Comprehensive review Flashcards

1
Q

This part of the brain is involved in planning complex movements and in coordinating movements involving both hands. a. Primary motor cortex b. Supplemental motor cortex c. Premotor cortex d. Posterior parietal cortex

A

Answer: Supplemental motor cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What brain structure distributes norepinephrine to facilitate alerting and exciting a broad network of neural networks? a. Locus coeruleus b. Hypothalamus c. Hippocampus d. Limbic System

A

Answer: Locus Coeruleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following referral questions is stated in the most complete way? a. Is Mary learning disabled? b. What is causing Mary to have reading problems and what interventions would work best for her? c. Is Mary dyslexic? d. Is Mary reading disabled?

A

Answer: - What is causing Mary to have reading problems and what interventions would work best for her?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most common chronic disease of childhood? a. Diabetes b. Seizure disorders c. Eating disorders d. Asthma

A

Answer: -Asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the names of the three major stand-alone tests of memory and learning for children? a. California Verbal Learning Test: Children’s Version, NEPSY-2, and Children’s Memory Scale b. Wide Range Assessment of Memory and Learning - Second Edition, Test of Memory and Learning-2, and Children’s Memory Scale c. Test of Everyday Memory, Wide Range Assessment of Memory and Learning - Second Edition, and the NEPSY-2 d. Children’s Memory Scale, NEPSY-2, and Test of Memory and Learning-2

A

Answer: WRAML-2, TOMAL-2, CMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When evaluating repetition errors on a task, errors that occur close together are likely to reflect: a. immediate memory deficits b. long-term retrieval deficits c. perseveration errors d. receptive language deficits

A

Answer: Perseveration Errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What D-KEFS test is the nonverbal analog to the Verbal Fluency test? a. Color Word Interference b. Trail Making Test c. Word Context d. Design Fluency

A

Answer: Design Fluency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In this subtype of dyscalculia children have slow computational processing speed and they make frequent calculation errors. a. semantic dyscalculia b. procedural dyscalculia c. verbal dyscalculia d. visual-spatial dyscalculia

A

Answer: Procedural dyscaluclia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Chronic stress from abuse or neglect releases cortisol which leads to memory loss and clouded thinking and reduces volume in what part of the brain? a. hippocampus b. cerebellum c. hypothalamus d. anterior cingulate

A

Answer: Hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

All of the following are examples of white matter tracts or fibers in the brain except for one, which one? a. commissural fibers b. association fibers c. dorsal fiber tract d. projection fibers

A

Answer: dorsal fiber tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of neuroimaging holds great promise for looking at white matter diseases? a. functional magnetic imaging (fMRI) b. diffusion tensor imaging c. PET scans d. EEGs

A

Answer: fMRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This type of brain injury occurs when an object pierces the skull and enters brain tissue. Which term below best describes this type of injury? a. focal brain injury b. diffuse brain injury c. closed head injury d. penetrating head injury

A

Answer: Penetrating head injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

All of the following would be useful subtests to administer to a suspected autism child except for one, which one? a. NEPSY-II’s Inhibition subtest b. NEPSY-II’s Arrows subtest c. NEPSY-II’s Memory for Faces subtest d. NEPSY-II’s Theory of Mind subtest

A

Answer: Arrows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Common first aid procedures for a child having a clonic-tonic seizure include all of the following except one, which one? a. Place something flat or soft under the child’s head. b. Don’t forcefully restrain the child. c. Put something in the child’s mouth so he/she does not bite or swallow their tongue. d. Turn the child on their side if possible.

A

Answer: Put something in their mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When testing a child with a recent history of TBI, which of these is most likely to impact your testing session? a. Slowed processing speed and increased fatigue b. Inappropriate personal comments c. Decreased attention and motivation d. Poor interpersonal skills resulting in lack of rapport

A

Answer: -Slowed processing time and increased fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Using the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt test to predict overall brain dysfunction would be an example of what stage in the history of clinical neuropsychology? a. the integrative and predictive stage b. the functional profile stage c. the single test approach stage d. the test battery/lesion specification stage

A

Answer: Single Test Approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What stage in the history of clinical neuropsychology de-emphasized localization of brain lesions and emphasized the identification of impaired and spared abilities? a. the integrative and predictive stage b. the functional profile stage c. the single test approach stage d. the test battery/lesion specification stage

A

Answer: Functional Profile Stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If a school neuropsychologist wanted to administer the sensory-motor tests from the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery for Older Children today, a more valid and recently standardized version of many of the same test could be found on the: a. Woodcock Johnson Tests of Cognitive Abilities b. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children-Second Edition c. Dean-Woodcock Sensory-Motor Battery d. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-Fourth Edition

A

Answer: DWSMB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The Cognitive Hypothesis Testing Model is composed of what four main parts: a. theory, behavioral analyses, intervention planning, and progress monitoring b. theory, hypothesis, data collection, and intervention c. clarifying reason for referral, classroom observations, individualized assessment, and intervention d. theory, assessment, demand analyses, intervention planning, and progress monitoring

A

Answer: -Theory, Hypothesis, Data Collection, Intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which two functions/processes serve as the building blocks for all of the other higher order neurocognitive processes? a. Memory and Learning b. Executive Functions and Processing Speed c. Attention and sensory-motor functions d. Language and visual-spatial functions

A

Answer: -Attention and Sensory Motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which CHC factors should be assessed for a child suspected of having a dysphonetic dyslexia? a. Ga - phonetic coding; Gsm - Memory Span; and working memory b. (Glr-Naming Facility; Gv-Orthographic Processing; Gs-Perceptual Speed; Gc-Vocabulary Knowledge) c. (Multiple CHC abilities or processes involved; attention and executive functioning) d. (Gf-Induction, General Sequential Reasoning; Gc- Language Development; attention and executive functioning)

A

Answer: -Ga, Gsm & working Memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Determining the neurocognitive constructs required to successfully complete a particular test or task is called: a. Conducting a needs assessment b. Conducting a strategy analysis c. Conducting a neurocognitive analysis d. Conducting demand analysis

A

Answer: Conducting a demand analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which WISC-IV subtest is not part of the Processing Speed Index? a. Coding b. Symbol Search c. Cancellation d. Letter-Number Sequencing

A

Answer: -Cancellation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A break in the bone that surrounds the skull is called a: a. Hematoma b. Intraceberal hemorrhage c. Contusion/Concussion d. Skull Fracture

A

Answer: Skull Fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The KTEA-II is best known for what? a. Inclusion of all of the achievement tests required by IDEA for SLD identification. b. It’s broad based normative sample. c. Inclusion of normative based error analyses d. It’s inclusion of a naming facility subtest.

