Comms Questions Flashcards

1
Q

111.1Mhz is a

A

ILS frequency

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2
Q

What is the time period for intial transmisision of a 406Mhz ELT?

A

.25s

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3
Q

Aircraft takes off from a 500ft elevated run way to 9500ft what is the approx max range of VHF reception

A

120 nautical miles

VHF Altitude range
1.23*(sure root of altitude in feet)

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4
Q

RNAV uses what arinc specification

A

Arinc 583

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5
Q

ILS marker lamp colours are

A

Outer blue, middle amber, inner white

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6
Q

A loop aerial has

A

2 null

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7
Q

RVR minimum for a cat 1 approach is

A

800m

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8
Q

A series tuned circuit is referred to as an ace prior circuit because

A

Current is maximum at resonance

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9
Q

I’m a class c amplifier, the transistor conducts for

A

Part of the time

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10
Q

For VHF communications freq range is

A

118 to 136 MHz with 25Khz spacing

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11
Q

Attenuation along a Hf installation co-axial feeder is due to

A

Skin effect

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12
Q

The effect of position feedback in an autopilot system ensures that the

A

Control surface returns to the beaut RAL position when the disturbance is corrected

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13
Q

Single side Andes transmission is achieved by using

A

Balanced modulator and mechanical filters

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14
Q

Glide slope transmitter operates on

A

UHF band

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15
Q

BJF and UHF makes use of the

A

Space wave

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16
Q

Audio sources for the CVR are

A

Captain, F/O, observer/ flight engineer and flight deck

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17
Q

In an aircraft equipped with mode s the sqwak code is entered

A

By the control panel

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18
Q

With radar range resolution the only possible way to discriminate separate echos is by

A

The difference in their delays is greater than the pulse width

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19
Q

111.2Mhz is

A

VOR

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20
Q

The function of the hi-Lo marker switch is to

A

Control the sensitivity of the receiver

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21
Q

The signals on a aircraft loop aerial are reproduced in the adf rx by a device known as a

A

Goniometer

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22
Q

Q-factor is a measure of

A

Voltage magnification in a series circuit

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23
Q

VOR over station sensor is activated by

A

Radio rate

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24
Q

I’m an amplifier the term stage gain means the

A

Gain of one stage only

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25
Q

The accelerometer output in a INS is

A

Interested twice to give distance

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26
Q

Typical output power of a VHF communication TX is

A

Between 25 & 40 watts

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27
Q

Decision height is the height at which a. Go around is initiatedif

A

Visual reference has not been established

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28
Q

As a transmitted frequency is reduced ionospheric penetration is

A

Reduced

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29
Q

A squelch circuit in a receiver operates the

A

Audio stage

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30
Q

When carrying out a VSWR check on a communication transmission system a satisfactory reading would be

A

2:1

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31
Q

Cockpit voice recorder provided a continuous recording of the last

A

30 minutes

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32
Q

A radars system is transmitted pulses are rated by

A

Average power

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33
Q

121.5 MHz is a

A

VHF frequency

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34
Q

112.1Mhz is

A

A VOR frequency

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35
Q

GPWS mode 2 needs

A

RA, rate of decent and aircraft configuration

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36
Q

Present position can be entered by the

A

FMS CDU

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37
Q

The azimuth angle found on the MLS system is

A

40 degrees

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38
Q

The vertical profile for MLS extends to

A

30 degrees

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39
Q

With the aircraft coupled to the flight director only when tracking of a VOR beacon

A

Radio deviation would be the only input

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40
Q

The glide path frequency is

A

Paired with the localiser frequency

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41
Q

Ok the glide path centreline the received signal is an efficient carrier modulated equally by each tone to a depth of

A

40%

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42
Q

Decca operates in the frequency range between

A

70-130khz

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43
Q

In an FD system using fixed angle capture the signal inputs are

A

Course error and radio deviation

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44
Q

In a FD system with a vertical gyro the signal from the VG

A

Opposes the heading error signal

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45
Q

If a transistor amplifier is biased to operate in class B conditions it is biased

A

At cut off

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46
Q

In ADF installations quadrantal error is maximum at

A

45 degrees

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47
Q

The VOR reference signal is

A

Frequency modulated

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48
Q

The rad alt signal is primarily used

A

Ok the final stages of approach down to touch down

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49
Q

I’m a low pass filter the attenuation band is at

A

Frequencies above the cut off frequency

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50
Q

The Jf band used for long distance communication has a

A

Wave length between 10 & 100 metres

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51
Q

The space wave

A

Pénétrâtes thé ionosphère and is lost into space

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52
Q

The phase of a modulator signal corresponds to the

A

Polarity of a DC input signal

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53
Q

If the I bar of an E and I pick off is out of datum position the

A

Direction of displacement gives the output phase sense.

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54
Q

A basic INS platform has

A

2 accelerometers and 3 gyros

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55
Q

The battery in an INS will provide emergency power for

A

15 minutes

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56
Q

The reference and variable signals of a VOR are compared for

A

Phase

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57
Q

The localiser output signals from the navigation receiver are

A

Polarity sensitive DC

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58
Q

If the input power to a 40 dB attenuator is 10 watt, the output power is

A

100mW

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59
Q

Bonding of aerials is

A

Normally carried out via the attachment bolts

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60
Q

Selcal may be used with

A

Both HF and VHF

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61
Q

The sensitivity of a radio receiver is

A

Normally expressed in microvolts or in decibels below 1V

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62
Q

The aircraft Selcal code is

A

Allocated by ARINC

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63
Q

Absorption of radio waves due to the ionosphere is the greatest in the

A

Day

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64
Q

The reflecting layers of the atmosphere rise to a high level during the

A

Night

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65
Q

A VHF receiver received signals by a

A

Space wave

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66
Q

If the length of a 1/2 wave dipole is decreased the resonant frequency is

A

Increased

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67
Q

Cat 2 RVR limits are,

A

800-400 metres

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68
Q

When flying through a VOR cone of confusion the signals used by the AFCS are

A

Course select error and drift angle

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69
Q

During an ILS landing the aircraft usually captures

A

The localiser before the glide slope

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70
Q

When would full scale deflection occur on the course pointer in a VOR

A

10 degrees of the beam

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71
Q

Precipitation static on a aircraft is due to

A

Flying through rain snow ice and dust

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72
Q

The carbon microphone

A

Requires an external voltage for its operation

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73
Q

To receive CW transmission which of the following is required

A

A beat frequency oscillator

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74
Q

The wheel height at which a go around must be initiated unless it has been visually assessed that is is satisfactory to continue the approach and landing in safety is known as the

A

Decision height

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75
Q

The runway visual range is obtained by

A

Multiple set of instruments at the side of the runway

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76
Q

The ICAO weather category 3A is

A

Operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR minima of 200m

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77
Q

A Dual FD system has

A

2 vertical gyros 2VHF receivers 2 compasses

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78
Q

When testing a FD in heading mode the signals needed are

A

Heading error and roll

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79
Q

To operate in RHO RHO navigation mode an installation must have

A

Two DME transponders

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80
Q

A one for deviation on the HSI is equivalent to a

A

75mV signal

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81
Q

A 1/4 section of transmission line terminated in a short circuit behaves as a

A

High impedance, reflector circuit

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82
Q

Typical impedance figuiers for a coaxial feeder are

A

45-75 ohms

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83
Q

The input impedance of a dipole is approximately

A

73 ohms if centre fed

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84
Q

The input impedance of a folded dipole is

A

292 ohms

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85
Q

I’m the glide slope mod (FD system) the signals used are

A

Pitch and glide slope deviation

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86
Q

The glide slope indication on the HSI and ADI has a typical value of

A

.35 degrees/dot

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87
Q

FD modes maybe

A

APPR, IAS and V/S

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88
Q

A marker beacon operates on a frequency of

A

75MHz

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89
Q

Radar range resolution is increased

A

Only with a increased PRF

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90
Q

ATC system transmissions are

A

Single channel simplex

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91
Q

The gain of a weather radar system is

A

Automatically set when altering the range selection

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92
Q

GNSS is made up of a network of satellites arranged

A

With 4 satellites in 6 orbital planes at 60 degrees

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93
Q

What is a negative outcome of using larger bandwidth or increased range resolution

