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AGACNP Cert > Common Problems In Acute Care > Flashcards

Common Problems In Acute Care Flashcards

1
Q

What is used for the treatment of acute gout attack?

A

NSAIDs, colchicine

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2
Q

What is used for the prevention of gout?

A

allopurinol

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3
Q

What are causes of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

excess of SSRIs, antipsychotics, or deficit of dopaminergic drugs

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4
Q

What is used in the treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

IV fluids to flush out the drugs

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5
Q

What are causes of serotonin syndrome?

A

SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, MAOIs, tramadol, triptans, zofran, cipro

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6
Q

What is a normal compartment pressure

A

0-8

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7
Q

What compartment pressure reading would require fasciotomy?

A

compartment pressure > 30 or delta pressure (DBP-ICP) >30 indicates need for fasciotomy

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8
Q

What delta pressure reading would require fasciotomy for a patient with suspected compartment syndrome?

A

delta pressure (DBP-ICP) ≤ 30 indicates need for fasciotomy

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9
Q

At what time interval would it no longer be appropriate to suture any animal bite?

A

any animal bite wound that is older than six hours should be left to heal by secondary intention

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10
Q

What is indicated for the treatment of Steven Johnson Syndrome?

A

IVIG and steroids

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11
Q

What immunosuppressive therapy is indicated for post-transplant care

A
  1. Steroid — prednisone or methylprednisolone
  2. Antimetabolite — azathioprine, mycophenolate, or cyclophosphamide
  3. Calcineurin Inhibitor — tacrolimus or cyclosporine
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12
Q

What is the most common type of skin cancer?

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

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13
Q

What category of burn is defined as dry, red, without blisters, involving the epidermis only?

A

First degree

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14
Q

What category of burn is defined as moist, with blisters, extending beyond the epidermis?

A

Second degree

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15
Q

What category of burn us defined as dry, leathery, black, pearly, or waxy, extending from epidermis to dermis to underlying tissues (fat, muscle, and/or bone)?

A

Third degree

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16
Q

What percentage of the body is each arm according to the rule of nines?

A

Each arm = 9

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17
Q

What percentage of the body is each leg according to the rule of nines?

A

Each leg = 18%

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18
Q

What percentage of the body is the thorax according to the rule of nines?

A

Thorax = 18% front & 18% back

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19
Q

What percentage of the body is the head according to the rule of nines?

A

Head = 9%

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20
Q

What percentage of the body is the perineum/genitals according to the rule of nines?

A

Perineum/genitals = 1%

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21
Q

What criteria indicate the necessity of referral to a burn center?

A

second degree burn>10% of the TBSA
third degree burns
burns in children
chemical or electrical burn
inhalation injury
any burn with accompanying trauma

22
Q

Headache, visual complaints, jaw claudication, nodular/enlarged/tender temporal artery, fever, chills, and rigors in a patient over the age of 50 is suspiciouss for what condition?

A

Giant Cell Arteritis

23
Q

What lab findings are expected in giant cell arteritis?

A

normal WBC, high ESR, temporal artery biopsy positive in 85-95% of cases

24
Q

What is indicated in the management of giant cell arteritis?

A

steroids, referral

25
Q

Hard exudates, microaneurisms, hemorrhages (ruptured microaneurisms), cotton wool spots, and cupping of the disc (cup to disc ratio > 1/2) are associated with which diagnosis?

A

Diabetic Retinopathy

26
Q

AV nicking is associated with which diagnosis?

A

Hypertensive Retinopathy

27
Q

Constriction of the visual fields is associated with which condition?

A

Open Angle Glaucoma

28
Q

What is normal intraocular pressure?

A

10-20

29
Q

What is the treatment for open angle glaucoma?

A

prostaglandin analogues (lantanoprost), alpha blockers (brimonidine), beta blockers (timolol), and miotic agents (pilocarpine)

30
Q

Extreme eye pain, blurry vision, halos around lights, with dilated or fixed pupil is associated with which condition?

A

Closed Angle Glaucoma

31
Q

What is the treatment for closed angle glaucoma?

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, acetazolamide, mannitol, or surgery

32
Q

Painless, clouded/blurred/dim vision, difficulty seeing at night, sensitivity to light and glare, fading/yellowing of colors, diploia in a single eye, halos around lights, absent red reflex, and opacification of the lens is associated with which condition?

A

Cataracts

33
Q

What is the treatment for cataracts?

A

surgery

34
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for AIDS?

A

AIDS = CD4 <200 and/o presence of opportunistic infection (500-1,200 normal CD4 count)

35
Q

Joint pain/stiffness that is better in the morning and worsened as the day progresses, aggravated by activity, and relieved by rest is consistent with which diagnosis?

A

Osteoarthritis

36
Q

What is the treatment for osteoarthritis?

A

NSAIDs

37
Q

Joint pain/stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves as the day progresses is consistent with which diagnosis?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

38
Q

What is the treatment for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

NSAIDs, DMARDs, steroids, antimalarials, gold salts

39
Q

What condition associated with SLE should be explored in a patient with SLE?

A

antiphospholipid syndrome

40
Q

What labs/diagnostics are associated with SLE?

A

ANA + in 95% of patients, anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia are often present

41
Q

What does the management of SLE consist of?

A

sun protection, topical glucocorticoids, NSAIDs, steroids, hydroxychloroquine

42
Q

A facial fractures involving a transverse fracture through the maxilla and pterygoid plates is a…?

A

Le Forte I — transverse fracture through the maxilla and pterygoid plates (floating palate)

43
Q

A facial fractures involving a fracture transecting the nasal bones, medial anterior orbital bones is a…?

A

Le Forte II — fracture transecting the nasal bones, medial anterior orbital bones (foating maxilla)

44
Q

A facial fractures involving a transverse fracture of nasofrontal suture, medial orbit wall, lateral orbit wall (floating face) is a…?

A

Le Forte III — transverse fracture of nasofrontal suture, medial orbit wall, lateral orbit wall (floating face)

45
Q

What rate should fluids be infused in the treatment of rhabdo?

A

IV fluids should be titrated to maintain urine output of 200-300 per hour.

46
Q

What is the treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

withdrawal of the offending dopamine antagonist or reinstatement of the dopamine agonist and supportive care which may include dantrolene

47
Q

What are signs/symptoms of acetaminophen overdose?

A

hepatotoxicity and delirium

48
Q

What is the treatment for acetaminophen overdose?

A

charcoal, N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

49
Q

What abnormal labs will be seen in salicylate overdose?

A

hyperkalemia, elevated LFTs, metabolic acidosis

50
Q

What is the treatment of antifreeze (ethylene glycol) ingestion?

A

fomepizole

51
Q

What are symptoms of methanphetamine overdose?

A

mydriasis (dilated pupils), hyperthermia, hallucinations

AGACNP Cert (12 decks)

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