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NREMT® EMT > Component 8: Care for the Trauma Patient > Flashcards

Component 8: Care for the Trauma Patient Flashcards

A review of common injuries, treatments, and the NREMT Management of the Trauma Patient skill sheet as well as NREMT Splinting and NREMT Bleeding Control skill sheets.

1
Q

What law of motion states that every object in uniform motion will remain in that state unless acted upon by an external force?

A

Newton’s First Law - Law of Inertia

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2
Q

What law of motion states that force equals mass times acceleration, expressed as :
f(t) = ma(t)

A

Newton’s Second Law

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3
Q

What law of motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction?

A

Newton’s Third Law

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4
Q

What is the equation for kinetic energy?

A

KE = 1/2 mv2

F = ma, where a can represent acceleration or deceleration depending on its sign.

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5
Q

List the types of motor vehicle collisions.

(MVCs)

A
  • frontal
  • rear
  • rotational
  • rollover
  • lateral
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6
Q

What are the two types of injuries resulting from force(s) being exerted on the human body?

A

penetrating and blunt force(s)

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7
Q

What are the terms profile, tumble, and fragmentation used to describe?

A

ballistics

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8
Q

True or false.

Every gunshot victim will have exit wounds.

A

False

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9
Q

Define:

Index of Suspicion

A
  • maintaining a heightened awareness of surroundings and safety.
  • Also, as potential patient injuries or illnesses that may not have yet presented with signs and symptoms or have developed.
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10
Q

Which phase of a blast would result in ruptured eardrums, eye hemorrhage, and possibly abdominal hemorrhage and/or perforation?

A

primary blast or phase one

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11
Q

During the tertiary phase of a blast, what happens to the body?

A

The body is lifted, tossed, and/or thrown.

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12
Q

True or false.

Understanding and evaluating the forces or mechanisms of injury to our patients will help us to provide quality patient care.

A

True

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13
Q

Which level of trauma facility is best for the treatment and care of a patient suffering multiple systems trauma?

A

Level I

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14
Q

Define:

  • Capillary bleeding
  • Venous bleeding
  • Arterial bleeding
A
  • Capillary Bleeding: slow, oozing, dark red in color
  • Venous Bleeding: steady flow, not as dark in color as capillary bleeding, although still darker than arterial bleeding
  • Arterial Bleeding: spurts consistent with the patient’s pulse and bright red in color
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15
Q

True or false.

When blunt force trauma is applied, it is imperative to maintain a high index of suspicion of internal bleeding.

A

True

Whether or not the patient initially presents with any signs/symptoms. Also, keep a high index that hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock will develop.

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16
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock for a patient suspected of having internal bleeding?

A
  • dry mouth
  • tachycardia and thready pulse
  • anxiety
  • clammy skin
  • delayed capillary refill
  • progressive drop in blood pressure
  • lethargy or altered mental status potentially progressing to unconsciousness
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17
Q

Fill in the blank.

Prior to applying a tourniquet for bleeding control, we should _________ __________ _________.

A

apply direct pressure

If bleeding does not become controlled, apply a tourniquet.

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18
Q

Fill in the blank.

When applying a tourniquet, we tighten and twist until _________ ________.

A

bleeding stops

To learn more click here.

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19
Q

Define:

epistaxis

A

It is the medical term for a nose bleed.

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20
Q

True or false.

Ecchymosis is another medical term for a contusion or bruise.

A

True

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21
Q

What are the two layers of the skin that are on top of the subcutaneous tissue?

A
  1. epidermis
  2. dermis
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22
Q

What are the types of closed soft-tissue injuries?

A
  • contusion
  • hematoma
  • compartment syndrome
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23
Q

Are abrasions, lacerations, and penetrating wounds considered to be open or closed?

A

open

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24
Q

Which position, if possible, should the flap of an avulsed tissue be placed?

A

Return it to the place it was torn from.

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25
Q

Why should the application of a splint be considered for open or closed soft-tissue injuries?

A

Depending on the mechanism of injury and the forces causing the injury, there may be musculoskeletal damage as well. Splints may also provide for additional patient comfort.

