Communicable Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Difference between infectious and contagious disease

A

Infectious disease needs prolonged exposure/contact to be transmitted while contagious can be easily transmitted to one person to another

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2
Q

Infectious disease

A

Prolonged exposure/contact to be transmitted and needs a break in the skin before entering the body

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3
Q

Contagious disease

A

easily transmitted disease via airborne or droplet

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4
Q

CHAIN OF INFECTION MNEMONIC

A

SHARE ME

Susceptible Host

Agent
Reservoir (home of agent)
Exit

Mode of Transmission
Entry

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5
Q

What is the weakest link in the chain of infection

A

Mode of transmission (can be broken with the use of proper handwashing and use of PPE)

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6
Q

Common PPE’s

A

Face mask, gloves, goggles, face shield

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7
Q

Different Modes of Transmission

A

Direct
Droplet

Indirect
Airborne
Vector
Vehicle

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8
Q

Another name for Pertussis

A

Whooping Cough

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9
Q

Incubation Period of Pertussis

A

7-14 days

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10
Q

Causative Agent of Pertussis

A

Bordetella Pertussis

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11
Q

Mode of Transmission of Pertussis

A

Droplet and Direct Contact

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12
Q

Stages of Pertussis

A

Catarrhal Stage
Paroxysmal Stage
Convalescent Stage

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13
Q

What is the stage where Pertussis is most contagious

A

First Stage or Catarrhal Stage

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14
Q

S/Sx of the 1st Stage of Pertussis

A

Catarrhal Stage

Increased communicability
Flu-like symptoms (cough, colds and malaise)

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15
Q

S/Sx of the 2nd Stage of Pertussis

A

Paroxysmal Stage

Paroxysms of cough

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16
Q

Pathognomonic of Pertussis

A

Paroxysms of cough/Whooping Cough

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17
Q

S/Sx of the 3rd Stage of Pertussis

A

Convalescent Stage

recovery and healing

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18
Q

Medical Management for Pertussis

A
Oxygen therapy
Fluid and Electrolyte replacement
Erythromycin and Ampicillin 
Bed Rest
Gammaglobulins
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19
Q

Antibiotics for Pertussis

A

Erythromycin and Ampicillin

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20
Q

Diagnostic Tests for Pertussis

A

Swab Tests

Throat Culture

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21
Q

Difference between isolation and reverse isolation

A

isolation = people are not advised to be close to the patient (communicable diseases)
reversed isolation = patients are separated by people (immunocompromised)

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22
Q

Nursing Management for Pertussis

A
Isolation
Medical Asepsis 
Suction Machine
Sunshine and Fresh Air
Warm baths (bronchodilation)
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23
Q

Causative agent of Diphteria

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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24
Q

Incubation Period of Diphtheria

A

1-5 days

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25
Q

Mode of Transmission of Diphteria

A

Direct Contact and Soiled Articles (fomites)

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26
Q

Types of Diphtheria

A

Nasal
Nasopharyngeal
Cutaneous Diphtheria

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27
Q

Nasal Diphtheria

A

white membrane on nasal septum

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28
Q

Nasopharyngeal Diphtheria

A

BULL’S NECK

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29
Q

Most dangerous type of Diphtheria

A

Nasopharyngeal (can cause obstruction on airway)

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30
Q

Cutaneous Diphtheria

A

Yellow spots on skin

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31
Q

Pathognomonic of Diphtheria

A

Pseudomembranes

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32
Q

Another word for Hallmark Sign

A

Pathognomonic

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33
Q

Diagnostic Tests for Diphtheria

A

Throat Culture

Swab Test

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34
Q

Medical Management for Diphtheria

A
Penicillin 
Diphtheria antitoxins 
Ice collar for bull's neck
Oxygen inhalation 
Bed Rest
Tracheostomy Set on BST
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35
Q

Antibiotic for Diphtheria

A

Penicillin

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36
Q

Other names for Measles

A

Rubeola

Morbilli

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37
Q

Causative Agent of Measles

A

Rebeola Virus

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38
Q

Mode of Transmission for Measles

A

Airborne and Droplet

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39
Q

Incubation Period of Measles

A

2 weeks

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40
Q

Pathognomonic of Measles

A

Koplik’s Spots

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41
Q

Koplik’s Spot

A

inflammatory lesion in the inner cheeks or buccal mucosa

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42
Q

Stages of Measles

A

Pre-Eruptive
Eruptive
Convalescence

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43
Q

S/Sx of the 1st Stage of Measles

A

Pre-Eruptive Stage

Catarrhal symptoms (3 C’s of measles)
Cough
Colds/Coryza
Conjunctivitis (sore eyes) -> can cause photosensitivity