A

Answer: -Inclusion of Normative based error analyses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the name of the Supreme Court opinion that highlights the requirement of a comprehensive evaluation for SLD including processes such as attention, memory, and executive functions? a. Forest Grove School District v. T.A. United States Supreme Court b. National Association of School Psychologists v. United States Supreme Court c. Lewisville Independent School District v. United States Supreme Court d. Chicago Public Schools v. United States Supreme Court

A

Answer: Forest Grove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

This type of NEPSY-II score considers both completion time and the number of errors. What is this type of score called? a. Combined score b. Process score c. Contrast score d. Scaled score

A

Answer: Combined Score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A high number of omissions (percentile rank > 75 and classified as above expected level) on the Auditory Attention and Response Set subtest of the NEPSY-II would reflect: a. poor vigilance b. poor selective or sustained attention c. failure to understand the directions d. any or all of the above

A

Answer: poor vigilance, poor selective or sustained attention, failure to understand the directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which NEPSY-II test would be useful to measure automaticity of naming? a. Phonological Processing b. Comprehension of instructions c. Oromotor Sequences d. Speeded Naming

A

Answer: Speeded Naming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A school neuropsychologist should consider using a DSM diagnosis in a report when: a. The school neuropsychologist should never use a DSM diagnosis in a report. b. If the school neuropsychologist wants to qualify the child as severely emotionally disturbed (SED). c. The report will be used by a specialist outside of the schools such as a private practitioner and the district allows the use of the DSM diagnosis. d. The report will be used by the classroom teacher to craft a set of educationally relevant interventions.

A

Answer: - The report will be used by a specialist outside of the schools such as a private practitioner and the district allows the use of the DSM diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When memorizing a list of words, the words that are last to be presented are more easily recalled. This is called the: a. primacy effect b. recency effect c. equipotential effect d. transduction effect

A

Answer: -recency effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the frontal-subcortical circuits would most likely be involved with a child’s eye tracking? a. motor circuit b. oculomotor circuit c. dorsolateral circuit d. orbitofrontal circuit

A

Answer-oculomotor circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

On the original version of the Trail Making Test there were two conditions. On the D-KEFS Trail Making Test, there are how many conditions? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

A

Answer: Five

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A verbal fluency task activates what part of the prefrontal cortex? a. right dorsolateral b. left dorsolateral c. right orbitofrontal d. left orbitofrontal

A

Answer: -left dorsolateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

On the D-KEFS Twenty Questions test, if a child correctly guesses the object in a few questions, the best test score to reflect the overall test performance would be? a. Initial Abstraction Score b. Total Questions Asked c. Total Weighted Achievement d. Set-Loss Questions

A

Answer: -total weighted achievement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A child with a reading fluency problem would probably have the most difficulty on which test? a. WJIII-COG Sound Blending b. NEPSY-II Phonological Processing c. WJIII-COG Visual-Auditory Learning d. NEPSY-II Speeded Naming

A

Answer: NEPSY-II Speeded Naming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

This traditional subtype of agraphia is usually associated with writing problems in association with language problems. a. aphasic agraphia b. agraphia with alexia c. spatial agraphia d. apraxic agraphia

A

Answer: -aphasiac agraphia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

This subtype of dyscalculia is characterized by the inability to use language-based procedures to assist in arithmetic fact retrieval skills. a. semantic dyscalculia b. procedural dyscalculia c. verbal dyscalculia d. visual-spatial dyscalculia

A

verbal dysalculia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

This region of the brain is regulates motivation and reward based decision making. It is the key brain region in developing “theory of mind”. What is this part of the brain? a. anterior cingulate cortex b. basal ganglia c. nucleus accumbens d. orbitofrontal cortex

A

Answer: -anterior cingulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

All of the following are side effects of medication used to treat asthma except for one, which one? a. Increased ability to sustain attention b. Hyperactivity c. Drowsiness d. Nausea

A

Answer: Increased ability to sustain attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What type of injury listed below would not be an example of an anoxic episode? a. near drowning b. strangulation c. smoke inhalation d. gun shot wound

A

Answer: gun shot wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Results from stretching and shearing as the brain rapidly accelerates/decelerates within the skull. a. diffuse axonal injury b. concussion c. edema d. contusion

A

Answer: -diffuse axonal injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

One of the symptoms of NVLD is bilateral tactile deficits. Which neuropsychological test would be the most useful for assessing for tactile deficits? a. Dean-Woodcock Sensory-Motor Battery b. NESPY-II c. D-KEFS d. WRAML-2

A

Answer: -DWSMB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When there is no known cause for a seizure disorder, it is labeled as: a. Jacksonian b. Clonic-Tonic c. Partial d. Idiopathic

A

Answer: -Idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which one of the KABC-II subtests requires working memory? a. Word Order b. Hand Movements c. Number Recall d. Atlantis

A

Answer: Word Order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

All of the following brain structures are part of Luria’s first functional unit except one, which one? a. Pons b. Corpus collosum c. Brainstem d. Medulla

A

Answer: Corpus Collosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which WJIII-COG test fits within the School Neuropsychological Model in the sustained attention category? a. Auditory Attention and Response Set b. Pair Cancellations c. Auditory Attention d. Auditory Working Memory

A

Answer: Pair Cancellation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is suggested when the Elithorn Mazes score is significantly lower than the Elithorn Mazes with no time score? a. Indicates that the child possesses adequate cognitive planning ability, but that her/his performance on Elithorn Mazes may be limited by time demands. b. Indicates that the child may have poor visual planning skills. c. Indicates that the child may have poor perceptual reasoning skills. d. Indicates that that child may have poor vocabulary skills.