A

Pulse energy is reduced

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94
Q

Radar receiver noise is proportional to its

A

Bandwidth

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95
Q

What factors determine the duty cycle of a radar system

A

Pulse width x PRF

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96
Q

The time taken for the return pulse of a radio altimeter is

A

The aircraft height and the time taken to transmit and receive plus the delay from the antenna cable length including any transceiver delay

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97
Q

The carrier frequency of an ILS marker transmitter is

A

75 MHz

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98
Q

A VOR RMI shows an aircraft on a heading of 030 degrees and the selected VOR radial to be 145 degrees. The relative bearing of the station is

A

115 degrees

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99
Q

When the INS is first switched on the following two actions must take place

A

Accelerometers levelled platform orientated to true north

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100
Q

When an aircraft overflies the localiser transmitter the signals received will be

A

In the same sense

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101
Q

Modulation is a process whereby

A

Intelligence is impressed in the carrier wave

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102
Q

HIRF protected areas are

A

Given special additional inspections to the normal airframe inspection program

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103
Q

If an antenna is horizontally polarised it’s plane of polarisation is

A

The same as it’s electrostatic field

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104
Q

A squelch circuit

A

Keeps the receiver audio off until an RF signal appears at the receiver input

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105
Q

The glide slope signal above the glide slope is

A

90 Hz amplitude modulated

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106
Q

The gain of an antenna is

A

A measure of its directional properties

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107
Q

To erase the tape of a CVR the following conditions must apply

A

Aircraft on the ground parking brake set

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108
Q

A IRS system consists of

A

No gimbals

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109
Q

A buffer amp on a transmitter is between

A

Local oscillator and modulator

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110
Q

A better radar range resolution is provided by

A

Short pulse duration

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111
Q

The fundamental decca frequency is approx

A

14.2 kHz

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112
Q

An aircraft in the localiser centreline received a signal equally modulated by each tone to a depth of

A

30%

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113
Q

The raw output of a the auto VOR is

A

Magnetic bearing information

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114
Q

A minimum distance over which communication at a given frequency can be established by means of the sky wave is known as

A

Skip distance

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115
Q

The ins system is Schuler tuned to prevent errors due to

A

Oscillations if the platform due to aircraft accelerations

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116
Q

The external inputs to an ins are

A

TAS and altitude

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117
Q

The radiation pattern of a VOR station will transmit bearings that are

A

Magnetic

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118
Q

The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is

A

Independent of length

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119
Q

To meet the requirements of HIRF protection gold film windscreens need

A

No additional protection measures

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120
Q

HF wire aerials should not be made of stainless steel because it has

A

High RF resistance

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121
Q

An aircraft transmitter has an output impedance of 50 ohms the correct matching for this transmitter would be

A

Feeder 50 ohms
Aerial 50 ohms

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122
Q

The ideal standing wave ratio in an antenna is

A

1:1

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123
Q

After VOR capture on a ground check, aileron movement will depend upon

A

Course select error, radio deviation and bank angle

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124
Q

The outputs from a balanced modulator are

A

LSB AND USB

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125
Q

FM systems are less affected by noise than AM systems because noise modulates the carrier in

A

Amplitude

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126
Q

The facility performance ILS intersect height is where the

A

Localiser and glide slope signals cross

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127
Q

Crosswind compensation in an FD system may be achieved using

A

An integrator

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128
Q

After go around in an FD system the following mode may be selected

A

HDG

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129
Q

The bandwidth of an antenna

A

Can be increased by using a matching sub

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130
Q

An interrupted carrier wave is referred to as

A

A1

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131
Q

A DME system gives

A

Slant distance

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132
Q

Radio altitude is annunciated by voice

A

Below 500ft

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133
Q

ATC mode c uses

A

Gilliam Gray code

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134
Q

The three transmitted omega frequencies are

A

10.2 kHz, 11.33 kHz and 13.6 kHz

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135
Q

An aircraft is due south of a VOR beacon and has 000 degrees set in the omni- bearing selector if the aircraft is heading 090 the time from indicator will show

A

To

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136
Q

The INS battery is used to

A

Start the system and run it in an emergency

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137
Q

The usable range of the ILs beam is

A

About 15 miles greater than the glide slope

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138
Q

Side tone can be derived from the transmitter

A

Power amplifier

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139
Q

A single side and transmitter is transmitting in the upper sideband the carrier frequency is 10Mhz the modulating frequency is 10 kHz the transmission will consist of

A

A single frequency of 10.010Mhz

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140
Q

The ground run monitor present information of

A

distance to go and ground speed

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141
Q

An aircraft at 40,000ft using vhf can communicate upto a distance of

A

260NM

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142
Q

A VOR ground station is referenced to

A

Magnetic north

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143
Q

A dipole for operation T 300 MHz would have a length of

A

500cm

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144
Q

When the heading knob is rotated ok the FD system it moves the rotor of a

A

Control transformer synchro

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145
Q

A class 3 fault reporting failure

A

Has no consequences on aircraft safety

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146
Q

How many gps satellites required to locate the aircraft’s position in 3 dimensions

A

4

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147
Q

With a magnetic indication of 000 easterly deviation would

A

Be added to the heading as easterly deviation is positive

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148
Q

A cvr installed on a helicopter first certified after 1st august 1999 with two engines with a max certified MtOW 3175KG must begin recording

A

As early as possible during the cockpit checks prior to engine start

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149
Q

A CVR is found to be unserviceable

A

Flights must not continue after 72 hours

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150
Q

A defective radôme would cause

A

Excessive ground clutter

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151
Q

A DGPS system installed on a aircraft requires

A

One ground station and 4 satellites

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152
Q

A DME system indicates aircraft

A

Slant range to the beacon

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153
Q

A DME is in auto standby when

A

The DME receives 300-400 pulses a second

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154
Q

A DME receives a ground transponder reply after 2472 micro seconds the slant range to the transponder is approximately

A

196nm

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155
Q

A Doppler radar antenna is moved

A

Automatically to track

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156
Q

A Doppler a VOR stations transmissions

A

Can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver

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157
Q

A flat plate antenna is a

A

Series of slots and wave guides

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158
Q

A force rebalance accelerometer in an in system has the acceleration force balanced by a