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44
Q

Management for photo sensitivity or photophobia

A

Dark colored glasses

Large brimmed hats/ sunvisors

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45
Q

S/Sx of the 2nd Stage of Measles

A

Eruptive Stage

Maculopapular rash and intermittent fever

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46
Q

S/Sx of the 3rd Stage of Measles

A

Convalescent Stage

subsides

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47
Q

Medical Management for Measles

A

Anti-viral = Isoprenosine
Antibiotics (Penicillin) for complications
Oxygen therapy
IV fluids (PNSS)

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48
Q

What antiviral is used with Measles

A

Isoprenosine

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49
Q

When is antibiotics used in Measles

A

when there are complications (pus in the eyes)

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50
Q

Nursing Management for Measles

A
Isolation
Quiet Room
Dim Light (for photosensitivity)
TSB
Bed bath (relieve rashes)
Increase OFI
MMR and Anti-Measles Vaccine
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51
Q

Vaccine for Measles

A

MMR

Anti-Measles Vaccine

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52
Q

Epidemiology

A

disease condition process in certain georgraphical area

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53
Q

Types of Epidemiology

A

Sporadic
Endemic
Epidemic
Pandemic

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54
Q

Sporadic

A

rare or uncommon conditions

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55
Q

Endemic

A

common and constant in the community conditions

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56
Q

Epidemic

A

Sudden outbreak or inflammation of cases in a short period of time
(MORE THAN 50% OF THE PREVIOUS CASE )

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57
Q

Pandemic

A

Worldwide (many countries are affected)

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58
Q

Incubation Period

A

number of days between when you’re infected with something and when you might see symptoms (MAS NAKAKAHAWA NA STAGE)

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59
Q

Other names for German Measles

A

Rubella

3-day Measles

60
Q

Causative Agent for German Measles

A

Rubella Virus

61
Q

Incubation period of German Measles

A

14-21 wks

62
Q

True or False: You can still acquire German Measles or Measles after being infected before

A

False

63
Q

Mode of Transmission for German Measles

A

Airborne
Droplet
Transplacental

64
Q

What happens when a mother is infected with German Measles on her 1st Trimester

A

Congenital Heart Defects on the baby

65
Q

Pathognomonic of German Measles

A

Forscheimer’s Spots

66
Q

Forscheimer’s Spots

A

Pinkish spots on the soft palate (can cause dysphagia)

67
Q

Stage of German Measles

A

Prodromal
Eruptive
Convolescent

68
Q

S/Sx of the 1st Stage of German Measles

A

Prodromal Stage

low-grade fever, mild coryza, lymphadenopathy
FLU-LIKE SYMPTOMS

69
Q

S/Sx of the 2nd Stage of German Measles

A

Eruptive Stage

Forscheimer's 
Testicular pain (young adults)
Polyarthralgia (multi joint pain)
70
Q

S/Sx of the 3rd Stage of German Measles

A

Convalescent Stage

recovery

71
Q

Medical Management for German Measles

A

Symptomatic

72
Q

Nursing Management for German Measles

A
Isolation
Dim Light
Mild liquid but nourishing diet
Good ventilation
MMR
Immune serum globulin
73
Q

Another term for Chickenpox

A

Viracella

74
Q

Causative Agent of Chickenpox

A

Herpesvirus varicellae

75
Q

Incubation period of Chickenpox

A

14-21 days

76
Q

Mode of Transmission of Chickenpox

A

direct and fomites

77
Q

Manifestations of Chickenpox

A

Rash
Macule -> papule -> vesicle (fluid filled) -> pustule (pus filled) -> crust
Celestial map (scabs/crust)

78
Q

Where does the rashes of Chickenpox usually start?

A

unexposed part - trunk (CENTRIPETAL)

79
Q

Medical Management of Chickenpox

A
Zoverax and Acyclovir 
Antihistamines
Calamine Lotion
NO to salicylates (aspirin)
Antipyretics
80
Q

What anti-viral drugs are given to patients with Chickenpox?