A

Answer: Indicates that the child possesses adequate cognitive planning ability, but that her/his performance on Elithorn Mazes may be limited by time demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the most common type of brain tumor in children? a. Cerebellar astrocytoma b. Medulloblastoma c. Ependymona d. Brainstem glioma

A

Answer: Medulloblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Sensory disorders may be manifested in which way: a. Overstimulated b. Understimulated c. Sensation seeking d. Any or all of the above

A

Answer: Overstimulated, Understimulated, Sensory Seeking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following types of attention is related to working memory? a. sustained attention b. attentional capacity c. divided attention d. selective attention

A

Answer: Attentional Capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The term that is used to refer to a convoluted way of saying something is called? a. anomia b. dysarthria c. oromotor apraxia d. circumlocution

A

Answer: Circumlocution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The receptive language center of the brain is located where? a. Wernicke’s area b. Broca’s area c. angular gyrus d. supramarginal gyrus

A

Answer: Wernicke’s Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

On the Design Copying test of the NEPSY-II, if the child shows intact capacity to imitate or create general shapes (perceives the general configuration), but confuses or leaves out pertinent details, which subtest score will most likely be lower? a. Design Copying Global Score b. Design Copying Local Score c. Design Copying General Score d. Design Copying Process Score

A

Answer: Design Copying Local Score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What D-KEFS test is a modern version of the classic Stroop test? a. Color Word Interference b. Trail Making Test c. Word Context d. Design Fluency

A

Answer: Color Word Interference Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Children with this type of dyslexia over-rely on memorizing whole words as they are visualized because they cannot phonetically sound out the word. What is this subtypes of dyslexia called? a. surface dyslexia b. mixed dyslexia c. phonological dyslexia d. semantic dyslexia

A

Answer: phonological dyslexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What subtype of dysgraphia is characterized by visuospatial difficulty and poor copying skills? a. ideomotor dysgraphia b. ideational dysgraphia c. phonological dysgraphia d. constructional dysgraphia

A

Answer: constructional dysgraphia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

This subtype of dyscalculia is characterized by poor number-symbol association and math fact automaticity. a. semantic dyscalculia b. procedural dyscalculia c. verbal dyscalculia d. visual-spatial dyscalculia

A

Answer: Semantic Dyscalculia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

If this amygdala within the brain is hyperactive it can cause what emotional symptoms? a. depression b. anxiety c. undue jocularity d. shyness

A

Answer: Anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the brain areas or functions could be impaired in children who have externalizing behavioral problems? a. frontal lobe function b. speech and language center c. visuospatial processing d. all of the above

A

Answer: frontal lobe function, speech language center, visuospatial processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

While NVLD is most often associated with right hemispheric dysfunction or impairment, Gerstmann Syndrome if associated with dysfunction or impairment within what part of the brain? a. left frontal b. left parietal c. left occipital d. left temporal

A

Answer: left parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

This occurs when the band of tissue connecting the two hemispheres of the brain, fails to develop normally: a. callosal agenesis b. velocardiofacial syndrome c. Williams Syndrome d. De Lange Syndrome

A

Answer: callosal agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What type of brain injury listed below would not be considered an acquired brain injury? a. oxygen deprivation b. stroke or tumor c. skull fracture d. infectious disease

A

Answer: skull fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the name for swelling in the brain? a. diffuse axonal injury b. concussion c. edema d. shearing

A

Answer: edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Angela is a 5-year-old female who was riding with her older brother as he tried out his new four-wheeler. Both children wore helmets but at some point, he lost control. He and his sister careened into a parked car at the end of their block and Angela flew from behind her brother, over his head, and struck the windshield of the neighbor’s car. She was attended by emergency services professionals who noted a GCS of 11. What level of head trauma severity should be recorded in her medical records? a. Mild b. Moderate c. Intermediate d. Severe

A

Answer: Moderate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which seizure disorder is often misidentified as ADHD - Inattentive Type? a. Tonic b. Atonic c. Absence d. Complex Partial

A

Answer: -Absence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

On a list learning test, the number correct from the last trial minus the number correct on the first trial is considered a measure of: a. retention b. recall c. recognition d. learning

A

Answer: -learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which two brain structures plays a major role in memory? a. Amygdala and hippocampus b. Fornix and hypothalamus c. angular gyrus and cingulate gyrus d. basal ganglia and pons

A

Answer: -Amygdala and Hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of the following reasons are good reasons for including data in a school neuropsychological report? a. The examiner who evaluates the student years later will have something to compare the current results to. b. The data will provide support for the diagnostic conclusions and related educational recommendations. c. The data will help the examiner reconstruct the reasoning behind the diagnostic conclusions made in the report. d. All of the above are good reasons to include data in the report.

A

Answer: -All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which of the NEPSY-II subtests measures the child’s ability to infer a mental state in someone else? a. Affect Recognition b. Theory of Mind c. Memory for Faces d. Any or all of the above

A

Answer: Theory of Mind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What type of aphasia is characterized by intact comprehension and spontaneous speech but difficulty with repeating words? a. Wernicke’s aphasia b. Broca’s aphasia c. Conduction aphasia d. Transcortical aphasia

A

Answer: Conduction aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What brain structure seems to regulate the recognition of people’s faces? a. fusiform gyrus b. cingulate gyrus c. angular gyrus d. supramarginal gyrus

A

Answer: fusiform gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Damage to the cerebellum can cause what types of dysfunction? a. Ataxia b. Dysarthia c. Hypotonia d. Any or all of the above

A

Answer: -Ataxia, Dysarthia, Hypotonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

A medical condition that is characterized by the ventricles of the brain overfilling with cerebrospinal fluid is called? a. Hydrocephalus b. Cerebral Palsy c. Meningitis d. Muscular Dystrophy

