the optic nerve synapse?

A
  • synapses at the retina at the photoreceptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The optic nerve is a __efferent/afferent___ nerve

A
  • afferent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the 3C’s you use to describe an optic disk?

A
  • Contour
  • Colour
  • Cup
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does it mean to describe the contour of an optic disk?

A
  • can you draw a nice circle around the optic disk to separate from the retina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What colour is the optic disk normally?

A
  • orange/pink
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the cup diameter determined by?

A
  • optic nerve diameter

- number of nerve fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What would glaucoma appear like on fundoscopy?

A
  • loss of retinal ganglion fibres

- cupped nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What would a swollen nerve appear like on fundoscopy?

A
  • loss of contour
  • may have haemorrhages
  • no cup visible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Disk drusen may appear as what on USG?

A
  • B scan

- calcium deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are some potential causes of a pale optic disk?

A
  • loss of myelin
  • infarction (arthritis)
  • inflammation
  • compression
  • ethambutol
  • vitamin B12 deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What drug may cause a pale optic disk?

A
  • ethambutol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When there is a possibility that a pale disk is related to giant cell artiritis what other questions should be asked?

A
  • jaw pain
  • scalp tenderness
  • visible temporal arteries
  • headaches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Myelinated nerves are____

A
  • congential

- grey/white feathery edge of optic disk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What muscle does CN VI control?

A
  • Lateral rectus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the clinical signs of a VI nerve palsy?

A
  • Lateral rectus

- adduction of the eye (turned in)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are some causes of VI nerve palsy?

A
  • microvascular

- Raised ICP

48
Q

Raised ICP is associated with what nerve palsy?

A
  • CN VI

- Abducent

49
Q

What muscle does CN IV supply?

A
  • Superior oblique
50
Q

What is the clinical signs of a CN IV nerve palsy?

A
  • Unable to depress in adduction

- head tilt

51
Q

What nerve palsy is associated with a head tilt?

A
  • CN IV

- Loss of intorsion

52
Q

What are causes of bilateral CN IV palsy?

A
  • blunt trauma
53
Q

What is the clinical signs of a CN III nerve palsy?

A
  • down and out
54
Q

What are the causes of a CN III nerve palsy?

A
  • microvascular
  • aneurysm (painful)
  • MS
55
Q

Define nystagmus?

A
  • eye moves from side to side
56
Q

What are causes of inter-nuclear ophthalmoplegia?

A
  • MS

- Vascular

57
Q

Defect on the medial longitudinal fasciculus pathway may cause?

A
  • inter-nuclear ophthalmoplegia
58
Q

Horizontal field defects are associated with a defect in the ___eye/brain___

A
  • eye
59
Q

Symptoms of optic neuritis?

A
  • pain behind the eye especially on movement

- colour desaturation

60
Q

Congruous vs incongruous?

A
  • congruous defect is identical between the 2 eyes

- incongruous differs in appearance between the 2 eyes

61
Q

Congruent lesions are characteristic of pathology ___near eye/near occipital lobe___

A
  • near occipital lobe
62
Q

How many layers make up the retina?

A
  • 10 layers
63
Q

What are the 3 subunits of diabetic retinopathy?

A
  • non-proliferative
  • proliferative
  • macular oedema
64
Q

What signs on fundoscopy can be seen in diabetic retinopathy?

A
  • cotton wool spots
  • aneurysms
  • haemorrhages
  • exudate
  • new vessels
  • loss of pericyctes
65
Q

New vessel formation in diabetic retinopathy is associated with what signal?

A
  • VEGF induced
66
Q

Which diabetic retinopathy is associated with new vessel formation?

A
  • proliferative
67
Q

What treatment may be used in non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

A
  • laser therapy
68
Q

What treatment may be used in proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A
  • anti VEGF
69
Q

What is the criteria for pathologic myopia?

A
  • axial length > 26mm

- prescription > -8

70
Q

Posterior vitreous detachment may have what symptoms?

A
  • floaters

- flashing lights

71
Q

Central retinal artery occlusion complications?

A
  • stroke

- MI

72
Q

Central retinal vein occlusion the retina will appear like what?

A
  • red

- hyperaemic?

73
Q

What are some causes of sudden vision loss?

A
  • vascular
  • vitreous haemorrhage
  • retinal detachment
  • age related macular degeneration
  • closed angle glaucoma
74
Q

What type of glaucoma is associated with immediate/sudden vision loss?