A

Zoverax and Acyclovir

81
Q

What are interventions to alleviate itching on Chickenpox?

A

Antihistamines and Calamine lotion

82
Q

Why is salicylates (aspirin) contraindicated with patients who have Chickenpox/flu?

A

it can cause REYES SYNDROME (severe ammonia elevation that can cause coma)

83
Q

4 A’s of Aspirin

A

Antipyretic
Antiplatelet
Analgesic
Anti inflammatory

84
Q

Nursing Management for Chickenpox

A

Respiratory isolation until vesicles have crusted!
Disinfect linens under sunlight/boiling
Cut fingernails
Use mittens on children

85
Q

True or False: Chickenpox are communicable until the last lesion has crusted

A

True

86
Q

Another term for Filariasis

A

Elephantiasis

87
Q

Causative Agent of Filariasis

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

88
Q

Mode of Transmission of Filariasis

A

Mosquito bite

89
Q

True or False: You can be infected with Filariasis with just one mosquito bite

A

False (multiple bites are needed)

90
Q

What is the vector for Filariasis?

A

Mosquito (Aedes Poecilus)

91
Q

S/Sx of Filariasis

A

Elephantiasis
Headache
Chills and Fever
Dolor, Tumor, Rubor in arms, legs and scrotum

92
Q

What is elephantiasis?

A

elarged body part

93
Q

Diagnostic test for Filariasis

A

Circulating Filarial Antigen (finger prick blood droplet)

94
Q

Medical management for Filariasis

A

Hetrazan
Surgery for scrotal enlargement
DECREASED fortified salt

95
Q

Why is fortified salt consumption decreased on patients with Filariasis?

A

it can cause water retention

96
Q

Nursing management for Filariasis

A

Sleep under a mosquito net (infused with permethrin chemical)
Use mosquito repellant (especially during dusk and dawn)

97
Q

DOH Cleaning Program

A

CLEANZ

Chemically treated mosquito net 
Larvae eating fish
Environmental Sanitation
Anti-mosquito repellant 
Neem tree
Zooprophylaxis (use of animals)
98
Q

What blood type attracts mosquitos the most?

A

Type O

99
Q

Other terms for Dengue Fever

A

Breakbone fever
Dandy fever
Infectious thrombocytopenic purpura

100
Q

Stages/Types of Dengue

A

Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever

Dengue Shock Syndrome

101
Q

What is dengue hemorrhagic fever?

A

Type of dengue that is characterized by bleeding that can cause hypovolemic shock

102
Q

What is dengue shock syndrome?

A

Type of dengue that is the most lethal form, characterized by profound shock (rapid deterioration)

103
Q

Causative agent of Dengue

A

Flaviviruses/Arboviruses

104
Q

Mode of Transmission for Dengue

A

mosquito bite

105
Q

True or False: You can be infected with dengue with just one infected mosquito bite

A

True

106
Q

Vector of Dengue

A

Mosquito (Aedes Aegypti) [HOUSE MOSQUITO]

107
Q

Incubation period of Dengue

A

2wks

108
Q

Diagnostic tests for Dengue

A

Rumpel Leeds Test/Tourniquet Test
Platelet Count
Dengue Spot Test
Dengue Ns1 (Rapid Test)

109
Q

What is the confirmatory test to diagnose Dengue?

A

Platelet count

110
Q

Criteria for Rumpel Leeds Test/Tourniquet Test

A

6 months or older
Fever greater than 3 days
No signs of dengue hemorrhagic fever

111
Q

True or False: Rumpel Leeds Test/Tourniquet test is a confirmatory test for Dengue

A

False (presumptive screening test)

112
Q

How to perform Rumpel Leeds Test/Tourniquet Test

A

Pressure midway diastolic and systolic (maintain for 5 min)

113
Q

Positive sign for Rumpel Leeds Test/Tourniquet Test

A

10 petechiae or more per square inch

114
Q

What is detected on the dengue spot test?

A

detects IgM and IgG antibodies to dengue

115
Q

What does dengue Ns1 (rapid test) do?