A

Answer: Hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

A blot clot that forms between the skull and the top lining of the brain is called: a. Subdural hematoma b. Epidural hematoma c. Intraceberal hemorrhage d. Contusion/Concussion

A

Answer: Epidural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

All of the WISC-IV Integrated subtests can be administered after the WISC-IV subtests are administered, except one. Which WISC-IV subtest needs to be administered right after its WISC-IV counterpart? a. Picture Vocabulary Multiple Choice b. Coding Recall c. Elithorn Mazes d. Block Design Process Approach

A

Answer: Coding Recall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the name of the organization that has created the international classification of functioning? a. UNICEF b. American Psychiatric Association c. World Health Organization d. None of the above

A

Answer: World Health Organization

78
Q

The anterior part of the brain is responsible for? a. regulating sensory input and comprehension b. regulating executive functions and motor output c. regulating storage of long-term memories d. regulating visual processing of information

A

Answer: Regulating Executive Functions and motor output

79
Q

What term is used to describe a condition in which many medications are administered to a child without the known potential interactive side effects? a. polypharmacy b. drug overdose c. psuedopharamacy d. interactive pharmacy

A

Answer: -polypharmacy

80
Q

Which Luria’s zone of functioning would be considered hard-wired with a one-to-one correspondence with end-organ sense receptors? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Thalamus

A

Answer: Primary

81
Q

According to Flanagan’s research, naming facility (NA) or rapid automatic naming is a narrow long-term retrieval (Glr) ability and related to what academic area in young children? a. Mathematics b. Written Expression c. Reading d. Listening Comprehension

A

Answer: Reading

82
Q

Measures of attentional capacity all share this same attribute: a. As the test items progress they require more shifting of attention. b. As the test items progress they decrease in length or complexity. c. As the test items progress they increase in length or complexity. d. As the test items progress they require greater processing speed

A

Answer: -As the test items progress they increase in length or complexity

83
Q

Which two are core subtests on the WISC-IV Working Memory index? a. Digit Span and Arithmetic b. Digit Span and Letter-Number Sequencing c. Arithmetic and Letter-Number Sequencing d. Cancellation and Digit Span

A

Answer: -Digit Span and Letter Number Sequencing

84
Q

The Fingertip Tapping subtest on the NEPSY-II is recommended for all of the clinical groups below except one, which one? a. suspected Asperger’s disorder b. suspected emotional disturbance c. suspected dysgraphia d. suspected reading disorder

A

Answer: Suspected Reading Disorder

85
Q

A child with poor initiating behaviors and behavioral apathy may have dysfunction in what part of the prefrontal cortex? a. dorsolateral region b. orbitofrontal region c. anterior cingulate d. basil ganglia

A

Answer: orbitofrontal region

86
Q

On the D-KEFS Card Sorting test, children with left temporal-parietal dysfunction may rely on what types of sorts? a. perceptual sorts b. verbal sorts c. repeated sorts d. incorrect sorts

A

Answer: Perceptual Sorts

87
Q

This traditional subtype of agraphia is usually associated with visual neglect. a. aphasic agraphia b. agraphia with alexia c. spatial agraphia d. apraxic agraphia

A

Answer: Spatial Agraphia

88
Q

The visual-spatial subtype of dyscalculia is often associated with this disorder. a. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder b. autism c. nonverbal learning disabilities d. seizure disorders

A

Answer: NVLD

89
Q

When the brain recoils and strikes the opposite side of the skull from where the initial impact occurs this is called? a. a coup contrecoup injury b. a diffuse axonal injury c. a contusion d. a hematoma

A

Answer: Coup Contrecoup

90
Q

All of the following are symptoms of a complex partial seizure except one, which one? a. May struggle or flail at restraint. b. May pick at clothes, pick up and put down objects, try to take clothes off. c. The child stays aware of their surroundings. d. No memory of what happened during the seizure.

A

Answer: -The child stays aware of their surroundings.

91
Q

What part of the brain is responsibility for decision making, planning, attention, delayed gratification? a. Cerebellum b. Occipital lobes c. Temporal lobes d. Prefrontal lobes

A

Answer: Prefrontal lobes

92
Q

The inflammation of the lining around the brain and spinal cord causes this disease? a. Hydrocephalus b. Cerebral Palsy c. Meningitis d. Muscular Dystrophy

A

Answer: Meningitis

93
Q

Slow completion times on timed tasks could be indicative of: a. lesions in the subcortical regions b. depression c. obsessive thinking d. any or all of these.

A

Answer: -lesions in the subcortical regions, depression, obsessive thinking

94
Q

There are a combination of injuries possible because of head injury, which are dependent on the type of forces present. Which best describes specific damage associated with a head injury resulting from a rollover car accident (with acceleration/deceleration forces)? a. focal right temporal hematoma b. diffuse axonal injury c. cerebral contusions over bilateral frontal regions d. depressed skull fracture of the occipital bone

A

Answer: diffuse axonal injury

95
Q

This senior author of the WISC-IV PI is best known for what could be broadly called the Boston Process Approach. Who is this person? a. Edith Kaplan b. Nancy Mathers c. David Wechsler d. Dean Delis

A

Answer: Edith Kaplan

96
Q

In Miller’s School Neuropsychological Conceptual Model, what are the major subcomponents of memory and learning? a. Sensory Memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory b. Recognition memory, recall memory, and learning c. Immediate memory, long-term delayed memory, verbal-visual associative learning and recall. d. Echoic memory, iconic memory, declarative memory, procedural memory.

A

Answer: Immediate Memory, long-term delayed memory, verbal-visual associative learning, and recall.