A

Linear force

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159
Q

A GNS satellite system transmissions are

A

Right hand circular

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160
Q

A GPS system is formed from

A

Space control user

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161
Q

A hyperbolic system is

A

LORAN C

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162
Q

A laser dither mechanism ensures that

A

Optical back scatter does not cause the contra rotating beams to lock together

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163
Q

A laser gyro output is

A

Directionally proportional to angular turning rate

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164
Q

A LORAN C transmission consists of

A

8 pulses each 270 microseconds long

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165
Q

A magnetron can be used as an

A

Oscillator or an amplifier

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166
Q

A mode S transponder utilises a

A

Logarithmic amplifier

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167
Q

A mode C transponder

A

Can be used by TCAS

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168
Q

A mode C transponder gives the following information

A

Altitude

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169
Q

A mode S equipped aircraft has its RA area breached by a mode A only equipped aircraft what warning does the mode S aircraft get

A

TA visual and aural traffic traffic

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170
Q

A mode S transponder makes a mode A/C only call, what is the length of the P2 pulse

A

.8us

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171
Q

A moving coil microphone needs

A

No power supply

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172
Q

A padder capacitor has most efficiency at

A

The lowest frequency of the L O

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173
Q

A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause

A

Poo channel selectively

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174
Q

A pulse repetition frequency of 1000 transmits for 2 microseconds the peak power is 1 kW the average power is

A

2 watts

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175
Q

À quartz crystal has the characteristics of a

A

High Q resonant circuit

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176
Q

A rad alt trip signal is

A

Switched DC

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177
Q

A rad alt in track mode is effective to

A

2500ft

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178
Q

A radar antenna is facing left on ground test if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a right bank the antenna

A

Will move down

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179
Q

A radar response takes 329 microseconds how far away is the target

A

25 miles

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180
Q

A radar pulse takes 308 microseconds to return wheat is the target distance

A

Approx 25 miles

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181
Q

A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for

A

HF comms

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182
Q

A radio signals chance of penetration of the ionosphere

A

Increase with frequency

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183
Q

A rain fall of 5mm/he is indicated on the WXR by a

A

Yellow colour

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184
Q

A received acars message is

A

Via the on vhf receiver

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185
Q

A receiver having an IF of 465 kHz is tuned to 1300KHz which of the following signals could interact with the LO second harmonics to produce a receiver output if no RF amplifier was used

A

3995KHz

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186
Q

A receiver in which selected signals of any frequency are converted to a single frequency is called a

A

Superhet receiver

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187
Q

A receiver with a high IF will successfully reject

A

The 2nd channel / image frequency

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188
Q

A receiver with a large bandwidth will have

A

Poor signal to noise ratio

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189
Q

A resistance-capacitor low pass filter will have

A

The output taken across the capacitor

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190
Q

A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of

A

84.4 minutes

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191
Q

A secondary radar system receives reply signals from

A

Another transmitter

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192
Q

A SSR interrogation operates on

A

A frequency of 1030MHz and pulse spacing depending on mode of interrogation

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193
Q

A Selcal signal transmits

A

Two pair of tones one pair after another

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194
Q

A signal at 120 MHz frequency will normally propagate by means of

A

Space waves

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195
Q

A single side and transmission is equal to

A

Low level modulation

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196
Q

A strap down INS has

A

A solid state accelerometer system

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197
Q

A TCAS blade antenna is

A

Part of the atc transponder system

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198
Q

A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be

A

Mode S

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199
Q

A triple rad alt installation isolation is carried out by

A

Differentiating the frequencies

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200
Q

A valid interrogation will

A

Disable the RX, enable the encoder and disable the DME

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201
Q

A VHF comm blade aerial has a length of

A

A quatre wave length

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202
Q

A TCAS blade antenna is

A

An L-Band omnidirectionnel array

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203
Q

A whip antenna uses

A

1/4 wave

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204
Q

Above the glide slope the ILS glide slope signal modulation is

A

90Hz

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205
Q

ACARs is

A

A way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight

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206
Q

ACARs is primarily used for communicating with

A

Maintenance base

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207
Q

ACARs is used to transmit

A

Both in flight and on the ground

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208
Q

ACARs sends information from base to the aircraft via

A

The printer

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209
Q

ACARs system operates in the frequency range of

A

131.550MHz

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210
Q

ACARs transmits it’s data using

A

Binary code

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211
Q

Accuracy if a GPS system used in aircraft navigation systems is

A

16 metres or less

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212
Q

Adding 6ft of cable to both TC and RX aerials on a rad alt would give you

A

18ft error

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213
Q

ADF is

A

Theta
(Angle only)

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214
Q

ADF operates within which frequencies

A

200 - 1000KHz

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215
Q

ADF operation range is at

A

MF band

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216
Q

ADF system sense aerial is

A

Null cardiod

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217
Q

ADF works by using

A

Both loop and sense aerial

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218
Q

Aerial masts maybe be damaged by

A

Skydrol hydraulic fluids

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219
Q

Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency when it’s load is purely

A

Resistive

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220
Q

After flying through the cone of confusion

A

Signal alters and the instrument indicates from

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221
Q

After passing the cone of confusion of a VOR

A

The phase difference reverses

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222
Q

Aircraft is 9000ft when is out of VHF range?

A

120NM

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223
Q

Aircraft north of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI the pointer points to?

A

180

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224
Q

Alert and decision height differ in that

A

The alert height is based on ILS equipment and decision height is based on the RVR

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225
Q

Alert height is

A

Where a decision of whether to land is made based on aircraft characteristics and it’s fail operational landing system

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226
Q

Align light flashes during alignment of an INS

A

It is attracting the operators attention

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227
Q

An o ring in a wave guide is used to

A

Stop moisture entering the wave guide

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228
Q

An accelerometer has

A

High inertia, restrained

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229
Q

An accelerometer in an ONS must be able to detect accelerations down to

A

10-6 g

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230
Q

An ADF system includes

A

Both a sense and loop antenna

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231
Q

An adjustment of the laser beam inside a laser gyro IRU

A

Can be done by adjusting the servo mirror

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232
Q

An aerial can be broadbanded by

A

Using a stub

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233
Q

An aircraft equipped with Mode A transponder only, enter airspace of a TCaS 2 aircraft. What indication does the pilot of the TCAS 2 aircraft get

A

TA after ranging

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234
Q

An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030 relative to the aircraft what is the ADF pointer indicating

A

060

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235
Q

An aircraft is on course on an IlS localiser what is the difference in depth of modulation (DDM)

A

Zero

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236
Q

An aircraft receives response from a DME station, 1236 microseconds after transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant range to the station

A

96 nm

R=(T-50)/12.359

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237
Q

An aircraft with 8.33kHz separation vhf communication system communicates using

A

Single channel simplex

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238
Q

An autoland can operate without an autothrottle if

A

The control of the speed does not create excessive pilot workload

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239
Q

An electromagnetic microphone requires which type of input

A

None

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240
Q

An FM signal would have its side and signals

A

No sideband present

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241
Q

An hf coupling is used to match the

A

Aerial

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242
Q

An I F amplifier unit consists of four amplifiers the amplifiers are normally coupled by

A

Transformer coupling

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243
Q

An ILS back bean approach uses

A

No glide slope

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244
Q

An IN system requires data from the

A

Air data computer

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245
Q

A IN unit uses pin programming for

A

Location

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246
Q

An IRS alignment

A

Takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered anytime during the alignment

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247
Q

An IRS cannot calculate

A

Local longitude

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248
Q

An isotropic radiator

A

Has a perfectly spherical radiation pattern

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249
Q

An over station sensor OSS detects

A

The rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion

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250
Q

An OSS is triggered by

A

Rate of change of radio deviation

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251
Q

An RMI in VOR mode, it’s pointer is showing a course 000, if the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer

A

It will not move

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252
Q

Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals use

A

Attenuation first the amplification

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253
Q

ARINC 629 operates at what speed

A

2000Kb/s

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254
Q

At its resonant frequency a parallel tuned circuit

A

Has maximum circulating currents

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255
Q

At its resonance frequency a parallel tuned circuit has

A

Maximum impedance

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256
Q

At resonance in a series tuned circuit the impedance is

A

Low

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257
Q

ATC altitude read out is

A

Series transmitted with binary encoding

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258
Q

ATC transponder uses what frequency band?

