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NREMT® EMT > Component 8: Care for the Trauma Patient > Flashcards

Component 8: Care for the Trauma Patient Flashcards

A review of common injuries, treatments, and the NREMT Management of the Trauma Patient skill sheet as well as NREMT Splinting and NREMT Bleeding Control skill sheets.

1
Q

What is this?

Every object in a uniform motion will remain in that state of motion unless an external force acts upon it.

A

Newton’s First Law - Law of Inertia

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2
Q

What is this?

Force equals mass times acceleration
f(t) = ma(t)

A

Newton’s Second Law

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3
Q

What is this?

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

A

Newton’s Third Law

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4
Q

What is the equation for kinetic energy?

A

Kinetic energy equals one half mass times the velocity squared

KE = 1/2 mv 2

Mass X acceleration = force = mass X deceleration

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5
Q

List:

Types of motor vehicle collisions (MVCs)

A

Types of MVCs:

  • Frontal
  • Rear
  • Rotational
  • Rollover
  • Lateral
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6
Q

What are the two types of injuries resulting from force(s) being exerted on the human body?

A

Penetrating and blunt force(s)

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7
Q

What are the terms profile, tumble, and fragmentation used to describe?

A

Ballistics

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8
Q

True or False

Every gunshot victim will have exit wounds.

A

False

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9
Q

Define:

Index of Suspicion

A

Index of Suspicion means

  • maintaining a heightened awareness of surroundings and safety.
  • Also, as potential patient injuries or illnesses that may not have yet presented with signs and symptoms or have developed.
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10
Q

Which phase of a blast would result in ruptured eardrums, eye hemorrhage, and possibly abdominal hemorrhage and/or perforation?

A

Primary blast, or phase one

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11
Q

During the tertiary phase of a blast, what happens to the body?

A

The body is lifted, tossed, and/or thrown.

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12
Q

True or False

Understanding and evaluating the forces or mechanisms of injury to our patients will help us to provide quality patient care.

A

True

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13
Q

Which level of trauma facility is best for the treatment and care of a patient suffering multiple systems trauma?

A

Level I Trauma

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14
Q

Differentiate:

Capillary bleeding
Venous bleeding
Arterial bleeding

A

Capillary Bleeding: Slow, oozing, dark red in color

Venous Bleeding: Steady flow, not as dark in color as capillary bleeding, although still darker than arterial bleeding

Arterial Bleeding: Spurts consistent with the patient’s pulse and bright red in color

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15
Q

True or False

When blunt force trauma is applied, it is imperative to maintain a high index of suspicion of internal bleeding.

A

True

Whether or not the patient initially presents with any signs/symptoms. Also, keep a high index that hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock will develop.

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16
Q

List:

Signs/symptoms of hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock for a patient suspected of having internal bleeding

A

Hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock from internal bleeding:

  • Dry mouth
  • Tachycardia and thready pulse
  • Anxiety
  • Clammy skin
  • Delayed capillary refill
  • Progressive drop in blood pressure
  • Lethargy or altered mental status potentially progressing to unconsciousness
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17
Q

Fill in the blank(s)

Prior to applying a tourniquet for bleeding control, we should _________ __________ _________.

A

apply direct pressure

If bleeding does not become controlled, apply a tourniquet.

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18
Q

Fill in the blank(s)

When applying a tourniquet, we tighten and twist until ________ _________ ________.

A

the bleeding stops

To learn more click here

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19
Q

Define:

Epistaxis

A

Epistaxis is the medical term for a nose bleed.

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20
Q

True or False

Ecchymosis is another medical term for a contusion or bruise.

A

True

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21
Q

What are the two layers of the skin that are on top of the subcutaneous tissue?

A

Epidermis and Dermis

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22
Q

List:

Types of closed soft-tissue injuries

A

Closed soft-tissue injuries:

  • Contusion
  • Hematoma
  • Compartment syndrome
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23
Q

Are abrasions, lacerations, and penetrating wounds considered to be open or closed?

A

Open

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24
Q

Which position, if possible, should the flap of an avulsed tissue be placed?

A

Return it to the place it was torn from.

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25
Q

Why should the application of a splint be considered for open or closed soft-tissue injuries?

A

Depending on the mechanism of injury and the forces causing the injury, there may be musculoskeletal damage as well. Splints may also provide for additional patient comfort.

