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NREMT® EMT > Component 1: Preliminary EMT > Flashcards

Component 1: Preliminary EMT Flashcards

This deck will cover EMS history, well-being, medical/legal/ethical, death/dying, communication/documentation, terminology, and anatomy/physiology.

1
Q

Define

Proximate Causation

A

Proximate Causation is when you are negligent and your breach is the most direct cause of the damages to the patient.

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2
Q

List:

The four levels of NREMT certification.

A

The four levels of NREMT certification are:

  • EMR (Emergency Medical Responder)
  • EMT (Emergency Medical Technician)
  • AEMT (Advanced Emergency Medical Technician)
  • Paramedic
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3
Q

List:

Three obvious signs of death.

A

Three obvious signs of death are:

  • Dependent Lividity
  • Rigor Mortis
  • Putrefaction
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4
Q

Fill in the blank

Advance Directives include ________________.

A

DNRs (Do Not Resuscitate)

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5
Q

Fill in the blank

HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) considers all patient information to be ______________?

A

Protected Health Information (PHI)

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6
Q

What legal aspect needs to be intact for a patient to refuse any form of treatment or transport?

A

The patient must be determined as competent meaning their decision-making capacity is intact.

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7
Q

True or False:

The FCC (Federal Communications Commission) created the first EMT curriculum in the early 1970s.

A

False

The Department of Transportation (DOT) created the first EMT curriculum.

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8
Q

What was the original published name of the “White Paper”?

A

The “White Paper” was originally published as the Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.

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9
Q

What does the “White Paper” allow for?

A

The NHTSA (National Highway Transportation Act) of the DOT (Department of Transportation) created the EMS Development Act which allowed for funding and development of EMS services

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10
Q

List:

The three hierarchies of the National EMS Scope of Practice.

A

The three hierarchies of the EMS Scope of Practice are:

  • Medical Direction
  • State EMS Offices
  • National EMS Scope of Practice Model
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11
Q

Which consent is applied when the patient is unconscious and unresponsive?

A

Implied Consent

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12
Q

Quality Control and Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) exist under which component of the EMS Agenda for the Future Components?

A

Evaluation

Quality Control and Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) exist under the Evaluation component of the EMS Agenda for the Future Components.

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13
Q

List:

The six bars of the Star of Life.

A

Star of Life:

  • Detection
  • Reporting
  • Response
  • On-scene care
  • Care in transit
  • Transfer to definitive care
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14
Q

What is the EMTs’ first and ongoing responsibility on every scene?

A

Safety

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15
Q

Stressors from work, home, family, and finances are examples of which type of stress?

A

Cumulative

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16
Q

What are the three types of stressors?

A

Acute, Delayed and Cumulative

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17
Q

True or False

Correct handwashing is the best way to resist infectious diseases.

A

True

Wash hands with warm water and soap for a minimum of 20 seconds.

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18
Q

What are the 5 stages of grief?

A

Five Stages of Grief in Response to Death and Dying

  • Denial
  • Anger
  • Bargaining
  • Depression
  • Acceptance
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19
Q

The spouse of the patient has just been informed that the patient has died, and they respond by slamming furniture and punching the wall.

Which stage of grief is the spouse demonstrating?

A

Anger

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20
Q

True or False

Bargaining will present first when someone is suffering one of the five stages of grief?

A

False

When a person processes death, there is no specific order. For instance: Someone that dies from a long-term illness and in extensive pain, the loved one(s) may respond with acceptance. Another person may respond with anger and be angry for a considerable time.

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21
Q

Whose signatures must be on a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) form?

A
  • A doctor,
  • the power of attorney for the patient,
  • and/or the patient.
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22
Q

Fill in the blank

A patient care report (PCR) is protected by ______________?

A

HIPAA (Health Insurance Privacy and Accountability Act)

A Patient Care Report is also considered to be PHI (Protected Health Information).

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23
Q

Open or Closed Communication

Which seems to be the problem today?

A

Open Communication

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24
Q

List:

Five special populations that would require additional considerations during communication.

A

Five special populations needing additional communication considerations are:

  • Elderly
  • Pediatric
  • Hearing Impaired
  • Visually Impaired
  • Language Barriers
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25
Q

Why does the National Emergency Medical Services Information System (NEMSIS) collect information from prehospital or patient care reports (PCR)?

