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High Yield Comlex > Combank questions > Flashcards

Combank questions Flashcards

1
Q

Disease characterized by destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts, portal inflammation and scarring.

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis (anti-mitochondrial antibodies)

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2
Q

Characterized by asthmatic wheezing, flushing, diarrhea, right sided heart dysfunction, can sometimes be mistaken for IBD

A

Carcinoid syndrome

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3
Q

This drug in TB treatment regimen is associated with red-green colorblindness

A

Ethambutol

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4
Q

Labs for Wilson’s Disease

A

Copper increased

Ceruloplasmin decreased

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5
Q

Craniosacral flexion the sacrum moves…

A

posterior

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6
Q

This cranial technique is known for increasing the CRI

A

CV4 technique

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7
Q

This nucleus receives auditory input from the superior olive and inferior colliculus

A

Medial geniculate body

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8
Q

3 causes of non-anion gap acidosis

A

diarrhea, hyperchloremia, renal tubular acidosis

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9
Q

Causes of anion-gap acidosis (MUDPILES)

A

Methanol, uremia, DKA, propylene glycol, isoniazid, lactic acidosis, ethanol/ethylene glycol, salicylates

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10
Q

How is McArdle disease managed?

A

Oral ingestion of sucrose before exercise

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11
Q

antidote for TCA abuse

A

sodium bicarbonate

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12
Q

Essential thrombocytosis presents with these 3 symptoms

A

Headache, Lower extremity pain, GI bleeds

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13
Q

Right vagus affected: uvula deviates to the

A

left

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14
Q

gastritis w/ watery diarrhea in kids <2

A

Rotavirus

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15
Q

Kluver Bucy syndrome

A

bilateral amygdala lesions, hypersexuality, hyperorality, docile

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16
Q

DOC in initial HTN with coexisting DM

A

ACE inhibitor

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17
Q

Dermatological manifestation of Celiac disease

A

Dermatitis herpeteformis (knees, buttocks, neck)

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18
Q

1st phenotypic sign of puberty in females is

A

thelarche (breast bud)

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19
Q

Calculation for renal plasma flow

A

RPF= (Urine PAH)(urine flow rate) / plasma PAH

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20
Q

Calculation for renal blood flow

A

RBF= RPF / 1- Hct

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21
Q

Pancreatic tumor causing copious diarrhea

A

VIP-oma

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22
Q

Brain structure injured in alcoholic Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Mammillary bodies

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23
Q

Cranial torsion occurs about what axis?

A

A-P axis

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24
Q

1 cause of mitral valve stenosis

A

Rheumatic fever

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25
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by:

A
  1. RVH
  2. Pulmonic stenosis
  3. Overriding aorta
  4. VSD
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26
Q

Direction of shunt causing cyanosis

A

R–>L

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27
Q

Direction of shunt causing pulmonary HTN

A

L–>R

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28
Q

The dura moves cephalad during what cranial movement?

A

Flexion

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29
Q

Heart murmur associated with carcinoid syndrome

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

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30
Q

Volume of air in lungs before you take a breath

A

FRC

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31
Q

Teichoic acid, which induces IL-1 and TNF alpha is specific for this type of bacteria

A

Gram +

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32
Q

Nerve tested by the Tredelenburg test

A

Superior gluteal : medius and minimus

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33
Q

Two types of receptors on the pupil and what happens during stimulation of them?

A

M3 and alpha 1

Stimulation of M3: miosis

Stimulation of alpha 1: mydriasis

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34
Q

Medulla is formed from the

A

myelencephalon

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35
Q

Midbrain is formed from the

A

mesencephalon

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36
Q

cerebellum and pons are formed from the

A

metencephalon

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37
Q

Androgen deprivator given in advanced prostate CA

A

Flutamide

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38
Q

Myocarditis, achalasia, megacolon are symptoms of

A

Chagas disease

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39
Q

Muscle of mastication that opens the mouth

A

Lateral pterygoid

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40
Q

Muscles of mastication that close the mouth

A

Masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid

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41
Q

Diameter of a positive TB test in the general population

A

> 15 mm

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42
Q

Diameter of a positive TB test in immigrants, healthcare workers, IVDU, prisons, kids <4

A

> 10 mm

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43
Q

Diameter of positive TB test in HIV, TB, transplants, immunosuppressed

A

> 5 mm

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44
Q

Charcot leyden crystals, eosinophils, “loeffler syndrome” are seen in

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

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45
Q

Bacteria with anti-erythrocyte antibodies

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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46
Q

A cranial lateral strain occurs about what axes?

A

2 vertical axes

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47
Q

Tx for H. pylori

A

PPI + 2 Abx (metronidazole, clindamycin/tetracycline)

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48
Q

Can you detect Legionella in urine samples?