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26
Q

When treating a soft-tissue injury, we may use the mnemonic RICES. What does RICES stand for?

A

Mnemonic RICES

R - Rest
I - Ice
C- Compression
E - Elevation
S - Splinting

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27
Q

What open abdominal injury should a moist sterile dressing secured with an occlusive dressing be applied?

A

Abdominal evisceration

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28
Q

When are the two times an impaled object can be removed?

A

An impaled object can be removed only when:

  1. The object interferes with airway management
  2. Performing CPR

Otherwise, stabilize in place and transport.

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29
Q

Why should an occlusive dressing be applied to a patient with an open, bleeding, anterior/lateral neck laceration?

A

The application will prevent an air embolism or particulates from being sucked into an open neck wound.

30
Q

What layer(s) of the skin are involved in a 2o or partial thickness burn?

A

The epidermis and dermis.

31
Q

True or False

It is best practice to place a burn sheet over a patient suffering moderate or severe burns with a large body surface area (BSA) affected.

A

True

32
Q

Using the rule of nines, calculate the percentage of body surface area (BSA) burnt:
The adult patient has partial and full-thickness burns to their anterior chest, abdomen, and the front and back of the left arm. What is the BSA?

A

The chest and abdomen equal 18% plus the left arm at 9%. The total BSA is 18 + 9 = 27%

33
Q

List:

Types of burns

A

Types of burns:

  • Thermal
  • Electrical
  • Chemical
  • Radiation
34
Q

Why should we evaluate the severe burn patient’s airway?

A

The patient may have inhaled heat causing swelling of the airway tissues and/or inhaled chemicals/toxins from the burn.

35
Q

How long should we irrigate chemical eye exposures?

A

No less than 20 minutes with copious amounts of saline.

36
Q

Differentiate:

Primary (direct) injury and Secondary (indirect) injury

A

Primary Injury: is the actual direct damages to tissues from the force/contact.

Secondary Injury: is the additional damages done to the tissues from the direct impact. For instance swelling, ischemia, infection.

37
Q

List

Anticipated/potential signs/symptoms of a patient who has been hit in the occipital region of the skull with a baseball bat

A

Occipital injury signs:

  • Battle signs
  • Racoon eyes
  • Basilar skull fracture
  • Cervical spine injury
  • Traumatic brain injury
  • Paralysis
38
Q

Name the layer of meninges that is very thin and delicate and is adhered to the contours of the brain and spinal cord.

A

The pia mater

Other meningeal layers are the arachnoid and the dura mater.

39
Q

List:

Signs/symptoms of a concussion

A

Concussion Signs/Symptoms:

  • Dizzyness
  • Generalized weakness
  • Visual disturbances (“sees stars”)
  • Retrograde and/or anterograde amnesia
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Approximately 90% of patients will NOT have suffered a loss of conciousness
40
Q

Define:

Cushing’s Reflex/Triad

A

Cushing’s reflex or triad may develop from a closed head injury. The combination of the three are signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP).

  • Hypertension
  • Bradycardia
  • Normal, or altered respiratory pattern
41
Q

What are CSMs in relation to potential neurological trauma?

A

Circulation, Sensation, and Movement (CSM) is a quick assessment if neurological trauma is suspected.

42
Q

Define:

Paresthesia

A

Paresthesia would be described by a patient with potential neurological trauma as pins and needles, numbness, or tingling in their hands and/or feet.

43
Q

True or False

When providing cervical spine precautions by immobilization, the chest, pelvis then feet should be immobilized before securing the patient’s head to the device.

A

True

44
Q

Fill in the blank(s)

An injury or damage to a patient’s cervical spine at C-3 or above will cause the patient to ________ _________.

A

Stop breathing.

C-3 and above damage will cause the patient’s diaphragm to no longer contract causing the patient to stop breathing.

45
Q

Upon palpation of the patient’s chest, what is the term used when you feel the sensation of bones rubbing together under the skin?

A

Crepitus

46
Q

Why would patients with chest wall injuries have tachypnea (rapid/shallow breathing)?

A

Adequate chest wall expansion will cause pain and possibly further damage to the chest wall. Patients will compensate with tachypnea.

47
Q

What is the chest wall motion called when there is a flail segment?

