Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Metabolism > Combined > Flashcards

Combined Flashcards

1
Q

Iodine is an element commonly found in high abundance in which areas?

A

in the sea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the RDI for iodine

A

150ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is TRH? where is it released from?

A

Thyrotropin releasing hormone - released from the hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is cretinism? what is it caused by?

A

A congenital condition caused by maternal iodine deficiency, worlds most common form of mental retardation and growth retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Radiation from I (-131) can be used to what?

A

destroy the thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What kind of receptors do thyroid hormones operate via?

A

membrane receptors and cause direct activation of genes in DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the atomic number of iodine?

A

53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is cholesterol found in the body?

A

free in membranes and as esters in storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where are human steroids derived from?

A

dietary steroids or are made from acetyl-coA in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Corticosteroids refers to which two groups of steroids?

A

Glucocorticoids (eg cortisol) and mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where are oestrogen and progesterone made primarily

A

ovary and also placenta during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is testosterone primarily produced?

A

testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tamoxifen blocks what steroid action?

A

blocks oestrogen receptors and is used in the treatment of breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the effect of leuprolide?

A

lowers testosterone - used in treatment of prostate cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the actions of anabolic steroids?

A

interact with androgen receptors to increase muscle and bone synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where does the name cholesterol originate from?

A

greek chole- (bile) and stereos (solid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is cholesterol?

A

a waxy steroid metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is cholesterols role in cell membranes?

A

required for proper membrane permeability and fluidity (makes membrane LESS fluid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a lipoprotein? What is their function?

A

biochemical assembly that contains proteins and lipids. Carry cholesterol in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some examples of lipoproteins?

A

chylomicrons, low density lipoprotein (LDL), very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) and high density lipoprotein (HDL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Arteriolosclerosis is promoted by excess levels of which lipoprotein?

A

LDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What did Goldstein and Brown win a nobel prize for?

A

Identifying the LDL receptor on the liver which carries LDL and VLDL into the liver via receptor mediated endocytosis - this process is essential for feedback inhibition of HMG-CoA Reductase, muatations in this receptor lead to familial hypercholesterolaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Apart from its role in cell membranes what other roles (3) does cholesterol have?

A
  1. precursor to steroid hormones such as testosterone, cortisol, aldosterone, 2. component of bile salts 3. Vit D production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how many carbons does cholesterol have?

A

27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many more times energy does NADPH have compared to ATP

A

7 times more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where are human steroids derived from?

A

Cholesterol -> dietary or made in the liver from Acetyl-CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most abundant steroid in the body?

A

cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where is oestrogen and progesterone made?

A

Ovary and placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How are steroids eliminated?

A

by CYP3A4 in the liver endoplasmic reticulum which adds a OH group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Cyproterone acetate? what is it used for?

A

Inhibitor of the andreogen receptor. Used to treat Hirsuitism in females, male-to female gender change, prostate cancer, benign prostatic hyperplasia, priapism and hypersexuality (chemical castration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What protein does cortisol bind in the blood?

A

transcortin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hb makes up what percentage of RBC dry content?

A

97%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

carbon dioxide can bind to Hb and form what? what proportion of the total respiratory CO2 is in this form?

A

forms carbaminohaemoglobin15% of total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hb carries nitric oxide bound to what molecule on globin?

A

thiol group of globin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Why does Hb carry nitric oxide?

A

releases it at the same time as oxygen to relax vascular walls and enhance gas diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Kendrew and Perutz one a nobel price for doing what regarding Hb?

A

solving its protein structure (the first protein structure solved)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the structural difference between adult and foetal Hb?

A

Foetal: alpha2-gamma2Adult:alpha2-beta2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mutations in amino acid sequences cause hundred of whats (in relation to Hb)?

A

haemaglobinopathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What was Christian Bohrs contributed to our knowledge about Hb?

A

described the sigmoid binding character of Hb-O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the structure of haemaglobin?

A

Tetramer of globin subunits (proteins) with 4 haem groups inserted into each

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What colour is Hb-CO?

A

bright red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What colour is De-oxy Hb?

A

dark red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What colour is HbO2?

A

scarlet red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What binds better to Hb O2 of CO?

A

CO binds 200x better than O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Met Hb?

A

Hb with Fe3+ in the haem due to oxidation = found in aged RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Haem inserts into the globin via a locking mechanism involving binding of histidine residues F8 and E7. One is always bound whilst the other can be displaced - which is which?

A

F8 is always locked (think its FATE for globin and haem to be together)E7 can be displaced by O2, CO and cyanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the role of Bisphosphoglycerate (BPG)

A

stabilises Deoxy-Hb via 8 salt bonds which makes this form rigid (tense) and stops Oxygen binding back to Hb in the tissues. It is displaced when O2 levels are high (in the lungs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Oxygen binding to Hb shows cooperativity - what does this mean?