A

Yea mannn

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49
Q

Lack of mature B cells and opsonization

A

Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

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50
Q

Baby can’t have formula, need fructose free diet

A

Hereditary fructose intolerance: deficiency of aldolase B

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51
Q

EKG pattern of progressively longer PR intervals until there is a dropped QRS

A

Mobitz I (wenkebach)

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52
Q

EKG pattern of dropped QRS with no change in PR intervals

A

Mobitz II

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53
Q

Which way will the trachea deviate in a tension pneumothorax?

A

opposite to the pneumothorax

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54
Q

Benign buildup of unconjugated bilirubin due to decreased activity of glucouronyl transferase

A

Gilbert’s disease

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55
Q

Buildup of conjugated bilirubin, jaundice after fasting states. Decreased ability to transport bilirubin into bile canaliculi

A

Rotor syndrome

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56
Q

Blood type A is associated with what GI disorder?

A

Gastric carcinoma

57
Q

Blood type O is associated with what GI disorder?

A

Peptic ulcer disease

58
Q

Kyphoscoliosis, nystagmus, hammer toes, pes cavus, GAA repeats

A

Friedrich ataxia

59
Q

Signs of acute tubular necrosis

A

hematuria, edema, tea-colored urine, granular casts, tubular cells

60
Q

Rotator cuff muscles that externally rotate the arm

A

infraspinatus and teres minor

61
Q

Rotator cuff muscle that internally rotates the arm

A

subscapularis

62
Q

PTH increases calcium absorption in what part of the nephron?

A

distal convoluted tubule

63
Q

3 drugs proven to increase survival in CHF

A

Beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, Spironolactone

64
Q

Type 1 hyperlipidemia is characterized by a deficiency in this enzyme:

A

lipoprotein lipase; thus there is an increase in chylomicrons, VLDL and trigs. Decrease in LDL and HDL. These patients are at risk for pancreatitis.

65
Q

Type III hyperlipidemia, aka familial dysbetalipoproteinemia, is characterized by a deficiency in what?

A

ApoE; thus there are increased chylomicron remnants, VLDL, IDL and LDL. HDL is normal. Increased risk of CAD

66
Q

Type IIa hypercholesterolemia is due to a defect in what receptor?

A

LDL receptor on hepatocytes

67
Q

Type IIb hypercholesterolemia is due to a defect in what protein?

68
Q

Hyperglycemia, anemia, venous thrombosis and necrolytic migratory erythema are all characteristics of what type of tumor?

A

Glucagonoma

69
Q

Tx for SIADH that can consequently cause nephrogenic DI

A

demeclocycline

70
Q

plane of motion the AA moves in

A

Horizontal plane

71
Q

EKG changes in DKA

A

Peaked T waves, wide QRS and flat P waves

72
Q

In Down Syndrome, what happens to AFP, HCG, and inhibin A levels?

A

Decreased AFP, Increased HCG and increased inhibin A

73
Q

Is Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome due to decreased compliance or elastance?

A

Compliance

74
Q

anastomoses seen in esophageal varices

A

Left gastric and esophageal

75
Q

Skin cancer with the best prognosis

A

Basal cell carcinoma

76
Q

V/Q is high or low at the base of the lungs?

A

low at base (less than 1.0)

77
Q

V/Q is high or low at the apex of the lungs?

A

high at base (greater than 1.0)

78
Q

Membranous nephropathy is associated with what histological finding?

A

spike and dome IgG

79
Q

Following a viral URI, this finding includes abdominal pain, hematuria, arthritis. Kids 3-15, there are IgA deposits in mesangium.

A

Henoch Schonlen purpura

80
Q

Elevated dopamine occurs in what psychiatric disease?

A

Schizophrenia

81
Q

Immune disease in kids with albinism, pyrogenic infections, neurologic abnormalities and coagulation defecits

A

Chediak Higashi syndrome: abnormal fusion of phagosome to lysosome

82
Q

REM sleep is initiated and decreased by these neurotransmitters

A

Initiated: acetylcholine
Reduced: Norepinephrine

83
Q

Disease with Anti-Jo 1 antibodies

A

polymyositis

84
Q

Birth defects caused by phenytoin

A

skull, face abnormalities, hypoplasia of fingers and toes

85
Q

Broca’s aphasia is located in which region of the brain?

A

left Frontal lobe

86
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia is located in which region of the brain?

A

left Superior temporal lobe

87
Q

If the left MCA infarcts you get aphasias; what happens if the right MCA infarcts?

A

left neglect syndrome

88
Q

Brown sequard (hemisection) does what to tough/vibration/proprioception?

A

Defect is ipsilateral

89
Q

Brown Sequard hemisection affects what side for pain/temp?

A

Defect is contralateral

90
Q

Brown sequard hemisection causes spastic paralysis on what side?

A

ipsilateral below the injury

91
Q

GAA repeats, nystagmus, pes cavus, hammer toes, hypertropic cardiomyopathy

A

Fredriech ataxia

92
Q

Sidebending-rotation cranial motion occurs about what axis?

