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Ophthalmology > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 7 bones of the orbit of the eye?

A
  • frontal
  • zygomatic
  • maxilla
  • nasal
  • sphenoid
  • ethmoid
  • lacrimal
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2
Q

What are the 2 most common orbital plates to fracture?

A
  • maxilla

- ethmoid

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3
Q

What cranial nerves pass through the superior orbital fissure?

A
  • CN 3,4,6
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4
Q

The orbit of the eye can be described as pyramidal, where is the apex located?

A
  • opening to optic canal
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5
Q

What is the axis of the eye ball?

A
  • anterior
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6
Q

What is the axis of the orbit?

A
  • anterolateral
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7
Q

What is transmitted in the optic canal?

A
  • optic nerve

- ophthalmic artery

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8
Q

Explain a blowout fracture?

A
  • medial wall and orbital floor
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9
Q

Explain an orbital rim fracture?

A
  • higher impact injuries

- sutures joining fracture

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10
Q

What is the orbicularis oculi 2 components?

A
  • orbital part

- palpebral part

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11
Q

LPS is a ____ muscle

A
  • skeletal muscle
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12
Q

Lacrimal gland produces lacrimal fluid by what type of innervation?

A
  • parasympathetic

- CN VII

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13
Q

Name the 4 rectus muscles?

A
  • superior rectus
  • inferior rectus
  • medial rectus
  • lateral rectus
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14
Q

Name the 2 oblique muscles?

A
  • superior oblique

- inferior oblique

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15
Q

Where does the rectus muscle attach?

A
  • originates common tendinous ring

- inserts onto sclera

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16
Q

Where does the superior oblique muscle originate?

A
  • sphenoid bone
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17
Q

Where does the inferior oblique muscle originate?

A
  • orbital plate of maxilla
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18
Q

What nemonic can be learn for orbital muscle innervation?

A
  • LR6 SO4 AO3
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19
Q

Lateral rectus innervation?

A
  • CN VI
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20
Q

Superior oblique innervation?

A
  • CN IV
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21
Q

What muscle is responsible for tight closure of the eye?

A
  • orbital part of the orbicularis oculi
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22
Q

What muscle is responsible for gentle closure of the eye?

A
  • palpebral part of the orbicularis oculi
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23
Q

What innervates the superior tarsus muscle?

A
  • sympathetic stimulation
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24
Q

Where is the lacrimal gland found?

A
  • superolateral
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25
Q

Where does lacrimal fluid drain into?

A
  • inferior nasal cavity
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26
Q

What are the 7 extraocular muscles?

A
  • superior rectus
  • inferior rectus
  • medial rectus
  • lateral rectus
  • superior oblique
  • inferior oblique
  • levator palpebae superioris
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27
Q

What is another name for the corneoscleral junction?

A
  • limbus
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28
Q

What are the 3 layers of the eye?

A
  • fibrous
  • uvea
  • retina
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29
Q

The uvea layer of the eye is known as the?

A
  • vascular layer
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30
Q

What separates the anterior and posterior segments?

A
  • the lens
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31
Q

The anterior segment can be divided into_____ by the ____

A
  • anterior chamber
  • posterior chamber
  • divided by the iris
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32
Q

What is found in the posterior segment of the eye?

A
  • vitreous body
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33
Q

What secretes aqueous?

A
  • ciliary body
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34
Q

When aqueous circulates in the posterior segment what is its role?

A
  • nourishes the lens
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35
Q

When aqueous circulates in the anterior segment what is its role?

A
  • nourishes cornea
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36
Q

Where is aqueous reabsorbed?

A
  • iridocorneal angle
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37
Q

What is the major arterial blood supply to the eye?

A
  • ophthalmic artery, branch of internal carotid
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38
Q

How does the internal carotid reach the eye?

A
  • through the carotid canal
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39
Q

What is the major end artery in the eye?

A
  • central artery of the retina
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40
Q

Venous drainage of the eye drains where?

A
  • cavernous sinus
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41
Q

Explain the optic disk?

A
  • point of CN II formation
  • only point of entry and exit of blood vessels
  • blind spot, no photoreceptors
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42
Q

Where is the greatest density of cones found?

A
  • macula
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43
Q

What is the centre of the macula known as?

A
  • fovea
44
Q

Where is the area of the retina with the most acute vision?

A
  • fovea
45
Q

What are the layers of the retina from posterior to anterior?

A
  • photoreceptors
  • ganglion cells
  • axons of ganglion cells
46
Q

Axons in the eye come together to form what?

A
  • optic nerve

- no photoreceptors

47
Q

Interruption of a branch of the retinal artery ca lead to what?

A
  • loss of an area of visual field corresponding to the area of ischaemia
48
Q

Interruption of the central artery in the eye leads to?

A
  • monocular blindness

- as it is an end artery

49
Q

Light from objects in the right visual field are processed where?

A
  • left visual cortex
50
Q

Light from lower visual fields is processed where?

A
  • upper part of the primary visual cortex
51
Q

What crosses over at the optic chiasma?

A
  • nasal retina
52
Q

vertical axis movement causes?

A
  • abduction and adduction
53
Q

transverse axis movement causes?

A
  • elevation and depression
54
Q

anteroposterior axis movement causes?

A
  • intorsion and extorsion
55
Q

lateral rectus is under what cranial nerve’s control?