A

When the first Oxygen binds to Hb it induces a change in the quaternary structure of Hb which changes the affinity of the other Oxygen binding sites - this means with only small increases in the concentration of O2 it is much easier to saturate the rest of the Hb molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What happens to the Hb-Oxygen binding curve in the presence of acid (bohr effect)? What functionally is the relevance of this?

A

graph is shifted to the right- meaning Hb has LESS affinity for O2, the relevance of this is that working tissues produce lactic acid and they require more O2 so we want the DeOxy-Hb form to be more stabilized so more oxygen is given up in the tissues - this is achieved via bonding to histidine residues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How does altitude alter the Oxygen-Hb binding curve? how is this achieved?

A

shifts it to the right -> giving more O2 to the tissues compensates for less O2 being picked up in the lungs. At altitude RBCs produce more BPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Why does foetal Hb have higher affinity for O2 than adult hb?

A

gamma subunits have 6 positive charges (not 8) so BPG is bound less avidly so deoxy-form is stabilised less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What was Archibald Garrods field of study?

A

inborn errors of metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The major burden of pathology in australia from genetic diseases is due to what disease?

A

Cystic Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

________was the first disease to be routinely tested for at birth and treated as required

A

phenylketonuria (PKU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Genetic testing is usually carried out using what technique?

A

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the most common x-linked recessive disorder? give some other examples

A

red-green colour blindess is the most common, others are haemophilia Am duchenne muscular dystrophy, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What happens in children affected by PKU?

A

they lack phenylalanine hydroxylase leading to a build up of Phe which gets converted to phenylpyruvate (a ketone) which damages the brain and affects melanin synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the incidence of CF in australia?

A

in in 2500 births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the carrier rate of the CF gene in Australia?

A

1 in 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the most common CF mutation?

A

Delta F506 in the CFTR protein (chloride channel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is Ehlers Danlos syndrome?

A

Inherited connective tissue disoder - mostly autosomal dominant condition due to mutations in genes that encode the structure, production or processing of COLLAGEN or proteins that interact with collagen -> those affected have hypermobile joints, hyper-elasticity of the skin but also affects arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is Marfan Syndrome?

A

mutation in fibrillin gene leading to bone overgrowth and joint laxity, with disproportionately long extremities compared to the size of the trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What enzyme is important in melanin formation?

A

tyrosinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Is the inheritance of skin colour mono or polygenetic?

A

polygenetic -> 40 genes influence skin colour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

If you lack tyrosinase what colour is your skin?

A

NO melanin = albinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How do dietary toxins get to the liver?

A

Directly, via the hepatic portal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which molecules are oxidised by P450 system?

A

ALL foreign chemicals with MW < 5,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Where in the cell are the P450 cytochromes located?

A

Endoplasmic reticulumMitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are microsomes?

A

Pink spherical vesicles with embedded cytochrome P450. They don’t exist in cells - they’re an artefact of centrifuging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What sort of enzymes are the P450s?

A

Monoxygenases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What reaction do the P450s typically catalyse?

A

RH + NADPH + H+ + O2 —>ROH + H2O + NADP+(The key point is that RH becomes ROH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What initiates the P450 cycle of reactions?

A

Binding of a substrate to the P450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What P450 is deficient in people who can’t convert codeine to morphine?

A

CYP 2D6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What’s the structure of bilirubin?

A

It’s a a tetrapyrrole - an open chain of 4 pyrrole rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where is bilirubin usually produced?

A

In the spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What cells are responsible for the breakdown of senescent RBCs?

A

Macrophages

77
Q

What haem breakdown product do macrophages make?

A

Biliverdin

78
Q

What colour is bilirubin?

A

Yellow

79
Q

What happens to bilirubin when exposed to light?

A

Some of the double-bonds isomerise

80
Q

What isomer of bilirubin is more soluble?

A

The E,E-isomer

81
Q

Which isomer of bilirubin is less soluble

A

The Z,Z-isomer

82
Q

What’s the clinical application of bilirubin isomerisation?

A

Phototherapy for jaundices newborns

83
Q

What are the two chemical forms of bilirubin?

A

Conjugated and unconjugated

84
Q

What’s another name for conjugated bilirubin?

A

Direct

85
Q

What’s another name for unconjugated bilirubin?

A

Indirect

86
Q

In which form is bilirubin excreted in bile?

A

Conjugated - as glucuronide

87
Q

What toxicity does bilirubin have in high levels, and in which population?