97
Q

The diagnosis that most resembles NVLD in the schools is: a. specific learning disabilities in math b. specific learning disabilities in reading c. anxiety disorder d. Asperger’s disorder

A

Answer: Asperger’s syndrome

98
Q

What rare seizure disorder only affects one side of the brain? a. Rasmussen’s syndrome b. Jacksonian seizures c. Landau-Kleffner syndrome d. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

A

Answer: Rasmussen’s syndrome

99
Q

What type of seizure disorder involves the whole brain? a. Generalized b. Simple Partial c. Jacksonian d. Complex Partial

A

Answer: Generalized

100
Q

NVLD is most often considered to be related to what type of neuronal deficits in the brain? a. grey matter in the left hemisphere b. white matter in the right hemisphere c. grey matter in the right hemisphere d. white matter in the left hemisphere

A

Answer: white matter in the right hemisphere

101
Q

A child with this subtype of dyscalculia would have difficulty with aligning a column of numbers. a. semantic dyscalculia b. procedural dyscalculia c. verbal dyscalculia d. visual-spatial dyscalculia

A

Answer: Visual-Spatial dyscalculia

102
Q

A child with a dysphonetic dyslexia would probably have the most difficulty on which test? a. WJIII-COG Sound Blending b. NEPSY-II Phonological Processing c. WJIII-COG Visual-Auditory Learning d. either or both a and b

A

Answer:WJ-III Sound Blending, NEPSY-II Phonological Processing

103
Q

A child with a high number of self-corrected errors is thought to have: a. poor cognitive flexibility b. good self-monitoring c. poor processing speed d. poor verbal skills

A

Answer: good self monitoring

104
Q

Which of the verbal fluency measures generate the most process scores? a. WJIII-COG Retrievel Fluency b. NEPSY-II Word Generation c. D-KEFS Verbal Fluency d. None of the above

A

Answer: DKEFS Verbal Fluency

105
Q

A key component of the CHT model is determining the input, processing, and output requirements of a task. This is called? a. conducting a functional behavioral analyses b. conducting a task analyses c. conducting a demand analyses d. conducting a theoretical analyses

A

Answer: conducting a demand analyses

106
Q

What possible sections could be included in the Intervention Strategies and Recommendations section of the report? a. Recommendations for the Home b. Recommendations for the School c. Recommendation for the Child d. Any or all of the above

A

Answer: All of the above

107
Q

Which NEPSY-II test would be useful to test for sign of dysarthria? a. Phonological Processing b. Comprehension of instructions c. Oromotor Sequences d. Speeded Naming

A

Answer: oromotor sequences

108
Q

Design Copying Global Score would be an example of what type of NEPSY-II score? a. Combined score b. Process score c. Contrast score d. Scaled score

A

Answer: Process score

109
Q

What term is used to refer to poor ability to initiate nonverbal as well as verbal movements of the speech musculature? a. anomia b. dysarthria c. oromotor apraxia d. circumlocution

A

Answer: oromotor apraxia

110
Q

What term means an impaired ability to recognize visual information? a. simultanagnosia b. astereopsis c. prosopagnosia d. visual agnosia

A

Answer: Visual Agnosia

111
Q

A continuous performance test (CPT) would be used to measure what type of attention? a. selective attention b. attentional capacity c. divided attention d. sustained attention

A

Answer: Sustained Attention

112
Q

A child with damage to this part of the brain will accelerate a hand position beyond what is normal when reaching for an object. What part of the brain is damaged in this case? a. Basal ganglia b. Premotor cortex c. Cerebellum d. Primary motor cortex

A

Answer: cerebellum

113
Q

What is suggested by a strength in Block Design Multiple Choice compared to the original WISC-IV Block Design? a. The original Block Design subtest performance may have been limited by the motor output requirements. b. Visual discrimination problems may manifest themselves in a failure to detect subtle differences among distracters. c. Impulsive children may select a response without fully considering or scanning all response options. d. Suggests that abilities in BD are not due to problems with processing speed and execution.

A

Answer: The original Block Design subtest performance may have been limited by the motor output requirements.

114
Q

Which of the KTEA-II subtests measures rapid automatized naming? a. Associational Fluency b. Nonsense Word Decoding c. Naming Facility d. Word Recognition Fluency

A

Answer: Naming Facility

115
Q

The WJIII-COG Pair Cancellations test measures what neurocognitive processes? a. Executive processing (interference control) b. Attention/concentration (sustained attention) c. Processing speed (performance under time constraints) d. All of the above

A

Answer: All of the above

116
Q

In Miller’s School Neuropsychology Conceptual Model, what are the subcomponents of attentional processes? a. Selective/focused attention, sustained attention, shifting attention, and attentional capacity b. ADHD-Inattentive Type, ADHD-Hyperactive Type, ADHD-Combined Type c. Selective attention, vigilance, switching attention, and attentional load d. Alerting attention, sustained attention, attentional capacity

A

Answer: Selective/Focused attention, sustained Attention, shifting attention, and attentional capacity

117
Q

The “concordance” in the concordance-discordance model refers to? a. Agreement between cognitive deficits and academic deficits. b. Disagreement between cognitive deficits and academic deficits. c. Agreement between cognitive strengths and academic deficits. d. Disagreement between cognitive strengths and cognitive deficits.

A

Answer: Agreement between cognitive deficits and academic deficits.

118
Q

All of the following could be a typical role of a school neuropsychologist, except one, which one? a. Seek to integrate current brain research into educational practice. b. Administer CBM measures exclusively without regard to individual differences. c. Provide educational interventions that have a basis in the neuropsychological or educational literature. d. Act as a liaison between the school and the medical community for transitional planning for TBI and other health impaired children and adolescents.

A

Answer: -Administer CBM exclusively without regard to individual differences

119
Q

In what decade did the interest in the school neuropsychology specialization first start? a. 1970s b. 1980s c. 1990s d. 2000s

A

Answer: 1980s

120
Q

What WJIII-COG test requires the child to learn visual-verbal associations using a set of rebuses? a. Picture Recognition b. Spatial Memory c. Visual-Auditory Learning d. Visual Matching

A

Answer: Visual-Auditory Learning

121
Q

Which are the four WISC-IV Indices? a. Verbal Comprehension, Perceptual Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed. b. Simultaneous, successive, planning, and attention. c. Long-term retrieval, processing speed, fluid reasoning, and auditory processing. d. Crystallized intelligence, fluid reasoning, comprehension-knowledge, and long-term retrieval.

