Component 6: Basic Life Support (CPR) Review Flashcards

A review of CPR and AED skills.

1
Q

List the five links in the American Heart Association (AHA) chain of survival.

A
  1. Early arrest recognition and Emergency Medical Services (EMS) activation
  2. Immediate high-quality Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)
  3. Rapid defibrillation if indicated
  4. Basic and Advanced Emergency Medical Services (EMS)
  5. Advanced Life Support (ALS) and post-resuscitation care
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2
Q

What does the acronym ROSC mean?

A

Return of Spontaneous Circulation

(ROSC)

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3
Q

List the special considerations to evaluate before placing the Automatic Electronic Defibrillator.

(AED)

A
  • Check for the presence of pacemakers or implanted defibrillators.
  • Ensure the patient is not in water or excessively wet.
  • Remove any transdermal medication patches if present.
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4
Q

When providing adult CPR, what is the range of compressions we should attain every minute?

A

100 to 120 per minute

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5
Q

Fill in the blank.

When providing adult CPR, our depth of compression should be at least ___ _______ in depth.

A

2 inches

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6
Q

List the potential complications of chest compressions.

A
  • rib or sternum fractures
  • lacerated liver
  • fatigue experienced by the provider
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7
Q

Describe:

The correct hand placement (adult) for providing chest compressions.

A
  • Place the heel of the hand in the center of the chest on the lower half of the sternum.
  • Place the heel of your other hand directly on top of the first.
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8
Q

True or false.

When performing chest compressions, it is unnecessary to allow for complete chest recoil before initiating another compression.

A

False

Compression depth and recoil should be equal

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9
Q

True or false.

The highest quality chest compressions will only circulate one-third blood of a normally functioning heart.

A

True

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10
Q

When doing our initial assessment of a patient we suspect is in cardiac arrest, we tap the patient and shout “Hey, are you OK?”. What two other signs should we be evaluating?

A

Our initial assessment should also include:

  • assessing for the presence of a pulse
  • assess effort of breathing
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11
Q

How long should our initial assessment and future pulse checks last?

A

No longer than 10 seconds.

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12
Q

What position should the head be placed for proper artificial ventilation?

A

Head tilt - chin lift or a jaw-thrust

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13
Q

Why should the individual providing chest compressions be switched out every two minutes?

A

To help in preventing provider fatigue and continue high-quality compressions.

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14
Q

What is the compression to ventilation rate for adult, two-provider CPR?

A

30 chest compressions - 2 ventilations

30:2

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15
Q

After how many minutes and approximate cycles of compression/ventilation (adult) should we assess for the presence of a pulse and effort of breathing?

A

Approximately 5 cycles and 5 minutes assess for a pulse and effort of breathing.

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16
Q

What pulse point is used in assessing a pulse on an infant?

A

Brachial

17
Q

What is it called when air fills the stomach from the pressure and volume during artificial ventilation?

A

Gastric Distention

18
Q

What is the percentage of time in which chest compressions are being performed called?

A

Chest Compression Fraction

19
Q

True or false.

The studies and science of providing CPR state that pausing compressions for placement of the AED pads is acceptable.

A

False

20
Q

At what rate should rescue breathing of an infant and prepubescent children, without an advanced airway, be provided?

A

1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds (12 to 20 breaths per minute)

21
Q

You are providing chest compressions and back blows for a 4-month-old choking baby. The attempts at ventilations are unsuccessful. What should be done?

A

Continue with chest compressions and back blows until the foreign body airway obstruction (FBAO) is dislodged, re-evaluate and transport.

22
Q

True or false.

When providing one-person infant CPR, our hands should encircle the body with our thumbs placed on the sternum.

A

False

One-person infant CPR hand placement should be two fingers placed on the middle of the infant’s sternum, just below the nipple line. Encircling the infant and using our thumbs for compressions is for two-person CPR.

23
Q

What is the depth of chest compression when providing child CPR?

A

Depth should be one-third (approximately 2 inches) of the anterior-posterior circumference of the chest wall.

24
Q

True or false.

Providing chest compressions over the patient’s xiphoid process has no potential for harm.

A

False

We could potentially fracture the xiphoid causing penetration to internal organs.

25
Q

When referring to CPR, what is the STOP mnemonic?

A
  • The patient demonstrates the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
  • Patient care has been transferred to an equal or higher level provider.
  • You are out of strength and can no longer continue resuscitation efforts.
  • A physician directs you to discontinue CPR
26
Q

True or false.

We should perform an abdominal thrust maneuver when the patient is coughing and muttering that they are choking.

A

False

This is a mild airway obstruction, we should encourage the patient to continue to cough.

27
Q

How many back slaps/blows and chest thrusts should we provide to dislodge a foreign body airway obstructed (FBAO) infant?

A

5 and 5

Five back blows, rotate the infant, and administer five chest thrusts until the obstruction is removed or ventilations are successful.

28
Q

Describe:

recovery position

A

Placing the patient upon their side, with a bent upper leg.

29
Q

What is the indication for the application and use of an AED?

A

The patient is pulseless and apneic.

30
Q

True or false.

When using an AED on an infant or child, it is preferred to use pediatric pads and the AED has a dose attenuating system.

A

True

Pediatric pads will be more accurate as far as placement and body surface area covered and the attenuator will reduce the amount of energy discharged.

31
Q

List the patient presentations that CPR would not be initiated.

A

Withholding CPR:

  • Dependant lividity
  • Rigor mortis
  • Decapitation
  • Critical burns over 90% BSA
  • Decomposition
  • Trauma (head) inconsistent with life