A

Research

Go to EMS Gov for additional research information

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26
Q

List

The five components of documentation using the CHART Method.

A

CHART

C - Chief Complaint/Complaining of
H - History of event/pertinent medical
A - Assessment
R - R (RX) treatment plan
T - Transport

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27
Q

True or False

Documentation of patient care provides for continuity of patient care and is a legal document.

A

True

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28
Q

The following is a list of information that is documented in what section of a patient care report (PCR)?

  • Times of procedures
  • Physical and patient historical findings
  • Care provided
  • Patient responses or changes
  • Scene observations
  • Patient disposition
  • Refusal considerations
  • Staff person(s) name that received patient
A

Narrative

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29
Q

You have written incorrect information on a paper patient care report (PCR). What should you do?

A

Draw a single line through the error and write your initials next to it.

30
Q

Fill in the blank

If information was accidentally not recorded on the patient care report (PCR), the EMT should submit a(n)_________.

A

Addendum

31
Q

True or False

When providing patient care and documenting, it is acceptable to estimate vital signs after a baseline set has been taken.

A

False

32
Q

Define:

Base station

A

The base station is any radio equipment containing a receiver and transmitter that is located in a fixed space, typically placed in the cab of an ambulance.

33
Q

Either/Or

A repeater will repeat any information you speak into it or intensify a signal on a second frequency.

A

A repeater-based system will intensify a signal on a second frequency.

34
Q

Which agency is responsible for licensing base stations and assigning appropriate call signs for those stations?

A

Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

35
Q

List:

The six contacts with dispatch when responding to a call.

A

​ Six dispatch contacts

  1. Receiving call information
  2. En route to the call
  3. On scene
  4. Transport
  5. Arrival at the hospital or receiving facility
  6. Return to service
36
Q

Either/Or

Which report should be more detailed in communicating patient care and transport information? The radio call-in or the patient handoff report?

A

The patient handoff report

37
Q

Fill in the blank(s)

The act of providing care for a patient who is competently refusing care is called ________.

A

Battery

38
Q

You have stopped at a motor vehicle collision that you have witnessed while off duty. The occupant has been ejected and is found to be pulseless and apneic. You initiate CPR with gloves and a face shield. Upon EMS arrival, the patient is pronounced dead.

You and the care you provided is protected by what law?

A

Good Samaritan Law

39
Q

Fill in the blank(s)

An EMT’s Scope of Practice is commonly defined by _______ and __________.

A

Scope of Practice is commonly defined by the State the EMT is certified in and Medical Directors.

40
Q

Define:

Expressed Consent

A

Expressed Consent is explaining the medical possibilities and potential treatment to a patient, and they allow you to provide care and transport.

41
Q

List:

Three strategies that improve therapeutic communications.

A

Therapeutic Communications

  1. Eye contact (gentle)
  2. Body language including facial expressions
  3. Voice tempo and volume
42
Q

True or False

It is unnecessary to complete a patient care report (PCR) including vital signs for a patient who is competent to refuse treatment and transport.

A

False

All patient contacts require a completed patient care report (PCR) including times and run (trip) numbers.

43
Q

What are written standards of care and allowable treatments called?

A

Standing Orders or Protocols

44
Q

List:

Three examples of Administrative Information found on a patient care report (PCR).

A

Administrative Information

  1. Any information provided for billing
  2. Equipment and disposables used
  3. Run times and mileage
45
Q

List:

Four components that make up medical terms.

A

Medical term components

  1. Word root
  2. Prefix
  3. Suffix
  4. Combining vowels
46
Q

True or False

The most common combining vowel in medical terminology is the letter A (a).

A

False

The most common combining vowel in medical terminology is the letter O (o).

47
Q

What is a concern when using abbreviations?

A

Using abbreviations correctly or incorrectly may cause confusion or errors leading to inaccurate patient care.