A
  • CN VI
56
Q

Superior oblique is under what cranial nerve’s control

A
  • CN IV
57
Q

Lateral rectus can only ___ the eyeball

A
  • abduct
58
Q

Superior rectus when in abduction can only _____ the eye ball

A
  • elevate
59
Q

Inferior rectus when in abduction can only _____ the eye ball

A
  • depress
60
Q

Medial rectus ___ the eyeball

A
  • adducts
61
Q

Inferior oblique when in adduction causes ____

A
  • elevation
62
Q

Superior oblique when in adduction only causes ___

A
  • depression
63
Q

Where does the sympathetic nerves exit the spinal cord?

A
  • T1- L2
64
Q

Where do sympathetic nerves synapse?

A
  • superior cervical sympathetic ganglion
65
Q

Where does the parasympathetic nerves leave the CNS?

A
  • CN III, VII, IX, X

- Sacral spinal nerves

66
Q

Where do the ocular parasympathetic nerves synapse?

A
  • ciliary ganglion
67
Q

Where does CN III exit?

A
  • superior orbital fissure
68
Q

What is the smooth muscle component of the LPS?

A
  • Muller’s muscle

- involuntary

69
Q

What are the 3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve?

A
  • CNV1 = Ophthalmic
  • CN V2 = Maxillary
  • CN V3 = Mandibular
70
Q

Explain the corneal reflex?

A
  • blink
  • sensory afferent CN V1 (ophthalmic)
  • motor efferent CN VII (Facial)
71
Q

What is the vestibulo-ocular reflex?

A
  • eyes fix gaze when head moves

- head and eyes move in opposite direction

72
Q

Explain the oculocardiac reflex

A
  • reflex bradycardia in response to tension on extraocular muscles or pressure on eye
73
Q

What is the sympathetic response effect on eye?

A
  • eyes get wider
  • focus on further objects
  • emotional lacrimation
74
Q

Explain the parasympathetic response effect on the eye?

A
  • less light into eye
  • focus on nearer objects
  • reflex lacrimation
75
Q

What muscle is responsible for opening the eye wider?

A
  • levator palpebrae superiors
76
Q

What is the iris composed of?

A
  • inner sphincter pupillae muscle

- outer dilator pupillae muscle

77
Q

Explain the effect of the inner sphincter pupillae muscle?

A
  • when contracted eye allows less light in

- constriction

78
Q

Explain the effect of the dilator pupillae muscle?

A
  • mobile attachment in middle, dilates eye
79
Q

Mitotic pupil?

A
  • non-physiological constriction
80
Q

Mydriatric pupil?

A
  • non-physiological dilation
81
Q

Muscle responsible for pupil constriction?

A
  • sphincter pupillae
82
Q

Muscle responsible for pupil dilation?

A
  • dilator pupillae
83
Q

Explain pupillary light reflex

A
  • sensory is ipsilateral CN II

- Motor is bilateral CN III

84
Q

What is responsible for lens accommodation?

A
  • suspensory ligament of the ciliary body
85
Q

Explain the ciliary body?

A
  • both muscular and vascular components

- suspensory ligaments control the shape of the lens

86
Q

What is the shape of the lens for distance objects?

A
  • lens flattens

- ligaments tighten

87
Q

What is the shape of the lens for near objects?

A
  • spherical

- ligaments relax

88
Q

What are the 3 types of tears?

A
  • basal
  • reflex
  • emotional
89
Q

What is the function of basal tears?

A
  • corneal health
  • clean and nourishment
  • lysozyme
90
Q

What is the function of the meninges?

A
  • protective coverings of the brain and the spinal cord
91
Q

What are the 3 meninges from exterior to interior?

A
  • dura mater
  • arachnoid mater
  • pia matter
92
Q

What lies between the arachnoid mater and the Pia mater?

A
  • subarachnoid space
93
Q

What is the sensory innervation to the dura mater?

A
  • CN V
94
Q

What is found in the arachnid space and is responsible for the drainage of CSF?

A
  • Arachnoid granulation
95
Q

What meninges layer adheres to the brain?

A
  • Pia mater
96
Q

What level should a lumbar puncture be performed?

A
  • L3/4

- L4/5

97
Q

Where does the subarachnoid space end?

A
  • Vertebral level S2
98
Q

What is the Monro-kellie hypothesis?

A
  • the volume of brain, blood and CSF is constant
99
Q

What is unique about the optic nerve?

A
  • it is covered by meninges

- meaning it has a subarachnoid space

100
Q

What is the affect of a raised ICP on the optic nerve?

A
  • transmitted along the optic nerve in subarachnoid space

- can compress the nerve

101
Q

What is the clinical condition that describes compression of the optic nerve?

A
  • papiloedema
102
Q

What is the dural septae?

A
  • folds of dura mater
  • falx cerebri
  • tentorium cerebelli
  • falx cerebelli
  • diaphragma sellae
103
Q

What lobe is responsible for compression of the oculomotor nerve?

A
  • medial temporal lobe herniation
104
Q

What is the clinical signs of a compressed oculomotor nerve?

A
  • dilated pupil (loss of parasympathetic innervation)

- turned inferolateral

105
Q

What is the clinical signs of a compressed trochlear nerve?

A
  • paralysis of superior oblique

- eye cannot move inferomedially

106
Q

Define diplopia?

A
  • double vision
107
Q

What is the clinical signs of a compressed abducent nerve?

A
  • paralysis of lateral rectus muscle

- medial deviation of the eye

Ophthalmology (7 decks)

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