A

Answer: VCI, PRI, WMI, PSI

122
Q

Fibers from the nasal retinas cross over to the ispilateral side at what brain structure? a. Optic chiasm b. Thalamus c. Pons d. Medulla

A

Answer: Optic chiasm

123
Q

Johnnie is continually distracted by the sound of cars passing by the classroom’s window that faces a street. What kind of attentional processing is most probably impaired in Johnnie? a. Selective/focused attention b. Shifting attention c. Sustained attention d. Divided attention

A

Answer: -Selective/focused attention

124
Q

Which neurotransmitter plays a major role in regulating attention? a. Actelycholine b. Serotonin c. Dopamine d. Gylcine

A

Answer: -dopamine

125
Q

What term means impaired face recognition? a. simultanagnosia b. astereopsis c. prosopagnosia d. visual agnosia

A

Answer: Prosopagnosia

126
Q

The expressive language center of the brain is located where? a. Wernicke’s area b. Broca’s area c. angular gyrus d. supramarginal gyrus

A

Answer: -Broca’s area

127
Q

What is the possible neurocognitive explanation for why a child would perform better on the Response Set (Part 2) than Auditory Attention (Part 1) on the Auditory Attention and Response Set subtest on the NEPSY-II? a. The child did not initially understand the demands of the task. b. The child needed the difficulty level of the task to increase in order to be interested in the task. c. The child lacked motivation to perform the easier portion of the task. d. Any or all of these could be the reason for the performance pattern.

A

Answer: Any or all of them

128
Q

Retrograde amnesia is: a. the inability to learn new information following a brain injury. b. the inability to learn new information and recall information prior to a brain injury. c. the inability to recall information prior to a brain injury. d. None of the above.

A

Answer: -the inability to recall information prior to a brain injury

129
Q

Which of the frontal-subcortical circuits would most likely be involved with a child’s handwriting? a. motor circuit b. oculomotor circuit c. dorsolateral circuit d. orbitofrontal circuit

A

Answer: -motor circuit

130
Q

Which D-KEFS Trail Making Condition measures visual scanning? a. Condition 1 b. Condition 2 c. Condition 3 d. Condition 4

A

Answer: -Condition 1 (finding all the 3s)

131
Q

This pathway extends from the occipital lobe to the temporal lobe and uses a whole-word approach to reading. What is this pathway called? a. dorsal stream b. ventral stream c. arcuate fasciculus d. prefrontal cortex

A

Answer: ventral stream

132
Q

Which of these broad dysgraphic subtypes below is not one of the neuropsychologically-based subtypes? a. aphasic dysgraphia b. apraxic dysgraphia c. mechanical dysgraphia d. preservative dysgraphia

A

Answer: Perseverative dyslexia

133
Q

All of the following are examples of how working memory and the visual-spatial sketchpad work with math skills except one, which one? a. retrieval of math facts b. mental math c. magnitude comparisons d. geometric proofs

A

Answer: retrieval of math facts

134
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a nonverbal learning disability? a. Deficits in social judgment b. Early deficits in handwriting c. Deficits in reading decoding d. Deficits in mathematics

A

Answer: deficits in math

135
Q

The inability of an autistic child to take the perspective of someone else is explained best by which theory of autism? a. The limbic system hypothesis b. The weak central coherence hypothesis c. The executive function hypothesis d. The theory of mind hypothesis

A

Answer: -The Theory of Mind Hypothesis

136
Q

What type of brain cell has been found to reflect one’s ability to take someone else’s perspective? a. Mirror neurons b. Schwann cells c. Motor neurons d. Sensory neurons

A

Answer: -Mirror neurons

137
Q

What type of brain cell has been found to reflect one’s ability to take someone else’s perspective? a. Mirror neurons b. Schwann cells c. Motor neurons d. Sensory neurons

A

Answer: -Mirror neurons

138
Q

What type of brain injury listed below would not be considers an acceleration/deceleration injury? a. shaken baby syndrome b. stroke or tumor c. front impact car accident with head injury d. continually headers in soccer

A

Answer: -stroke or tumor

139
Q

Perception of objects takes place within what part of the visual cortex? a. striate cortex b. dorsal stream c. ventral stream d. extrastriate cortex

A

Answer: -extrastriate cortex

140
Q

What term is used to describe memory retrieval without the aide of external cues? a. recognition b. free recall c. learning d. incidental learning

A

Answer: -free recall

141
Q

Set loss errors may be indicative of: a. failure to maintain cognitive set b. receptive language deficits c. distractibility d. any or all of the above

A

Answer: -any or all of the above

142
Q

Research has shown that there are three pathways in the brain that relate to reading, the parietal-temporal pathway and the occipito-temporal pathway and a third one. Where is the third pathway located in the brain? a. angular gyrus b. supramarginal gyrus c. arcuate fasciculus d. frontal region associated with Broca’s area

A

Answer: frontal region associated with Broca’s area

143
Q

A condition is which the child is aware and awake, sometimes determined by neuroimaging, but cannot move or communicate due to complete paralysis of the body. a. coma b. stupor c. locked-in syndrome d. vegetative state

A

Answer: locked-in syndrome

144
Q

On the WISC-IV Integrated, the multiple-choice subtests are designed to: a. Reduce the verbal expression and memory retrieval demands. b. Increase the complexity of the tasks. c. Increase the verbal expression and memory retrieval demands. d. Reduce the attentional and processing speed demands of the tasks.