A

UHF

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259
Q

ATCRBS reply pulses are

A

0.45us wide

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260
Q

Attenuation in a coaxial cable

A

Increases with frequency increase

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261
Q

Attenuation of ground waves

A

Increases with frequency

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262
Q

Audio frequency range is

A

20-20,000Hz

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263
Q

Audio select panel voice switch

A

Allows Nav and ADF through

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264
Q

Back bean is captured

A

By manually selecting the back beam mode

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265
Q

In MLS the 12 but preamble consists of

A

5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function

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266
Q

Bandwidth of HF transmission is

A

3kHz

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267
Q

Before processing an AM USB signal, what needs to be done

A

Carrier added

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268
Q

Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier, the pilot must

A

Insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS

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269
Q

Before the SSB is demodulated

A

The carrier wave is reinserted

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270
Q

Carbon microphones require

A

DC supply

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271
Q

Centripetal error compensation is achieved by

A

An additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error

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272
Q

Channel 3 on a CVR records

A

Flight deck

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273
Q

Coaxial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected to a dipole of 120 ohms. While checking with an ohmmeter the reading will be

A

More than 20 megaohms

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274
Q

Communication between the aircraft earth station and the satellite is on

A

L band

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275
Q

Confirmation of the correct operation of an ATC transponder ident function is verified by

A

Use of a ramp test set

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276
Q

CDU selection of TKE displays

A

Difference in degrés that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track

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277
Q

Coriolis effect is corrected for by

A

Adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs

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278
Q

Crystals operate reliably at fundamental frequencies up to

A

30MHz

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279
Q

CVR is unserviceable

A

The aircraft can fly for 72 hours since unserviceability

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280
Q

Data communication between the aircraft and the operational control centre is possible through

A

ACARs system

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281
Q

Decca navigation usés

A

LF

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282
Q

Delayed automatic gain control is inop, the sensitively of the receiver will

A

Increase for the high voltage signals

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283
Q

DFDR arinc 573 data bud has how many subframes

A

4

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284
Q

Differential GPS requires

A

4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitter

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285
Q

Direction property is exhibited by

A

The loop antenna

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286
Q

DME compares what for measurement of slant distance

A

Pulse transmission and return echo

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287
Q

DME interrogation is carried out

A

63MHz above or below transmitted frequency

288
Q

DME reply pulses are 63 MHz

A

Higher or lower

289
Q

DME squatter comes from

A

DME station

290
Q

DME transponder transmits on receipt

A

Of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds

291
Q

DME uses which frequency band

A

UHF

292
Q

Doppler flag comes on when it receives

A

No signal

293
Q

Doppler navigation uses

A

No ground based equipment

294
Q

Doppler VOR, when received by a conventional VOR receiver

A

Has normal reception with an ident signal

295
Q

DSR TK means

A

A great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points

296
Q

During ACARs transmission a 1 is generated by

A

A 2400 Hz waveform

297
Q

During ATC transponder operation suppression acts to

A

Mute the DME operation during the transmit phase

298
Q

During initialisation ins used to calculate local vertical

A

Accelerometers only

299
Q

During operation of a twin HF radio system transceiver

A

No 1 hf system operation is inhibited during no 2 operation

300
Q

During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter is set

A

1013.25mb

301
Q

Earth rate is approx

A

15 degrees an hour

302
Q

Emergency frequency is

A

121.500 MHz

303
Q

EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at

A

Take off

304
Q

Flight director on GS capture the pitch Integration is to

A

Decrease GS error signal

305
Q

Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost when following the FD commands aircraft will

A

Follow the course with scalloping or bracketing

306
Q

Flight management control system utilises

A

ILS, DME, ADC

307
Q

FM improvements affect what system

A

VHF, VOR, ILS

308
Q

FMC changes movement via

A

Flight control computer

309
Q

FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is

A

CRZ

310
Q

FMC provides data envelope for

A

GPWS

311
Q

FMC secondary flight plan is selected

A

In the air by the pilot

312
Q

FMCS outputs to

A

GPWS

313
Q

For radio communication over a distance of over 250nm we use

A

HF

314
Q

For INS the battery unit provides standby power

A

Both when airborne and on the ground

315
Q

Frequencies used for MLS are

A

5-5.1 GHz

316
Q

Frequency modulation used for transmission of audio signals is best suited to

A

Short range transmissions

317
Q

From where is bearing information received for display on the digital distance radio magnetic indicator

A

From VOR and ADF systems

318
Q

Full scale deflection of the glide slope pointer from the centreline is

A

.7 degrees

319
Q

Full scale deflection on a VOR system is

A

10 degrees

320
Q

Function of ADF VOR and DME in navigation system with reference to aircraft and beacon is

A

The first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon

321
Q

Glide slope deviation signals are

A

SC polarity sensitive

322
Q

Glide slope frequency is

A

328.6 - 335.4 MHz

323
Q

GNSS is

A

Any satellite system that provides autonomous geospatial positioning with global coverage

324
Q

GPS

A

Uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits

325
Q

GPS antenna is

A

Circular polarised

326
Q

GPS consists of 24 orbiting satellites located

A

I’m a 10900 nm high orbit

327
Q

GPS frequency is

A

1575 MHz

328
Q

GPS has

A

4 satellites in each of 6 orbits

329
Q

Gos L1 and L2 signals are

A

Biphasé 50 bit/sec

330
Q

GPS receiver navigation message frequency is

A

50 Hz

331
Q

How sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?

A

C/à code and p code

332
Q

GPS telemetry consists of

A

Satellite position Information

333
Q

GPS works on the principle of

A

Information received from satellites is cross referenced against other signals received to calculate position

334
Q

GPWS will show a fault if the following fails

A

Radio altimeter

335
Q

Group countdown in a transponder receiver changed the

A

Sensitivity

336
Q

HF aerials have weak points designed at

A

The back end

337
Q

HF communication frequency is in the range

A

3-30MHz

338
Q

HF transmission of 10 MHz with a sideband of 1000 Hz which drifts 50 Hz the received audio tone would be

A

1000Hz

339
Q

How many bits make up the Mode S address

A

24

340
Q

High range resolution is obtained by

A

Shorter pulse width

341
Q

How can it be verified if FMC updates is correct

A

FMC via CDU

342
Q

How does a receiver know whether an ILS or a VOR frequency has been selected

A

Logic control circuit in the control unit

343
Q

How does an aircraft distinguish its own DME equipment reply from this for other aircraft

A

By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal

344
Q

How does irs calculate velocity

A

Integration of accelerometers

345
Q

How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies

A

Frequency discriminator in receiver

346
Q

How is a DME station identified

A

Morse

347
Q

How is the flight deck informed of an acars transmission

A

Double chime

348
Q

How is the next database on the FMC activated

A

Manually on the ground

349
Q

How is the glide slope frequency chosen on the nav control panel

A

It isn’t manually chosen it is paired with the localiser frequency

350
Q

How long does the gps éphémères collection take?