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26
Q

When treating a soft-tissue injury, we may use the mnemonic RICES. What does RICES stand for?

A

Rest
Ice
Compression
Elevation
Splinting

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27
Q

What type of open abdominal injury requires applying a moist sterile dressing secured with an occlusive dressing?

A

abdominal evisceration

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28
Q

When are the two times an impaled object can be removed?

A

An impaled object can be removed only when:

  1. The object interferes with airway management
  2. Performing CPR

Otherwise, stabilize in place and transport.

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29
Q

Why should an occlusive dressing be applied to a patient with an open, bleeding, anterior/lateral neck laceration?

A

The application will prevent an air embolism or particulates from being sucked into an open neck wound.

30
Q

What layer(s) of the skin are involved in a 2o or partial thickness burn?

A

epidermis and dermis

31
Q

True or false.

It is best practice to place a burn sheet over a patient suffering moderate or severe burns with a large body surface area (BSA) affected.

A

True

32
Q

Using the rule of nines, calculate the percentage of body surface area (BSA) burnt:

The adult patient has partial and full-thickness burns to their anterior chest, abdomen, and the front and back of the left arm. What is the BSA?

A

The chest and abdomen is 18% plus the left arm at 9%.

The total BSA is: 18 + 9 = 27%

33
Q

List the types of burns.

A
  • thermal
  • electrical
  • chemical
  • radiation
34
Q

Why should we evaluate the severe burn patient’s airway?

A

The patient may have inhaled heat causing swelling of the airway tissues and/or inhaled chemicals/toxins from the burn.

35
Q

How long should we irrigate chemical eye exposures?

A

No less than 20 minutes with copious amounts of saline.

36
Q

Differentiate primary (direct) injury and secondary (indirect) injury.

A
  • Primary Injury: is the actual direct damages to tissues from the force/contact.
  • Secondary Injury: is the additional damages done to the tissues from the direct impact. For instance swelling, ischemia, infection.
37
Q

What are the anticipated/potential signs/symptoms of a patient who has been hit in the occipital region of the skull with a baseball bat?

A
  • battle signs
  • racoon eyes
  • basilar skull fracture
  • cervical spine injury
  • traumatic brain injury
  • paralysis
38
Q

Name the layer of meninges that is very thin and delicate and is adhered to the contours of the brain and spinal cord.

A

pia mater

Other meningeal layers are the arachnoid and the dura mater.

39
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of a concussion?

A
  • dizziness
  • generalized weakness
  • bisual disturbances (“sees stars”)
  • retrograde and/or anterograde amnesia
  • nausea/vomiting
  • Approximately 90% of patients will not have suffered a loss of conciousness.
40
Q

Define:

Cushing’s reflex/triad

A

It may develop from a closed head injury. The combination of the three are signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP).

  • hypertension
  • bradycardia
  • normal, or altered respiratory pattern
41
Q

What are CSMs in relation to potential neurological trauma?

A

Circulation, Sensation, and Movement: it is a quick assessment if neurological trauma is suspected.

42
Q

Define:

Paresthesia

A

It would be described by a patient with potential neurological trauma as pins and needles, numbness, or tingling in their hands and/or feet.

43
Q

True or false.

When providing cervical spine precautions by immobilization, the chest, pelvis then feet should be immobilized before securing the patient’s head to the device.

A

True

44
Q

Fill in the blank.

An injury or damage to a patient’s cervical spine at C-3 or above will cause the patient to ________ _________.

A

stop breathing

C-3 and above damage will cause the patient’s diaphragm to no longer contract causing the patient to stop breathing.

45
Q

Upon palpation of the patient’s chest, what is the term used when you feel the sensation of bones rubbing together under the skin?

A

crepitus

46
Q

Why would patients with chest wall injuries have tachypnea (rapid/shallow breathing)?

A

Adequate chest wall expansion will cause pain and possibly further damage to the chest wall. Patients will compensate with tachypnea.

47
Q

What is the chest wall motion called when there is a flail segment?