A

Paradoxical Movement/motion

48
Q

When assessing a patient’s chest for DCAP-BTLS, we note a sucking chest wound. What is our first treatment?

A

Place a gloved hand over the wound and hold until an occlusive dressing can be placed.

49
Q

What is the term used when describing the attached picture?

A

Pneumothorax

If jugular venous distention (JVD) and hypotension are present with this injury, it would be called a tension pneumothorax.

50
Q

If a pneumothorax means air in the pleural space(s), what do we call blood in the pleural space?

A

Hemopneumothorax

51
Q

Where does the blood/fluid collect on a patient suffering from expected cardiac tamponade?

A

Blood/fluid fills the pericardial sac inhibiting the heart’s capability of filling and contracting.

52
Q

List:

Types of fractures

A

Types of Fractures:

  • Greenstick
  • Oblique
  • Spiral
  • Transverse
  • Comminuted
  • Epiphyseal
53
Q

List:

Signs/symptoms of a closed fracture

A

Signs/symptoms of a closed fracture:

  • Deformity/swelling
  • Tenderness
  • Guarding
  • Bruising
  • Pain
  • Crepitus
54
Q

True or False

Dislocations should be reduced before splinting.

A

False

55
Q

Differentiate:

Sprain from strain

A

Sprain: When a joint extends outside of its normal range of motion, resulting in a stretched or torn ligament and/or tendon.

Strain: Is the stretching and/or tearing of a muscle.

56
Q

What is the treatment for an amputated part?

A

Wrap the part in a sterile dressing and place it in a plastic bag. Local protocol will determine ice or no ice.

57
Q

When preparing to apply a splint, what assessment should be done before and after application?

A

Assess for circulation, sensation, and movement (CSM) before and after applying a splint.

58
Q

What joints should be immobilized when splinting an injury?

A

Immobilize the joints above and below the injury

59
Q

Shortening of the leg and medial or lateral rotation is most likely a sign of what injury?

A

Hip fracture or dislocation

60
Q

List:

Downfalls of inadequate/improper splinting

A

Inadequate/Improper Splinting Downfalls:

  • Pressure on the nerves, vasculature, and tissues
  • Time delay- when possible, splinting should be done while en route to a hospital
  • Inhibition of distal circulation
  • Further damage to the initial injury
61
Q

List:

Mechanisms of heat loss

A

Heat Loss Mechanisms:

  • Convection
  • Conduction
  • Respiration
  • Radiation
  • Evaporation
62
Q

With a patient suffering from severe hypothermia, what would their level of consciousness be?

A

Unconscious/Unresponsive and possibly dead.

63
Q

True or False

Warm water with a brisk rubbing should be applied to deep frost-bitten fingers and toes immediately.

A

False

64
Q

What cooling mechanism will stop when a patient has progressed from heat exhaustion to heatstroke?

A

Sweating

65
Q

What is the first treatment priority when treating a patient suffering from extreme heat exposure?

A

Safely remove them from the heated environment.

66
Q

Define:

Diving Reflex

A

The diving reflex is when the heart rate slows down due to cold water exposure/immersion.

67
Q

What is the medical term for a patient that is suffering from “the bends”?

A

“The bends” is a lay term for patients suffering from decompression sickness. When divers ascend too quickly, nitrogen gas will form bubbles in their vasculature and other tissues.

68
Q

What is the definitive treatment for a patient with severe decompression sickness?

A

Hyperbaric Oxygen (HBO) Chamber Therapy

69
Q

What do the acronyms HAPE and HACE stand for?

A

HAPE: High Altitude Pulmonary Edema

HACE: High Altitude Cerebral Edema

70
Q

The treatments for patients suffering from Acute Mountain Sickness (High Altitude Sickness), HAPE and/or HACE?

A
  • High flow oxygen
  • Positive pressure ventilation (PPV) as needed
  • Immediate and rapid descent in altitude
71
Q

In what environmental emergency situation do we consider reverse triage?

A

Lightning strikes with multiple patients.

72
Q

Describe:

How a Hymenoptera stinger is removed from the skin?

A

Using a driver’s licence or a credit card, scrape the stinger away from the body/skin to avoid injecting the venom sac. Watch for signs of anaphylaxis.

NREMT® EMT (10 decks)

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