A

30 seconds

351
Q

How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse for a mode A transmission ignoring the P2 pulse length

A

8 micro seconds

352
Q

How long is the time beteeen the start of P1 pulse and the P3 pulse of a mode C transmission ignorning p2 pulse length

A

21 microseconds

353
Q

How many aerials are there in a TCAS system

A

2

354
Q

How many databases are required in an FMS system

A

2

355
Q

How many programs can a FMC store

A

2 one active one standby

356
Q

How many satellites are required for GNS

A

4

357
Q

How many satellites compromise the space segment for GPS

A

4 satellites in each of six orbits

358
Q

How many times does the ins integrate the acceleration signal it receives from the accelerometers to get the distance the aircraft has flown

A

Twice

359
Q

How would you increase radar target range

A

Low PRF, high scan and long pulse duration

360
Q

Hyperbolic navigation uses the principle of

A

Time difference or phase difference between two radio signals depending on which type is used

361
Q

If a ground station interrogating an aircraft transmits P1, P2 and p6 through the rotating beam antenna and P5 is radiated by omnidirectional antenna, which mode is it addressing

A

Mode S only

362
Q

If a VOR RMI indicates 000, and the course selected is 000 what will the to/from indicator display

A

To

363
Q

If an 80ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial resistance would be

A

80 ohms

364
Q

If an aircraft is east of VOR beacon the reference and variable phases are

A

Phase quadrature

365
Q

If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station the to/from indicator would show

A

From

366
Q

If an FM signal is modulated by an audio signal the frequency of the audio would relate to the

A

Rate of the frequency change

367
Q

If faded totally fails the pilot will get

A

A light illumination on the fadec control panel

368
Q

If one FMS fails in a dual system

A

FMS CDU on fail side goes blank

369
Q

If one FMS fails in flight

A

The standby FMS takes over

370
Q

If radar pulse is reduced there is

A

Reduced relative range

371
Q

If the 90 Hz tone predominates in a localiser receiver the deviation indicator will show

A

Fly right

372
Q

If the ADF cable is to long

A

Secure and stow excess cable

373
Q

If the battery fails on a in’s system in the ground

A

An amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds

374
Q

I’d the inductance in a parallel tuned circuit is increased in value the resonant frequency

A

Decreases

375
Q

If the runway picture I’m the EADI moves down during an ILS approach the aircraft must fly

A

Down

376
Q

If the VOR track error is 2 dots how many degrees off track is the aircraft

A

10 degrees

377
Q

If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict which aircraft changes the decision

A

The one with the higher address

378
Q

If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you do with the control switch? Select it to

A

AM

379
Q

ILS and VOR operates in which range

A

VHF

380
Q

ILS marker beacon lights are

A

Blue, amber, white

381
Q

In a colour wxr AGV is set

A

Automatically on receiver noise level

382
Q

In a CVR system hot mics

A

Is a term applied to all the aircraft’s mics

383
Q

In a DME system how does the receiver fine the recorded pulse pairs are valid

A

Decoder

384
Q

In a Doppler system the frequency return of the forward beam will only match the rearward beam

A

During level flight

385
Q

In a Doppler VOR the 30Hz reference signal is

A

AM modulated

386
Q

I’m a dual FMS a failure of one computer will result in

A

No effect on the CDU

387
Q

I’m a gimbal system the stable platform is the

A

Azimuth gimbal

388
Q

I’m a gps system what type of clock is in the receiver

A

Quartz

389
Q

I’m a ground wave which plane of polarisation suffers the greatest attenuation

A

Horizontal plane

390
Q

Ina large transport aircraft to check VSWR of a HF system with a long aerial feeder the VSWR meter has to be connected

A

Between the transmitter and the ATU (ATU End)

391
Q

In a loran nav system master station transmitter frequency

A

The same as the slave

392
Q

Ok a modern aircraft the acars system is used primarily for

A

Comme between the aircraft and base

393
Q

In a rad alt system if you decide to increase the tx cable and rx cable each by 3” the total correction factor is

A

9”

394
Q

In a secondary radar system at what frequency does the interrogator transmit on

A

1030MHz

395
Q

In a superhet receiver the advantage of an RF amplifier is

A

It improves signal to nose ratio

396
Q

Ina triple rad alt installation on a large aircraft interference is prevented by

A

Varying the modulating frequency of each system

397
Q

In a universal all call transponder interrogation P2 is indicated by the

A

Omnidirectional antenna

398
Q

In a vertically polarised electromagnetic wave

A

The electric field vectors are vertical

399
Q

I’m ACARs in an upcoming message is received

A

A chime sounds in the cockpit

400
Q

I’m ADF quadrature error are eliminated by placing attenuators

A

Across loop aerial

401
Q

I’m an ADF system the goniomètre

A

Effectively simulates a rotating loop antenna

402
Q

In a VOR receiver

A

30Hz modulated reference signal is compared with 30Hz variable phase signal

403
Q

I’m a AM wave the intelligence is contained in the

A

Sideband only

404
Q

In a analogue radar what’s is the purpose of a balanced mixer

A

To improve noise reduction factor

405
Q

In a autopilot A.C analogue computer VOR deviation signals before integration with course error signals are

A

Modulated

406
Q

In an In system the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a

A

Force balance system

407
Q

I’m a IN system the purpose of the stable platform is to

A

Prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers

408
Q

In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass

A

Suspended between two springs in a tube

409
Q

I’m a interrogator mode S addressing format when does the first synch phase reversal occur

A

2.75u seconds after P2

410
Q

In an IRS system you would expect to find

A

Ring laser gyros

411
Q

I’m an IRS system the accelerometer is double inter grated for

A

Distance

412
Q

I’m sera navigation a line of constant bearing would be define as

A

Rhumb line

413
Q

In audio clipping

A

Vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal

414
Q

In CVOR 9960 c/s AM subcarier is used in the

A

REF phase

415
Q

In Doppler radar with a moving aerial the aerial

A

Turns automatically to match the aircraft track

416
Q

In flight mode the FMS preference data source is

A

IRS, RHO-RHO, RHO-Theta

417
Q

In ground mode the FMS uses which of the following for velocity calculations

A

IRS

418
Q

In ILS the glide slope provides

A

Vertical steering

419
Q

I’m INS vertical acceleration is calculated by

A

An accelerometer

420
Q

I’m LNAV mode

A

The pilot can change heading from the MCP

421
Q

I’m MLS what is the beam angle away from runway

A

15 degrees

422
Q

I’m regard to the aircraft transponder what is the pulse frequency

A

Amount of times reply signal is sent per second

423
Q

I’m the downlink DF11 format a .5 microsecond pulse in the first half of the slot represents

A

A logic one

424
Q

I’m the LORAN nav system the master station frequency in relation to the slave frequency is