A
  • closed angle glaucoma
75
Q

What are the symptoms of central retinal artery occlusion?

A
  • sudden vision loss

- painless

76
Q

What is the clinical signs of a central artery occlusion in the retina?

A
  • RAPD

- Pale oedematous retina

77
Q

What are potential causes of retinal central artery occlusion?

A
  • carotid artery disease

- emboli from the heart

78
Q

What type of retinal artery occlusion is transient?

A
  • Amaurosis fugax
79
Q

What are potential causes of retinal vein occlusion?

A
  • endothelial injury
  • abnormal blood flow
  • hypercoagubility
80
Q

What are the signs on fundoscopy for retinal vein occlusion

A
  • retinal haemorrhages
  • dilated tortuous veins
  • disc swelling
81
Q

Explain ischaemic optic neuropathy?

A
  • posterior cilliary arteries become occluded

- infarction of the optic nerve head

82
Q

What is the blood supply to the optic nerve head?

A
  • posterior cilliary arteries
83
Q

Loss of vision and floaters may be caused by what?

A
  • vitreous haemorrhage
84
Q

What type of age related macular degeneration is associated with sudden vision loss?

A
  • wet
85
Q

Explain wet age related macular degeneration?

A
  • new blood vessels grow under retina
  • leakage
  • build up of pressure
  • rapid central vision loss
86
Q

What is the treatment of wet macular degeneration?

A
  • anti-VEGF agents
87
Q

Symptoms of closed angle glaucoma?

A
  • sudden visual loss
  • painful
  • dilated pupil
88
Q

What are some examples of gradual vision loss?

A
  • cataracts
  • open angle glaucoma
  • dry age related macular degeneration
  • refractive error
89
Q

What causes cataracts?

A
  • abnormal protein changes in lens
90
Q

What are symptoms of cataracts?

A
  • gradual vision loss

- glare when night driving

91
Q

What may be seen on fundoscopy in dry age related macular degeneration?

A
  • drusen

- atrophic patches

92
Q

Signs on fundocsopy of open angle glaucoma?

A
  • cupped disk
  • visual field defect
  • raised ICP
93
Q

Bilateral optic disk swelling???

A
  • papiloedema

- treat as a space occupying lesion until proven otherwise

94
Q

What are the 3 components of intracranial pressure?

A
  • brain
  • blood
  • CSF
95
Q

Scleritis is associated with what conditions?

A
  • autoimmune dysregulation
96
Q

Symptoms of scleritis/

A
  • pain on eye movement
  • injected vessels
  • photophobia
97
Q

Treatment of scleritis?

A
  • NSAIDs
98
Q

Symptoms of episcleritis

A
  • mild pain

- redness

99
Q

Episcleritis is associated with what?

A
  • idiopathic inflammation
100
Q

Treatment of episcleritis?

A
  • self-limiting

- +/- NSAIDs

101
Q

What are the 3 types of diabetic retinopathy?

A
  • proliferative
  • non-proliferative
  • macular oedema
102
Q

Fundoscopy apperance of diabetic retinopathy?

A
  • cotton wool spots
  • aneurysms
  • haemorrhages
  • new vessels
103
Q

Treatment of non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

A
  • laser
104
Q

What is subconjunctival haemorrhage?

A
  • bleeding into the subconjunctival space
105
Q

Recurrent subconjunctival haemorrhage what should be excluded?

A
  • hypertension

- bleeding disorder

106
Q

Symptoms of acute anterior uveitis?

A
  • red and painful eye
  • photophobia
  • blurred vision
107
Q

Treatment of acute anterior uveitis?

A
  • topical steroids

- mydriatics

108
Q

Blepharitis is what?

A
  • inflamed eyelids
  • burning and itching
  • crusting
109
Q

Treatment of blepharitis?

A
  • 2-3months doxycycline
110
Q

Stellate posterior cortical cataracts are associated with what condition?

A
  • myotonic dystrophy
111
Q

What is the optical involvement of neurofibromatosis?

A
  • globe proptosis

- Lisch nodules (iris hamartomas)

112
Q

What are Lisch nodules?

A
  • iris hamatromas
  • bilateral
  • associated with neurofibromatosis
113
Q

What is the ocular involvement of thyroid eye disease?

A
  • peri-orbital swelling
  • prominent eyes
  • optic neuropathy
114
Q

Heliotrope rash on eyelids may be?

A
  • dermatomyositis
115
Q

Long term steroid usage may cause?

A
  • a rise in intra-ocular pressure