A

Paradoxical Movement/motion

48
Q

When assessing a patient’s chest for DCAP-BTLS, we note a sucking chest wound. What is our first treatment?

A

Place a gloved hand over the wound and hold until an occlusive dressing can be placed.

49
Q

What is the term used when describing the attached picture?

A

Pneumothorax

If jugular venous distention (JVD) and hypotension are present with this injury, it would be called a tension pneumothorax.

50
Q

If a pneumothorax means air in the pleural space(s), what do we call blood in the pleural space?

A

Hemopneumothorax

51
Q

Where does the blood/fluid collect on a patient suffering from expected cardiac tamponade?

A

Blood/fluid fills the pericardial sac inhibiting the heart’s capability of filling and contracting.

52
Q

What are the types of fractures?

A
  • Greenstick
  • Oblique
  • Spiral
  • Transverse
  • Comminuted
  • Epiphyseal
53
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of a closed fracture?

A
  • deformity/swelling
  • tenderness
  • guarding
  • bruising
  • pain
  • crepitus
54
Q

True or false.

Dislocations should be reduced before splinting.

A

False

55
Q

Differentiate sprain from strain.

A
  • Sprain: when a joint extends outside of its normal range of motion, resulting in a stretched or torn ligament and/or tendon.
  • Strain: it is the stretching and/or tearing of a muscle.
56
Q

What is the treatment for an amputated part?

A

Wrap the part in a sterile dressing and place it in a plastic bag. Local protocol will determine ice or no ice.

57
Q

When preparing to apply a splint, what assessment should be done before and after application?

A

Assess for circulation, sensation, and movement (CSM) before and after applying a splint.

58
Q

What joints should be immobilized when splinting an injury?

A

Immobilize the joints above and below the injury

59
Q

Shortening of the leg and medial or lateral rotation is most likely a sign of what injury?

A

hip fracture or dislocation

60
Q

What are the downfalls of inadequate/improper splinting?

A
  • pressure on the nerves, vasculature, and tissues
  • time delay- when possible, splinting should be done while en route to a hospital
  • inhibition of distal circulation
  • further damage to the initial injury
61
Q

List the mechanisms of heat loss.

A
  • convection
  • conduction
  • respiration
  • radiation
  • evaporation
62
Q

With a patient suffering from severe hypothermia, what would their level of consciousness be?

A

unconscious/unresponsive and possibly dead

63
Q

True or false.

Warm water with a brisk rubbing should be applied to deep frost-bitten fingers and toes immediately.

A

False

64
Q

What cooling mechanism will stop when a patient has progressed from heat exhaustion to heatstroke?

A

sweating

65
Q

What is the first treatment priority when treating a patient suffering from extreme heat exposure?

A

Safely remove them from the heated environment.

66
Q

Define:

Diving Reflex

A

It is when the heart rate slows down due to cold water exposure/immersion.

67
Q

What is the medical term for the condition commonly referred to as “the bends”?

A

“The bends” is a lay term for decompression sickness.

This condition occurs when divers ascend too quickly, causing nitrogen gas to form bubbles in the bloodstream and other tissues.

68
Q

What is the definitive treatment for a patient with severe decompression sickness?

A

Hyperbaric Oxygen Chamber Therapy

(HBO)

69
Q

What do the acronyms HAPE and HACE stand for?

A
  • HAPE: High Altitude Pulmonary Edema
  • HACE: High Altitude Cerebral Edema
70
Q

The treatments for patients suffering from Acute Mountain Sickness (High Altitude Sickness), HAPE and/or HACE?

A
  • high flow oxygen
  • positive pressure ventilation (PPV) as needed
  • immediate and rapid descent in altitude
71
Q

In what environmental emergency situation do we consider reverse triage?

A

Lightning strikes with multiple patients.

72
Q

Describe:

How a Hymenoptera stinger is removed from the skin?

A

Using a driver’s licence or a credit card, scrape the stinger away from the body/skin to avoid injecting the venom sac. Watch for signs of anaphylaxis.

NREMT® EMT (10 decks)

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