A

routine test to check antigen

116
Q

S/Sx of dengue fever

A
Sudden onset of fever (39-40 degrees C)
Chills
Frontal Headache
Ocular Pain
Myalgia (muscle pain)
Backache
Arthralgia (painful joints)
Nausea and vomiting
Rashes
Abdominal Pain (hepatic involvement)
117
Q

S/Sx of dengue hemorrhagic fever

A
Usually manifested by people who have been infected with dengue 2 times or more
Hemorrhagic S/Sx:
- epistaxis
- gum bleeding
- ecchymosis 
- hematemesis
- hematochezia/melena 

Herman’s Sign: skin appears purple
Hepatomegaly
Hypovolemic shock

118
Q

What is the pathognomonic of dengue hemorrhagic fever?

A

Herman’s Sign

119
Q

Complication of Dengue

A

Dengue encephalopathy that can lead to COMA

120
Q

Management for Dengue

A

Analgesics (except for aspirin)
Blood transfusion
Oxygen therapy (cerebral oxygenation)
Sedatives (for anxiety and apprehension)

121
Q

Nursing Management for Dengue

A
Recognize critical period (defervescence: fever subsides) [24-48 hrs]
Place on mosquito free environment
Increase body resistance
Monitor VS (especially BP)
Prevent and control bleeding
Soft/Bland diet
EXCEPT FOR DARK COLORED FOOD
122
Q

What does tawa tawa do for dengue patients

A

promote cell production and promote platelet production

123
Q

WHO Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever Grading Scale

A

Grade 1: NO SHOCK; (+) Tourniquet Test [butlig, lagnat]
Grade 2: NO SHOCK; Spontaneous bleeding; (+) Tourniquet Test [dudugo]
Grade 3: SHOCK [decreased BP]
Grade 4: Profound shock; unmeasurable BP [no BP]

124
Q

Other terms for Schistosomiasis

A

Bilharziasis

Snail Fever

125
Q

Causative agent of Schistosomiasis

A

Schistosoma japonicum (MOST COMMON IN THE PHIL)

126
Q

Mode of Transmission of Schistosomiasis

A

ingestion of infected water and through skin pores

127
Q

Vector of Schistosomiasis

A

Oncomelania quadrasi (SNAIL)

128
Q

Incubation period of Schistosomiasis

A

14-84 days/ >82 days

129
Q

S/Sx of Schistosomiasis

A

Swimmer’s Itch
Bloody mucoid stool
Icteric (damage in the liver)
Jaundice

130
Q

Complication of Schistosomiasis

A

Liver cirrhosis

131
Q

Diagnostic test for Schistosomiasis

A

Cercum Ova Precipetin Test (CONFIRMATORY)

- checks if there are eggs/C.A. present

132
Q

Medical Management for Schistosomiasis

A

Praziquantel (ANTIPARASITE) for 6 months

133
Q

Nursing Management for Schistosomiasis

A

Reduce Snail density

a. Expose snails in sunlight
b. Remove weeds
c. Proper irrigation
- proper waste disposal
- prevent bathing on snail infested streams

134
Q

The ability of microbe to survive out of the body/host

A

viability

135
Q

Causative Agent of Leptospirosis

A

Leptospira Interogans

136
Q

Mode of transmission of Leptospirosis

A

direct contact

137
Q

Prophylaxis for Leptospirosis

A

Doxycycline

138
Q

True or False: Patients who are recently infected with Leptospirosis can donate blood

A

False

139
Q

When a patient is allergic, what other antibiotics can be given?

A

Erythromycin/Clindamycin

140
Q

Causative agent of Poliomyelitis

A

Virus with serotypes of I, II, III (Brunhilde, Lansing, Leon)

141
Q

What medication is contraindicated with patients with Poliomyelitis

A

Opiods (morphine) (decrease RR)

142
Q

What are in the Family Nursing Care Plan?

A

APIE

Assessment
Planning
Implementation
Evaluation

143
Q

What is the 1st lvl of assessment with FCP

A

Identifying the problem using the categories of health problem

144
Q

What are the categories of health problems?

A
Wellness state (healthy)
Health deficit (+ disease, disability)
Health threat (increased risk for injuries and illness)
Foreseeable Crisis/Stress Points (anticipated problems)
145
Q

4 Criterias of Priority in planning

A

Nature of the problem (type of nursing prob)
Modification of the problem (solution of prob)
Preventive Potential (future recurrence)
Salience (perception of client about problem)

146
Q

Quality Assurance Elements of Evaluation

A

Structural Element: physical setting
Outcome Element: changes resulting from N/I
Process Element: steps of the nursing process