A

1 AP axis and 2 vertical axes

93
Q

An increase in hydrostatic pressure in Bowman’s space is caused by what?

A

Post-glomerular obstruction

94
Q

receptor on chylomicrons that recognizes LDL

95
Q

X linked recessive disease characterized by thrombocytopenia, ezcema, infections

A

Wiskott Aldrich syndrome

96
Q

nerve that innervates and pierces pronator teres

A

median nerve

97
Q

Mental retardation, hamartomas in retina, cardiac rhabdomyomas, seizures, facial angiofobromas, “ash leaf” spots

A

Tuberous sclerosis

98
Q

Why is neisseria more susceptible to membrane attack complex?

A

LOS instead of LPS

99
Q

MEN 1: (3P)

A

Pancreatic, pituitary and parathyroid tumors.

Sx: ulcers, kidney stones, headaches, vision changes

100
Q

Hereditary angioedema is a deficiency in what part of complement?

A

C1-inhibitor

101
Q

MEN 2A:

A

Medullary thyroid, pheochromocytoma, parathyroid tumors

102
Q

MEN 2B:

A

Medullary thyroid, pheochromocytoma, Marfan’s

103
Q

This drug is responsible for Placental Abruption and causes IUGR

104
Q

This type of colon polyp is most concerning for a malignancy

A

Villous type

105
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis is characterized by a deficiency in what protein?

106
Q

Cervical intraepithelial neoplastic changes most often occur where?

A

Basal layer of the squamocolumnar junction

107
Q

Acute tublar necrosis results in what EKG change?

A

Peaked T waves

108
Q

These physiologic states can increase digoxin toxicity

A

Hypercalcemia and Hypokalemia

109
Q

Myotonic dystrophy is a repeat of this nucleotide and is caused by this genetic event

A

CTG repeats

Caused by instability during maternal meiosis

110
Q

EKG changes seen with Hyperkalemia

A

Flat P waves, Wide QRS, Peaked T waves

111
Q

EKG changes seen in Hypokalemia

A

Flat or inverted T waves, U waves, ST depression

112
Q

What cardio effect can macrolide abx have?

A

Prolonged QT

113
Q

MOA of curare and its derivatives like rocuronium

A

competitive antagonist at acetylcholine receptors

114
Q

MOA of the drug treating pulm HTN, bosentan

A

competitively antagonize endothelin 1 receptors

115
Q

DOC for cryptococcus meningitis

A

Amphotercin B (binds to ergosterol to form pores in membranes)

116
Q

Birefringence patterns of gout and pseudogout respectively

A

Gout=negative; pseudogout=positive

117
Q

First sign of magnesium toxicity

A

decreased deep tendon reflexes

118
Q

Dose limiting side effect of chlozapine

A

Agranulocytosis

119
Q

Benzodiazepine that is safe in liver failure because it is not metabolized there

120
Q

Serotonin is the primary NT in this area of the brain

A

raphe nucleus

121
Q

NE is the primary NT in this area of the brain

A

locus ceruleus

122
Q

tx oculogyric dystonic crisis caused by antipsychotic use

A

Diphenhydramine, benztropine or amantadine

123
Q

What is Courvosier’s sign and what does it indicate?

A

enlarged palpable painless gallbladder, can be in presence of jaundice. Assoc with Pancreatic Ca

124
Q

how do you diagnose pancreatic cancer?

A

Ca 19-9 and CT

125
Q

lesion in subthalamic nucleus gives you what sx?

A

contralateral hemiballismus

126
Q

what do macrolides do to p450?

127
Q

what does rifampin do to p450?

128
Q

parathyroid hyperplasia, pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid carcinoma. Hypercalcemia, osteopenia, high calcitonin

129
Q

CCK acts through what kind of receptor

A

Gq –> phospholipase C

130
Q

eosinophilic hyaline inclusion bodies are AKA?

A

Mallory bodies (alcoholic hepatitis)

131
Q

what structure connects the lateral and the 3rd ventricle?

A

foramen of monro

132
Q

what structure connects the 3rd and 4th ventricles?

A

aqueduct of sylvius

133
Q

what is medicare part A responsible for?

A

Hospital, skilled nursing, hospice, home health

134
Q

what is medicare part B responsible for?

A

outpatient care, dr offices, physical and occupational therapy

135
Q

what is medicare part D responsible for?

136
Q

Raising the threshold for a positive screening test (i.e. making a + glucose test 130 instead of 126) has what effect?

A

Increases specificity (creates more positives, meaning fewer false positives. Will actually decrease the sensitivity because more people will test negative)

137
Q

Croup (parainfluenza) causes what type of infection and what is the Xray sign?

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis and Steeple sign on x-ray (subglottic narrowing)

138
Q

Von willebrands is characterized by what lab values?

A

prolonged bleeding time and prolonged PTT. NORMAL PT

139
Q

where does the MMA exit through the skull?

A

foramen spinosum

High Yield Comlex (9 decks)

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