A

The same

425
Q

I’m the OBMS the printing report system is activated

A

Either manually or automatically

426
Q

In VHF comms with 8.33 kHz spacing how many channels are used

A

2280

427
Q

I’m VOR the manual phase shift resolver is a

A

30Hz signal

428
Q

In weather radar short range targets are missed by

A

Larger pulse width

429
Q

In what frequency range does the ADF system operate

A

190 - 1759 KHz

430
Q

In what type of Doppler system do altitude holes appear

A

FM and pulse

431
Q

In yagi array antenna the signal is fed through a cable to

A

Dipole

432
Q

Incompatible FD modes are

A

Altitude hold and ILS

433
Q

Increasing the bandwidth of a radar receiver

A

Has no affect on pulse shape but increases noise

434
Q

INS has mercury switches on

A

All gimbals

435
Q

INS power is provided by

A

AC normal
DC emergency

436
Q

INS wind speed is calculated from

A

The vectorial addition of TAS and GS

437
Q

IRS obtains basic position information by

A

Inter grating twice the accelerometer output

438
Q

IRS serviceability for in service drift is ascertained by

A

3+3t

439
Q

Janus in Doppler radar

A

Adjusts for lateral and vertical steering

440
Q

Janus operation is used

A

For better coverage

441
Q

L band DME transmits on a frequency of

A

1090 MHz

442
Q

Laser gyros

A

Do not have rotational parts

443
Q

Laser gyros are

A

Aligned to the aircraft structure

444
Q

Laser gyros have

A

Moving parts

445
Q

LOC modulation is

A

20%

446
Q

Localiser beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the runway threshold by

A

700ft

447
Q

Localiser modulation depth is

A

20%

448
Q

LORAN C uses

A

100KHz

449
Q

Man made noise causes interference

A

Mainly below 12 MHz

450
Q

Marker beacon receivers have

A

No control unit as the unit typically turns on when the avionics master switch is activated

451
Q

Marker information is usually provided to the pilot

A

Both visually and aurally

452
Q

Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the

A

Narrowest width

453
Q

MLS elevation coverage is

A

15 degrees

454
Q

MLS operates on what frequency

A

5031-5090.7 MHz

455
Q

MLS are modulated with

A

Phase shift keying

456
Q

Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from

A

Rad alt decrease

457
Q

Mode C response is

A

20.3 microseconds

458
Q

Mode S pulses which are used

A

S1 p1 p3 p4

459
Q

Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of

A

24 bits

460
Q

Most aerials are

A

Bonded

461
Q

Most radio aerial masts are

A

Bonded

462
Q

Omega ground station transmits

A

Pulses of CW

463
Q

On a back bean approach which error signal would not be used

A

Glide slope

464
Q

On a fibreglass aerial what paint should be used

A

Not cellulose

465
Q

On a WX radar display the time base is a

A

Trapezoidal wave form

466
Q

On an aircraft comm system HIRF interference is most prominent

A

At specific frequencies

467
Q

On an FMCS CDU you can select

A

N1 thrust

468
Q

On an HF radio set the clarifier control is used

A

To adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX

469
Q

On a ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam

A

Radio deviation

470
Q

On a RMI the input to the ADF pointer is fed via

A

A synchro

471
Q

On power up the IRS obtains position

A

Longitude from last position

472
Q

Ok TCAS with own aircraft below 1750ft

A

Any other aircraft below 360ft are deemed to be on the ground

473
Q

I’m the ASP how many RX and TX can be selected at any one time

A

Multiple RX and only one TX

474
Q

Ok the ATC radios readability scale what is satisfactory reception

A

5

475
Q

Outer marker frequency is

A

400 HZ

476
Q

Overshoot or go around mode can be Initiated

A

After glideslope capture

477
Q

Peak power is 10 kW pulse period 6us and duty cycle is 2.4ms. What is the average power transmitted

A

25w

478
Q

Pin programming is allowed

A

To provide reference to FMS computer as to which side of datum it is fitted to

479
Q

Precipitation static is caused by

A

Skin to air particle collisions

480
Q

Rad alt failure effects which system

A

GPWS

481
Q

Radar resolution is the ability to determine between

A

Two targets in close proximity to each other

482
Q

Radiated interference of current carrying cable can be minimised by

A

Putting the affected cable in a single conduit

483
Q

Rad alt normally indicates the altitude of

A

0-2500ft above ground level

484
Q

Radio switches are normally

A

Spring on R/T latched on I/C

485
Q

Radio waves are said to have mine of sight propagation

A

Above about 100MHz

486
Q

Random precision of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury switches

A

On inner gimbal ring

487
Q

Range resolution in a radar system is improved by

A

Shorter pulse

488
Q

Restrictions to the use of hand held mics apply to

A

Transport category aircraft only

489
Q

RMI in ADF mode the pointer is moved by a

A

Loop voltage

490
Q

RNAV accuracy is

A

+_ 5nm 95%

491
Q

RNAV system uses

A

VOR gps

492
Q

RNAV uses which inputs

A

IRS
VOR
GPS
DME

493
Q

Satcom carrier signals suffer from a Doppler shift of frequency due to the

A

Velocity of the aircraft with respect to the satellite

494
Q

Satellite transmits updates on every

A

2nd orbit

495
Q

Second Chanel Mmmm interference could occur if the IP frequency was at twice the

A

I F and on the opposite side of the local oscillator frequency

496
Q

Selcal is used to

A

Monitor ground signals

497
Q

Selection of the INS mode selector unit to ATT REF is made

A

When navigation information is lost

498
Q

Short duration radar pulses

A

Allow echoes from short range

499
Q

Single side band filters are

A

3kHz

500
Q

Slewing of the INS gimballed platform simulates in flight attitude changes up to

A

71 degrees in pitch and 180 degrees in azimuth

501
Q

Sonar location beacons are a

A

ICAO requirement

502
Q

Standing waves in a coaxial feeder cable are proportional to

A

Degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna

503
Q

Suppressor line is required for

A

All L band equipments including TCAS

504
Q

TCAS considers another aircraft to be on the ground at a difference height between the barometric altimeter and rad alt of

A

180 ft

505
Q

TCAS transmits squirted pulses on a frequency of

A

1090 MHz

506
Q

TCAS antenna is a

A

Directional antenna

507
Q

TCAS 2 is

A

24 aircraft per 5nm radius

508
Q

TCAS is selected

A

By a switch by pilot on selector panel

509
Q

TCAS transmits interrogations and receives replies on a frequency of

A

1030 MHz & 1090 MHz respectively

510
Q

TCAS will issue a TA if

A

A collision is within 35-40 seconds of occurring

511
Q

The aerial element of a vhf comms transmitter / receiver should have a mid band length of

A

N/4

512
Q

The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by comparing

A

The phase of two 30Hz modulations

513
Q

The aircraft is due north of the VOR station on a heading of 90 what is the RMI displaying

A

180 degrees

514
Q

The alignment position of an IR mode selector unit enables

A

Gyro run up, levelling azimuth determination

515
Q

The anti skid armed signal comes from

A

A switch in the cockpit

516
Q

The approximate distances of the middle marker from the runway threshold is

A

3500ft

517
Q

ACARs uses which frequency band

A

VHF

518
Q

ATC antenna has a polar diagram which is

A

Directional

519
Q

The ASP allows crew to

A

Transmit on one channel listen on multiple

520
Q

Auto gain voltage of a weather radar is set

A

By the manufacture

521
Q

Autopilot disconnect indications are

A

Flashing master warning light and an aural

522
Q

Aviation distress frequency is

A

121.5MHz

523
Q

The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 relative to aircraft heading of 030. The RMi pointer indicates

A

90

524
Q

The components of an ILS system are

A

A localiser glideslope and Marker beacons

525
Q

The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180 when the aircraft heading is 150 is