48
Q

Deconstruct

Hyperemesis

A

Hyper/emesis
hyper - (prefix meaning “excessive”)
emesis - (root word meaning “vomiting”)
hyperemesis = excessive vomiting

49
Q

Deconstruct

Asymptomatic

A

A/symptom/a/tic
a - (prefix meaning “absent” or “without”)
symptom - (word root meaning “occurrence” or “patient complaint”
a - connecting vowel
t(ic) -(suffix meaning “pertaining to”)
asymptomatic = the absence of symptoms or complaints of symptoms

50
Q

Deconstruct

Abdominopelvic cavity

A

Abdomin/o/pelvic cavity
abdomin - (root word meaning “abdomen”)
o - combining vowel
pelvic - (root word meaning “pelvis”)
cavity - “an unfilled space within a mass”

51
Q

What is the abbreviation for hypertension?

A

HTN

52
Q

Describe:

Anatomical Position

A

Anatomical Position is a person facing forward with arms at their side, palms forward.

53
Q

Describe:

Coronal Plane

A

The Coronal Plane (frontal) is the imaginary line dividing the body into the front (anterior) and back (posterior) planes.

54
Q

At what anatomical landmark, does the transverse or axial plane separate the top from the bottom body portions?

A

The transverse or axial plane is an imaginary line horizontally through the umbilicus.

55
Q

Differentiate:

Ligaments and tendons

A

Ligaments connect bone(s) to bone(s)

Tendonsconnectmuscle to bone(s)

56
Q

Labeling

Refer to the attached picture and label the skeleton from top left down to top right down.

A
  1. Cranium/Skull
  2. Shoulder Girdle/Clavicle
  3. Humerus
  4. Pelvis
  5. Femur
  6. Patella
  7. Tarsels
  8. Cervical Vertebrae
  9. Ribs/Intercostal Spaces
  10. Sternum
  11. Radius
  12. Ulna
  13. Tibia
  14. Fibula
57
Q

List:

Facial bones of the cranium.

A

Facial Bones of the Cranium

  • Frontal
  • Nasal bone (cartilage)
  • Zygomatic (cheek bone)
  • Maxilla (upper jaw)
  • Mandible (lower jaw)
58
Q

From the top of the spine to the bottom, what are the vertebrae named and how many are there?

A
  • Cervical (C1 thru C7)
  • Thoracic (T1 thru T12)
  • Lumbar (L1 thru L5)
  • Sacral (S1 thru S5)
  • Coccyx (fused)
59
Q

True or False

The Appendicular Skeleton includes joints and extremities.

A

True

60
Q

Differentiate:

Flexion and extension

A

Flexion is the movement of bending.

Extension in the movement of straightening.

61
Q

What are two examples of a ball and socket joint?

A

The hip and shoulder girdle.

62
Q

List:

Three bones of the shoulder girdle.

A

Shoulder Girdle

  • Clavicle
  • Scapula
  • Humerus
63
Q

True or False

The greater trochanter and lesser trochanter are anchor points of the femur.

A

True

The greater and lesser trochanter are located at the proximal portion of the femur.

64
Q

True or False

The index phalange is distal to the ulna.

A

True

65
Q

List:

Three types of muscles and whether they are voluntary or involuntary.

A

Types of Muscles

  • Skeletal (voluntary)
  • Smooth (involuntary)
  • Cardiac (involuntary)
66
Q

What are common phrases when referring to the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems?

A

Sympathetic Autonomic Nervous System: Fight, Flight or Freeze

Parasympathetic Autonomic Nervous System: Rest and Digest

67
Q

What does the sagittal plane divide the body into?

A

Right/left and medial/lateral

68
Q

What body plane divides the body into Inferior/Superior?

A

Transverse plane

69
Q

Following the path of digestion, starting at the mouth. List the organs the chyme passes through.

A

Path of Digestion

  1. Mouth
  2. Esophagus
  3. Stomach
  4. Small intestine
  5. Large intestine
  6. Recturm
70
Q

What is the function of the gallbladder?

A

The gallbladder stores bile produced from the liver and delivers the bile into the small intestine to break down fatty food.

71
Q

What are the two components that make up the central nervous system (CNS)?

A

The CNS consists of the brain and spinal cord.

72
Q

Differentiate:

Anatomy and Physiology

A

Anatomy identifies structures of organs and tissues.

Physiology is the study of body functions.

NREMT® EMT (10 decks)

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