A

Answer: Reduce the verbal expression and memory retrieval demands

145
Q

Which of the following refers to a decreased oxygen supply to the brain? a. Anoxia b. Repoxia c. Dyspoxia d. Hypoxia

A

Answer: hypoxia

146
Q

What is an umbrella term used to cover a variety of neurological disabilities that interfere with the normal ability to use sensory information to function smoothly in daily life? a. Tactile Defensiveness Disorder b. Sensory Processing Disorder c. Cerebral Palsy d. Developmental Coordination Disorder

A

Answer: Sensory Processing Disorder

147
Q

Samantha is working on a math assignment and the teacher asks the class to put away their math work and get out their reading books. Samantha continues to work on her math assignment. What type of attentional processing could be impaired in Samantha? a. Selective/focused attention b. Shifting attention c. Sustained attention d. Divided attention

A

Answer: Shifting Attention

148
Q

What brain structure serves as a relay station for visual information? a. retina b. optic radiations c. thalamus d. optic chiasm

A

Answer: Thalamus

149
Q

What part of the visual cortex corresponds to Luria’s secondary zone? a. striate cortex b. dorsal stream c. ventral stream d. extrastriate cortex

A

Answer: Extrastriate Cortex

150
Q

The term that is used to refer to the inability to name something is called? a. anomia b. dysarthria c. oromotor apraxia d. circumlocution

A

Answer: -Anomia

151
Q

What is the suitable age range for the NEPSY-II? a. 3-6 to 9-5 years b. 3-0 to 12-11 years c. 3-0 to 16-11 years d. 4-0 to 16-11 years

A

Answer: 3-0 to 16-11

152
Q

On the NEPSY-II Memory for Faces test, what is the neurocognitive explanation for a child achieving a higher Memory for Faces Delayed Score than the initial Memory for Faces Total Score? a. A higher rate of forgetting than expected for newly learned faces. b. Difficulties with the initial encoding or discrimination of novel faces. c. Difficulties with recognition of newly learned faces from long-term memory. d. Face recognition improves with consolidation time.

A

Answer: Face Recognition improves with consolidation time

153
Q

What piece of background information could most likely be excluded from a school neuropsychological report? a. The child’s APGAR score at birth. b. The fact that the child’s father is in jail for a white collar crime. c. The child’s developmental milestones. d. A list of any medications the child is currently taking.

A

Answer: The fact that the child’s father is in jail for a white collar crime.

154
Q

The type of memory that refers to general knowledge of the world (e.g., facts, vocabulary, rules) is called: a. working memory b. procedural memory c. episodic memory d. semantic memory

A

Answer: -Semantic memory

155
Q

Memory for Stories tests would be categorized where in the school neuropsychology conceptual model? a. verbal memory with context b. visual memory with context c. verbal memory without context d. visual memory without context

A

Answer: verbal memory with context

156
Q

What two tests are designed to measure concept generation? a. D-KEFS 20 Questions and D-KEFS Tower b. NEPSY-II Design Fluency &; D-KEFS Design Fluency c. WJIII-COG Pair Cancellation & WJIII-COG Planning d. NEPSY-II Animal Sorting and D-KEFS Sorting

A

Answer: NEPSY-II Animal Sorting & DKEFS Sorting

157
Q

What is the most likely explanation for a pattern of performance where the completion time is above average but the error rate is high? a. may reflect poor processing speed. b. may reflect poor receptive language skills c. may reflect impulsivity, because they work quickly at the expense of accuracy. d. may reflect distractibility.

A

Answer: May reflect impulsivity, because they work quickly at the expense of accuracy.

158
Q

A child that is required to wear a protective helmet because they can experience a sudden loss of muscle tone that makes the child fall and collapse, has what type of seizure? a. Myoclonic b. Clonic-Tonic c. Atonic d. Tonic

A

Answer: -Atonic

159
Q

All of the following are neurocognitive deficits associated with autism except for one, which one? a. Facial processing b. Joint attention c. Inferencing d. Selective/focused attention

A

Answer: -Selective/focused attention

160
Q

What part of the brain along with the occipital-temporal pathway has been implicated with automatically recognizing words in print? a. angular gyrus b. supramarginal gyrus c. insular cortex d. arcuate fasciculus

A

Answer: insular cortex

161
Q

What is one of the major differences between the Card Sorting test on the NEPSY-II and the Card Sort Test on the D-KEFS? a. on the NEPSY-II version, the child is required to verbalize how the card sorts were made. b. on the D-KEFS version the child is required to verbalize how the card sorts were made. c. on the NEPSY-II version part of the test requires the child to verbally describe what principle was used by the examiner to sort the cards. d. on the D-KEFS version the child is not required to verbalize how the card sorts were made.

A

Answer: -On the DKEFs version the child is required to verbalize how the card sorts were made

162
Q

Tests such as recalling digits or letters backwards are designed to measure what aspect of memory? a. verbal working memory b. semantic memory c. verbal immediate memory d. verbal long-term memory

A

Answer: -verbal working memory

163
Q

The classic case of Phineas Gage illustrated the behavioral effects of damage to what part of the brain? a. prefrontal dorsolateral b. anterior cingulate c. basil ganglia d. prefrontal orbitofrontal

A

Answer: -prefrontal orbitofrontal

164
Q

In a memory recall test, a recall error such as recalling “car” for “truck” is called? a. a phonological error b. an intrusion error c. a semantic error d. a confabulation error

A

Answer: -semantic error

165
Q

If a child had a Glasgow Coma Scale of 9-12 what classification of TBI would be used to describe this child? a. no TBI b. mild TBI c. moderate TBI d. severe TBI

A

Answer: -moderate TBI

166
Q

What part of the brain would be the locus of the seizure if the symptoms included thrashing movements during sleep, fear, screaming, or bicycle movements of the legs? a. Parietal lobes b. Temporal lobes c. Occipital lobes d. Frontal lobes

A

Answer: -Frontal lobes

167
Q

What is the principal reason why the Halstead-Reitan tests for children and the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery, Children’s Revision are not suitable for current clinical use? a. Neither test has been shown to differentiate brain-injured from normal controls. b. Neither test has contemporarily collected broad-based normative data. c. Neither test has a strong theoretical basis. d. Neither test is empirically designed.