A

Turn right

526
Q

The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is displayed by the

A

Difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading

527
Q

The crew select DH on

A

The rad alt display

528
Q

The delete tone button on a VOR/ILS test set is for

A

Testing correct operation of the flags

529
Q

The distance over which VHF comms may be achieved is limited

A

To radio line of sight

530
Q

The Doppler VOR beacon reference signal

A

Solitude modulâtes the carrier frequency

531
Q

The DVOR is preferred in comparison to CVOR because

A

DVOr is relatively insensitive to site errors

532
Q

The electrical tuning unit of an Hf transmitter maintains a VSWR of the antenna at

A

1.3 - 1

533
Q

The FFR ULB operates at a frequency of 37kHZ

A

With an operational time of at least thirty days

534
Q

The flight director is on a localiser when the radio deviation signal is lost the aircraft would

A

Fly parallel to the localiser

535
Q

The FMS navigation database is updated

A

Every 28 days

536
Q

The frequency of 111.1MHz is used by

A

ILS localiser

537
Q

The frequency of a glideslope transmitter is

A

328.6 to 335.4MHz

538
Q

The frequency range 300KHz - 3MHz is called the

A

MF band

539
Q

The frequency spectrum of noise is

A

Infinitely wide

540
Q

The fundamental theory of operation of a ranging radar is

A

Time take to receive returns

541
Q

The general function of the ATC transponder is to

A

Reply with an identification signal after being interrogated by a ground station

542
Q

The glide slope and localiser frequencies

A

Are paired and one frequency sleeve for suffices both

543
Q

The glide slope equipment operates in the

A

uHF band

544
Q

The glide slope in an ILS provides

A

Vertical references

545
Q

The glide slope system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of

A

The vertical plane

546
Q

Glideslope transmitter is located

A

Adjacent to the touch down point of the runway

547
Q

GPS provides location and time information when there is unobstructed line of site to

A

4 or more satellites

548
Q

GPS satellite system consists of

A

21 satellites and 3 standby satellites

549
Q

Ground run monitor presents

A

Ground speed and distance to go

550
Q

The heading error signal used in the heading select mode

A

Is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading

551
Q

The horizontal angle contained between the true and magnetic meridian at any place is

A

Declination

552
Q

The image channel ratio is

A

Response at wanted channel frequency over response at image channel frequency

553
Q

The impedance of an hf aerial is

A

50 ohms

554
Q

INS computes distance from acceleration by

A

two successive integrations

555
Q

The input data for the RNAV system comes from

A

Existing systems within the aircraft and dedicated rnav transmitters

556
Q

The ins platform is

A

Always parallel relative to the earth surface

557
Q

The IRS laser gyros is a

A

Rate gyro

558
Q

Janus beam is for

A

To compensate for attitude changes

559
Q

Laser ring gyro

A

Does not have a gimbal

560
Q

The length of a resonant antenna dipole is

A

Lambda/2

561
Q

Localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the

A

VHF nav System

562
Q

Localiser looks after

A

Horizontal plane

563
Q

The loop aerial polar diagram is a

A

Figure 8

564
Q

The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to

A

The C.D.I. offset bar

565
Q

Middle marker beacon is

A

Amber

566
Q

Middle marker modulation is keyed with

A

Alternate dots and dashes

567
Q

MLS frequency band is

A

C

568
Q

Mode S squirted pulse will

A

Contain aircraft identity

569
Q

Mono pulse aerial system is used to provide TCAS with

A

Bearing information

570
Q

Most common type of gyro used in ins is

A

Single rate integrating gyro with viscosity damping

571
Q

Most sensitive system between ils and VOR is

A

ILS

572
Q

Noise factor of a receiver whose I/P signal to noise ratio is 15:1 and O/P signal to noise ratio is 12:1 is

A

1.25

573
Q

Number of different radials provided by a ground station is

A

Infinite

574
Q

Number of VHF frequency channels is

A

760

575
Q

Output of an ins can be fed to

A

Attitude indicators

576
Q

The path of a point which moves such that the difference in a distance from two fixed points is equal is called

A

Hyperbola

577
Q

Plane of polarisation is defined as the plane in which the

A

E field lies

578
Q

Polled mode in a acars

A

Operates only when interrograted by the ground facility

579
Q

Polythene coating on an hf antenna wire is provided

A

To prevent precipitation static build up

580
Q

Polythene sleeping over a hf antenna is to stop

A

Precipitation static

581
Q

Preferred location of a VOR antenna in light aircraft is on

A

Top of the vertical stabiliser

582
Q

The pulse reputation frequency should be

A

Low for long ranges

583
Q

Quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of

A

045

584
Q

Rad alt electrical length for a helicopter of cable length 18ft is

A

28ft

585
Q

The radar is set to long pulse bursts this will have the effect of

A

Missing close echo returns

586
Q

The range at which the STC waveform ends is proportional to

A

Pulse width

587
Q

The rate of G/S warning I’m GPWS

A

Changes with radio altitude

588
Q

The RF resistance of an inductor

A

Increases as frequency increases

589
Q

The short circuit stub that is used for B-road banding a VHF whip antenna for frequency of 127MHz must have a length of about

A

59cm

590
Q

The stability of an effort oscillator can be improved by

A

A buffer amplifier

591
Q

The system which will be inhibited during a radio altimeter self test is the

A

GPWS

592
Q

The term oblate spheroid refers to

A

flattening at the polar regions

593
Q

The term HIrF

A

High intensity radiated fields

594
Q

The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted

A

Orthogonally

595
Q

The three accelerometers on a strap down platform are mounted

A

90 degrees to each other

596
Q

Tone frequencies for glide slope and localiser are

A

90 and 150 Hz

597
Q

The transmission lines normally used between a radio antenna and its transceiver equipment is

A

Coaxial cable

598
Q

The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a

A

Rate integrating gyro

599
Q

The uplink 11 format uses

A

Differential phase key shifting

600
Q

The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is

A

50 ohms

601
Q

The voice switch on the ASP has a

A

1020KHz band stop filter

602
Q

The VOR system compromises

A

Variable and reference phase signals

603
Q

The VSWR of a VHF system with a forward power of 100W and a reflected power of 4W will be