A

Neurotoxicity in newborns

88
Q

What’s the name for bilirubin-induced neurotoxicity?

A

Kernicterus

89
Q

What gives rise to jaundice?

A

Hyperbilirubinaemia

90
Q

What things can cause elevated bilirubin?

A

Neonatal hyperbilirubinaemiaBile duct obstructionSevere liver failure w/ cirrhosisCriger-Najjar syndromeDubin-Johnson syndromeCholedocholithiasis

91
Q

What is urobilinogen?

A

The colourless product of bilirubin reduction

92
Q

How & where is urobilinogen formed?

A

In the intestines by bacterial action

93
Q

What constitutes the normal enterohepatic urobilinogen cycle?

A

Some of the urobilinogen is reabsorbed from the gut and then excreted by the kidney

94
Q

How many Australians have health problems related to risky alcohol consumption?

A

2-3 million

95
Q

WHat proportion of Australians exhibit alcohol-induced Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome

A

2%

96
Q

What is the primary organ of alcohol damage?

A

The liver

97
Q

What stages of damage does the liver progress through?

A

Fatty infiltrationAlcoholic hepatitisCirrhosis

98
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A

Irreversible fibrous degradation of the liver

99
Q

What’s the most significant pathway for alcohol breakdown?

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase

100
Q

What’s the inducible system of alcohol breakdown?

A

MEOS - Microsomal ethanol oxidising system

101
Q

What is the enzyme involved in MEOS?

A

CYP2E1

102
Q

What’s the 3rd minor system of alcohol breakdown?

A

Oxidisation via catalase

103
Q

What does aldehyde dehydrogenase do?

A

Converts acetaldehyde to acetate

104
Q

What are the two fates of acetate?

A

Oxidisation for energy via the TCA cycleConverted to fat

105
Q

At what rate do most humans clear alcohol?

A

10g per houror .015% BAC per hour

106
Q

T/F: Addiction to alcohol is always due to inherited predispostition

A

False - there’s multiple causes, but inherited predisposition is one of them

107
Q

What are some ways to treat alcohol addiction?

A

Drugs that make alcohol less pleasurable to drink

108
Q

T/F: Immense economic and social damage is caused by alcohol

A

TRUE

109
Q

T/F: People who abstain from alcohol have better health and longevity

A

False - research suggests moderate drinkers are healthier

110
Q

What two processes are linked by metabolism?

A

Catabolism & anabolism

111
Q

What does catabolism refer to?

A

The breakdown of biomolecules (including food)

112
Q

What does anabolism refer to?

A

The synthesis of biomolecules (including protein)

113
Q

What are the two main “energy carrying” intermediates in metabolism

A

ATP & NADH

114
Q

ATP vs NADH. Which is the low-energy intermediate?

A

ATP

115
Q

ATP vs NADH. Which is the high-energy intermediate?

A

NADH

116
Q

How many kJ/mol is ATP?

A

30.5

117
Q

How many kJ/mol is NADH?

A

220

118
Q

How many ATPs are produced in anaerobic metabolism?

A

2

119
Q

How many ATPs are produced in aerobic metabolism?

A

32

120
Q

In what form is the fasting reserve of glucose stored?

A

Glycogen

121
Q

What are the two main families of sugars?

A

Aldose and ketose

122
Q

What are some examples of aldose sugars (2)

A

GlucoseGalactose

123
Q

What’s an example of a ketose sugar?

A

Fructose

124
Q

What proteins are the transporter of sugar into cells?

A

GLUTs

125
Q

How many members of the GLUT family are there?

A

12

126
Q

Which GLUT is universal?

A

GLUT1

127
Q

Which GLUT is found on cells of the liver and pancreas?

A

GLUT2

128
Q

Which GLUT is found on myocytes and adipocytes?

A

GLUT4

129
Q

Which GLUT’s translocation is dependent on insulin?

A

GLUT4

130
Q

Problems with which GLUT plays a major role in diabetic hyperglycaemia?

A

GLUT4

131
Q

What byproduct comes from anaerobic glycolysis?

A

Lactate

132
Q

Which cells are obliged to perform anaerobic metabolism and why?

A

RBCs as they have no mitochondria

133
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

The generation of glucose from glycerol or AAs

134
Q

Can fat be used for gluconeogenesis?

A

No

135
Q

What sugar in processed food is correlated with increased obesity?

A

Fructose! ;)

136
Q

How many mitochondria does a healthy cell have?

A

200-10,000

137
Q

How many mitochondria do liver cells have?

A

~1,000

138
Q

Define syncytium

A

A multinucleated cell formed by the fusion of many cells

139
Q

What’s are some examples of syncytium?