A

Answer: -neither has contemporarily collected broad-based normative date

168
Q

Which subtests on the KABC-II measure planning abilities? a. Pattern Reasoning b. Number Recall c. Story Completion d. Both a and c

A

Answer: -Pattern Reasoning and Story Completion

169
Q

Within the CHT Model, what types of tests are generally used in the first level of data collection? a. Intelligence/cognitive tests b. Curriculum-based measures c. Achievement tests d. Neuropsychological batteries

A

Answer: -intelligence/cognitive tests

170
Q

Which minority group has the highest incidence of asthma? a. Caucasians b. African-Americans c. Asians d. Hispanics

A

Answer: -African-Americans

171
Q

What are the three functional units or blocks within the brain that Luria theorized? a. Temporal, occipital, and parietal b. Primary, secondary, and tertiary c. Arousal, sensory, and output/planning d. Frontal, temporal, and parietal

A

Answer: -Primary, secondary, and tertiary

172
Q

CHC in the CHC theory states for what? a. Cognitive Hypothesis Classification b. Carroll-Horn-Cattell c. Connors-Horn-Cattell d. Corrow-Horn-Cattell

A

Answer: -Caroll-Horn-Cattell

173
Q

Which test on the WJIII-COG was designed to measure cognitive fluency? a. Sound Blending b. Incomplete Words c. Sound Awareness d. Rapid Picture Naming

A

Answer: -Rapid Picture Naming

174
Q

Which WJIII-COG test is Woodcock’s answer to the Halstead-Reitan’s Category Test? a. Analysis-Synthesis b. Planning c. Concept Formation d. Pair Cancellations

A

Answer: -Concept Formation

175
Q

Which of the following WISC-IV/WISC-IV Integrated subtests has the working memory demand? a. Digit Span Forward b. Digit Span Backward c. Spatial Span Forward d. Visual Digit Span

A

Answer: -Digit Span Backward

176
Q

This DSM diagnosis is characterized by marked delays in reaching developmental motor milestones (e.g., crawling, walking, sitting), difficulty mastering gross motor tasks (e.g., catching a ball), difficulty with fine motor coordination (e.g., handwriting), and being poor at sports. What is this disorder? a. Tactile Defensiveness Disorder b. Sensory Processing Disorder c. Cerebral Palsy d. Developmental Coordination Disorder

A

Answer: -Developmental Coordination Disorder

177
Q

36) The neuroanatomical focus for shifting attention seems to be centered in what part of the brain? a. reticular activating system b. inferior parietal lobes c. superior temporal lobes d. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

A

Answer: Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

178
Q

37) There are two streams of visual analysis within the brain. Which one recognizes where an object is located and whether it is moving? a. striate cortex b. dorsal stream c. ventral stream d. extrastriate cortex

A

Answer: -dorsal strem

179
Q

An impaired recognition of the meaning of whole pictures or objects, but intact ability to describe the parts of the pictures/objects, describes what condition? a. simultanagnosia b. astereopsis c. prosopagnosia d. visual agnosia

A

Answer: -prospagosia

180
Q

What term is used to describe difficulty with pronunciation due to weakness or poor coordination of the muscles of lips, tongue, jaw, etc.? a. dysarthia b. dysnomia c. aphasia d. circumlocution

A

Answer: dysarthia

181
Q

On the NEPSY-II’s Memory for Designs subtest, a low score on this measure suggests difficulty learning visual details. What is the score on this subtest? a. Memory for Designs Content versus Spatial Contrast Score b. Memory for Designs Content Score c. Memory for Designs Spatial Score d. Memory for Designs Total Score

A

Answer: -Memory for Designs Content Score

182
Q

When a child has a high number of self-corrected errors on a task, this indicates: a. poor language skills b. good self monitoring c. poor self monitoring d. both a and c

A

Answer: -good self-monitoring

183
Q

There are two streams of visual analysis within the brain. Which one recognizes what an object is and what color it has? a. striate cortex b. dorsal stream c. ventral stream d. extrastriate cortex

A

Answer: -ventral stream

184
Q

Which of the WISC-IV Integrated subtests requires the child to tap a pattern on raised blocks after the pattern is demonstrated by the examiner? a. Visual Digit Span b. Digit Span Forward c. Spatial Span d. Digit Span Backward

A

Answer: Spatial Span

185
Q

On the NEPSY-II, indirect measures of processing speed can be evaluated by: a. Examining the completion time scores relative to the number of errors. b. Examining the completion time scores. c. Examining the errors scores. d. Examining self-corrected error scores.

A

Answer: -Examining the completion time scores relative to the number of errors

186
Q

The order of the NEPSY-II subtest administration is most dependent upon: a. The ability of the child to sustain interest in the tasks. b. The time lapse between immediate and delayed memory tasks is accounted for. c. The referral question. d. The child’s age.

A

Answer: -The time lapse between immediate and delayed memory tasks is accounted for

187
Q

All of the suggestions for report writing listed below are ‘do’s”, except for one “don’t”. Which one is not a good practice in report writing? a. Write a report that reads like a summary section. b. Answer the referral question(s). c. Organize the report into sections. d. Try to write in an integrative, rather than linear, style.

A

Answer: Write a report that sounds like a summary section

188
Q

Baddeley and Hitch’s (1974) Working Memory Model theorizes a modality nonspecific cognitive system that coordinates processes in working memory. What are the two mechanisms that the central executive of working memory regulates? a. short-term and long-term memory b. phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad c. analysis and synthesis d. sensory memory and working memory

A

Answer: phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad

189
Q

What part of the brain seems to be responsible for transferring short-term memories to long-term memories? a. fornix b. basal ganglia c. pineal gland d. hippocampus

A

Answer: -hippocampus

190
Q

Bilateral removal on the temporal lobes in the case study of H. M. produced what types of memory impairment? a. retrograde amnesia b. tranducational amnesia c. anterograde amnesia d. posterior amnesia

A

Answer: anterograde amnesia

191
Q

In Baddeley and Hitch’s Working Memory Model, what is the command and control center that presides over the interactions between the two subordinate systems and long-term memory? a. visuospatial sketchpad b. central executive c. phonological loop d. the dorsal stream

A

Answer: central executive