A

1.5:1

604
Q

There are two FMS in an aircraft which are

A

Master and slave

605
Q

There are two FMS installed on the aircraft if one fails during flight

A

The failed FMS has a blank screen

606
Q

Three RF amplifiers of 10 dB and 10KHz are in cascade what is the output

A

30dB and 10KHz

607
Q

Time base of PPI display is

A

A trapezoid

608
Q

To carry out a database update ok the FMS

A

Use the database loader

609
Q

To check side lobe suppression

A

Use a ramp test set

610
Q

To improve the image or picture when using the WXR

A

Use shorter bursts

611
Q

To know the valid database on the FMS

A

Call up the relevant CDU page

612
Q

To make a passenger announcement from the flight deck

A

Set the asp to PA and transmit from the control column

613
Q

To minimise cross cable interference

A

Run radiating and affected cables as separate bundles

614
Q

To obtain an accurate GPS fis the GPS receiver must be in line of sight of

A

4 satellites

615
Q

To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform is is normal to use

A

4 gimbals

616
Q

Track error is the difference between

A

Actual track and desired track

617
Q

Track mode of an rad alt is operational

A

From 0 - 2500ft

618
Q

Transmission line losses have what effect on VSWR

A

Do not affect

619
Q

Transmitter aerial radiates

A

Electrostatic and electromagnetic energy

620
Q

Transport rate compensation is achieved by

A

The platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal

621
Q

Tx output stages are normally run in class c

A

Because the efficiency is high

622
Q

Types of very low frequency navigation include

A

Decca oméga

623
Q

Use of a diplexer in a receiver is

A

To enable signals to be distributed to different receivers

624
Q

Using INs an aircraft flies

A

Great arc circle

625
Q

VHF air and frequency range is

A

108-136MHz

626
Q

VHF antenna length is based on

A

Quatre wavelength

627
Q

VHF frequency is

A

30-300MHz

628
Q

VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum power transfer is

A

50 ohms

629
Q

Voice clipping

A

Decreases the depth of modulation of high amplitude voice signals

630
Q

Voice selected from the voice range switch on the ACP acts as a

A

1020Hz band stop filter

631
Q

Voice/range switch selected to range

A

Allows nav/adf and DME through and cancels out voice spectrum

632
Q

Voltage buffer amplifiers are used when

A

An impedance change high to low is required

633
Q

VOR capture can be determined by

A

A predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial

634
Q

VOR left right deviation signals come from the

A

VHF nav set

635
Q

VOR washout signal is by

A

An integrating circuit

636
Q

Wave length of X band radar is

A

3cm

637
Q

What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display

A

White diamonds, red squares, amber circles

638
Q

What close is used in a gps satellite

A

Atomic

639
Q

What does 7700 Indicate on the ATC panel

A

Emergency

640
Q

What does decca navigation system operate on

A

Low frequency

641
Q

What does a diplexor do

A

Channel to RX

642
Q

What does INS calculate on power up

A

Latitude

643
Q

What does the radar contour button do

A

Alter the video amplifier

644
Q

What frequency are VOR and ILS

A

VHF

645
Q

What frequency increases radar relative range

A

Low

646
Q

What frequency range does acars operate on

A

118-136MHz

647
Q

What happens if frequency decreases without altering physical length of aerial

A

The aerial becomes capacitively reactive

648
Q

What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of aerial

A

The aerial becomes inductively reactive

649
Q

What is the ideal VSWR ok a radio transmission line

A

1:1

650
Q

What is audio clipping used for in voice communication

A

To enable consonants to be heard better

651
Q

What is ils mark beacon frequency

A

75 Jz

652
Q

What is jitter used for in a DME transmission

A

To make an installation recognise its own transmission

653
Q

What is mode 1 & 2 of GPWS

A

Excessive decent rate and excessive terrain closure rate

654
Q

What is needed for RHO-RHO navigation

A

2 DME signals

655
Q

What is primary radar

A

Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse

656
Q

What is secondary radar

A

Signal returned from a transponder

657
Q

What is the Q code for runway heading

A

QFU

658
Q

What is the characteristic impedance range of a parallel cable

A

40-150ohm

659
Q

What is the difference between DME transmit and receive pulse frequency

A

63MHz

660
Q

What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables

A

50 ohms

661
Q

What is the main cause of standing waves in wave guide

A

Mismatch impedance

662
Q

What is the millivolt deflection per dot on ILS/VOR

A

75/75

663
Q

What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver

A

Polarity sensitive DC

664
Q

What is the power at pulse

A

Peak power

665
Q

What is the power output of a DME station

A

1000watts

666
Q

What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder

A

1090MHz

667
Q

What is the time between the F2 framing pulse and the SPI

A

4.35us

668
Q

What is the time between the framing pulses F1 and F2 in ATCRBS reply

A

20.3 us

669
Q

What is the time taken for one radar nautical mile

A

12.36 us

670
Q

What is the average wave length of C band radar

A

7cm

671
Q

What is track angle

A

The angle measured clockwise between true north and the aircraft ground track

672
Q

What is the VHF comm range at 9000 ft

A

110Nm

673
Q

What manoeuvre does tcas 2 advise the pilot to make

A

RA

674
Q

What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ils

A

90 left
150 right of centre line

675
Q

What must be entered in to the ins before the aircraft moves

A

Present position

676
Q

What orbits are gps satellites in

A

MEO

677
Q

What precautions must a pilot take when using a back course approach

A

Reciprocal run way heading

678
Q

What type of system is an ADF

A

Theta

679
Q

What would be the purpose of an input from an irs being connected to a weather radar

A

To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna

680
Q

When an adf sense antenna is repositioned from the bottom of the fuselage to the top the siding of the bearing indicator must be

A

Reverse R1 +R2 connections only

681
Q

When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500ft what is the distance the vhf can cover

A

120nm

682
Q

When an aircraft is flying along the extended centreline of the run way it is in the

A

Equi-signal sector

683
Q

When an aircraft is heading due north towards a VOR station the reference and variable signals will be

A

180 degree out of phase

684
Q

When an AM carrier is modulated it’s bandwidth

A

Increases

685
Q

When I’m manual mode the C.D.U alert lamp of the INS will flash

A

Two minutes before the next way point

686
Q

When painting a neoprene costed radio antenna Don not use cellulose paint

A

Don not use cellulose paint

687
Q

When painting fibre glass radio masts with neoprene cover

A

Do not use cellulose paint

688
Q

When performing an adf check commercial stations

A

Can be used in addition to ASD nav stations

689
Q

When signal bandwidth increases it cause

A

Deterioration of pulse shape and increase in noise

690
Q

When substituting rad alt cable you should consider

A

The speed of propagation of rad alt signal

691
Q

When the ILs marker hi/lo switch is set to lo

A

Receiver sensitivity is reduced by 10-12dB

692
Q

When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schiller pendulum

A

The platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical

693
Q

When the pilot depresses the ident button where does the ident pulse appear

A

4.35us after the last frame pulse

694
Q

When the VOR reference and variable phases are in phase quadrature the aircraft is at the

A

090 radial

695
Q

When using the GPS

A

Once the database card has expired the system will continue to operate with a warning message

696
Q

When will a mode c interrogation be ignored

A

When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1

697
Q

Where does air show moving map get its position information

A

GPS

698
Q

Where is the antenna located for watching tv

A

Crown skin

699
Q

Which 30Hz signal from a VOR ground station is frequency modulated

A

The reference signal which is constant

700
Q

Which colour on the wxr woukd pilots avoid turb and heavy rain

A

Magenta

701
Q

Which frequency band is used to have line of sight comes

A

VHF and uhf

702
Q

Which if the following frequencies is allocated to VOR

A

114.3MHz

703
Q

Which of the following has a hyperbolic curve

A

Loran C

704
Q

Which if the following has priority of TCAS warnings

A

Stall warning

705
Q

Which of the following has the best frequency stability

A

Colpitts

706
Q

Which of the following is a DME frequency

A

1100Mhz

707
Q

Which if the following navigation system is not a hyperbolic navigation system

A

Doppler

708
Q

Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a GPWS

A

Flaps/undercarriage

709
Q

Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude reporting system

A

Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panel

710
Q

Why is an aerosol tuning unit used in a HF comm system

A

To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance

711
Q

With a vertical gyro simulated to aircraft right Bank the scanner in left hand position will

A

Tilt down

712
Q

With ADD selected the sense aerial signal is

A

Added to the modulated loop aerial signal

713
Q

With AGC inoperative sensitivity will be affected for signals with

A

Both high and low signal strength

714
Q

With an atc code of 0600 selected the pulses transmitted are

A

B2 & B4

715
Q

With and increase in radar pulse duration what happens to signal to noise ratio

A

Decrease

716
Q

With no 1 hf transmitting the interlock circuit

A

Does not allow hf 2 to transmit or receive

717
Q

With the adf controller set to ant

A

Only the sense signal is used