A

Skeletal muscleGiant cells

140
Q

What’s the evolutionary background of mitochondria?

A

They’re endosymbiotic bacteria

141
Q

How long ago was mitochondrial bacteria incorporated into eukaryotes?

A

2 billion years

142
Q

What processes take place in the mitochondria?

A

Acetyl Coa productionKetone body synthesisTCAOxidative phosphorylation

143
Q

Mitochondria can make Acetyl CoA from which substrates? (2)

A

PyruvateFatty acid oxidation

144
Q

The TCA cycle is aka?

A

Krebs cycle

145
Q

What are ketone bodies synthesised from?

A

Acetyl CoA via HMG-CoA

146
Q

Which cells lack mitochondria?

A

RBCs and the retina

147
Q

What happens when electrons leak from the electron transport chain?

A

They create ROSs

148
Q

What process can explain many of the infirmities of age?

A

ROS damage - including loss of mitochondria

149
Q

What causes mitochondrial diseases?

A

Mutations in mitochondria or nuclear DNA

150
Q

What’s the pathological appearance of many mitochondrial diseases?

A

Ragged red fibres

151
Q

InfectionInherited abnormalities& ______ are major causes of disease?

A

Faulty nutrition (over & under)

152
Q

What is macronutrition?

A

The study of obtaining energy to fuel normal activity

153
Q

How many Joules does the typical adult need per day?

A

10MJ

154
Q

In what form is the 10MJ of energy lost?

A

Heat

155
Q

What is BMR?

A

The minimum energy required to sustain life

156
Q

Can BMR be measured?

A

Yes

157
Q

Exercise is usually less than __% of energy expenditure?

A

40%

158
Q

What anatomical structures do humans have that define us as omnivores?

A

DentalGut

159
Q

Archeological evidence shows healthy homonid skeletons from the hunter-gatherers of 30,000 years ago - what does Graham think this indicates?

A

That “caveman” diets may be our evolutionary optimum

160
Q

Do different populations have different dietary needs?

A

Sort of - lactose intolerance is an example

161
Q

What’s out cheapest and most abundant fuel?

A

CHOs

162
Q

What diseases does fibre protect us from (2)

A

DiverticulosisHaemorrhoids

163
Q

What disease is fibre unlikely to protect us from (despite common belief?)

A

Cancer

164
Q

Why are low GI diets recommended?

A

They avoid high glucose levels that can encourage insulin resistance

165
Q

We need to eat protein for which two reasons?

A

For energyFor biosynthesis of all structural components and enzymes for metabolism

166
Q

What molecule has the most complex digestive process?

A

Protein

167
Q

What are the (basic) steps of protein digestion?

A

DenatureRender to AAsTransport AAs via gut transporters

168
Q

What are the branched chain AAs?

A

ValineLeucineIsoleucine

169
Q

Which AA’s transaminate in muscles?

A

The branched chain ones

170
Q

Is there any evidence that branched-chain AAs improve sports performance?

A

No

171
Q

How many grams of protein do we make & breakdown daily?

A

300

172
Q

What proportion of the protein we break down gets recycled?

A

200g

173
Q

What is the major waste product that removed excess nitrogen?

A

Urea

174
Q

Is there renal ammonia clearance?

A

Yes - some

175
Q

Are proteins stored for fuel?

A

No

176
Q

Can protein be used for fuel?

A

Yes

177
Q

What are the products of protein breakdown? (2)

A

Glucose and ketone bodies

178
Q

Define vitamin

A

An organic compound, not made by the body but with essential biochemical functions

179
Q

Which are the fat soluble vitamins?

A

A, D, E, K

180
Q

What are the water soluble vitamins?

A

Thiamin - B1Riboflavin - B2Niacin - B3Pyridoxine - B6Pantothenic acidBiotinFolateCobalamin (B12)Ascorbic acid (vit C)

181
Q

In what situations should we consider vitamin deficiencies?

A

Unusual dietsPeriods of growthDiseaseDeveloping countries

182
Q

What are the major minerals required by the body? (6)

A

SodiumPotassiumCalciumPhosphorusMagnesiumSulphate

183
Q

What are the trace minerals required by the body? (7)

A

IronZincCopperManganeseFluorideChromiumMolybdenum

184
Q

What things affect the trace mineral content of foods

A

Soil & water composition

185
Q

What’s the most common result of mineral deficiency in children?

A

Failure to grow & thrive

186
Q

How is BMI calculated?

A

kg/m^2

187
Q

What BMI is considered underweight?

A

<18.5

188
Q

What BMI is considered normal weight?

A

18.5-25

189
Q

What BMI is considered overweight?

A

25-30

Metabolism (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions