Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

High Yield Comlex > Basic Path high yield > Flashcards

Basic Path high yield Flashcards

1
Q

Apoptosis requires this, which necrosis does not

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pyknosis, shrinkage, basophilia, blebbing are associated with

A

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sites of coagulative necrosis

A

Heart, liver, kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sites of liquefactive necrosis

A

Brain, abcesses, pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Causes of caseous necrosis

A

TB, fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Site of fatty necrosis

A

pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Area in brain most susceptible to ischemia

A

Watershed area: borders of ACA, MCA and PCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Area in heart most susceptible to ischemia

A

Subendocardium, LV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Area in kidney most susceptible to ischemia

A

medulla (prox tubule and TAL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Area in liver most susceptible to ischemia

A

Zone III: area surrounding central vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Area in GI tract most susceptible to ischemia

A

Splenic flexure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens to TPR, Cardiac output and body temp in Hypovolemic/cardiogenic shock?

A

Increased TPR, Decreased Cardiac output, cold and clammy skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens to TPR, cardiac output and body temp in septic shock?

A

Decreased TPR, Increased cardiac output, hot, moist skinq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Stage 1 of wound healing:

A

Inflammatory: platelets, neutrophils, macrophages, increased permeability, migration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Stage 2 of wound healing

A

Proliferative: fibroblasts, endothelial cells, keratinocytes, granular tissue, angiogenesis, dissolution of clot, would contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Stage 3 of wound healing

A

Remodeling: fibroblasts, type III collagen replaced by type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diseases involving granulomas

A

TB, Sarcoidosis, Crohns, Silicosis, Wegeners, Churg Strauss, M. leprae, B, henslae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Characteristics of transudate

A

Low amount of cells, low protein, SG<1.012, increased hydrostatic pressure, decreased oncotic pressure, sodium retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Characteristics of exudate

A

High amount of cells, high protein, SG>1.020

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Primary amyloidosis is characterized by deposition of what

A

Ig light chains, ex: multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Neoplasia where cells haven’t invaded basement membrane

A

Carcinoma in situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hyperplasia, metaplasia and dysplasia are all

A

reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Anaplasia, desmoplasia, neoplasia are all

A

irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cachexia is mediated by these cytokines

A

TNF alpha, IFN gamma, IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Barrett’s esophagus is associated with

A

esophageal adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Oncogene gaining function in MEN2A and 2B

27
Q

Oncogene gaining function in colon carcinoma

28
Q

Oncogene gaining function in follicular lymphoma

A

bcl-2 (antiapoptotic)

29
Q

Oncogene gaining function in Burkitt lymphoma

30
Q

Oncogene gaining function in CML

31
Q

Tumor suppressor gene losing function in retinoblastoma

A

Rb (inhibits EF-2)

32
Q

Tumor suppressor gene losing function in many cancers, Li Fraumeni syndrome

A

p53 (blocks G1–>S)

33
Q

Tumor suppressor gene losing function in colorectal cancer

34
Q

Tumor suppressor gene losing function in melanoma

35
Q

Tumor marker for Hepatocellular carcinoma and germ cell tumors

A

Alpha fetoprotein

36
Q

Tumor marker for pancreatic adenocarcinoma

37
Q

Tumor marker for ovarian cancer

38
Q

Ectopic ACTH (Cushings syndrome), SIADH, Lambert eaton syndrome are all paraneoplastic syndromes resulting from what cancer?

A

Small cell lung carcinoma

39
Q

Psammoma bodies are found in these 4 tumors:

A

Papillary adenocarcinoma of the thyroid, meningioma, mesothelioma, serous papillary cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary

40
Q

Top 3 incidences of cancer:

A
  1. Breast/prostate; 2. Lung; 3. Colorectal
41
Q

Top 3 cancer mortalities

A
  1. Lung; 2. Breast/prostate; 3. colorectal
42
Q

Most common cancer to metastasize to brain

43
Q

Most common cancer to metastasize to liver

44
Q

Most common cancer to metastasize to bone

A

Prostate/breast

45
Q

Single breaks in two acrocentric chromosomes resulting in one large and one small chromosome accompanied by a loss of genetic info, common in Down Syndrome

A

Robertsonian translocation

46
Q

Effect of Bcl-2 on apoptosis

A

inhibits apoptosis and keeps cell alive

47
Q

effect of bax on apoptosis

A

facilitates apoptosis

48
Q

TNF alpha and FAS (CD95) are AKA what?

A

Death receptors, binding facilitates apoptosis

49
Q

type of calcification in tissues caused by hypercalcemia

A

metastatic calcification

50
Q

type of calcification in previously damaged tissue with no elevation in serum Ca

A

dystropic calcification

51
Q

wear and tear pigment, yellowish, fat soluble

A

lipofuscin

52
Q

2 groups of cell adhesion molecules that bind leukocytes to endothelial cells

A

ICAM (on endothelial) and integrins (on leukocytes)

53
Q

5 chemotactic factors for neutrophils

A

C5a, LTB4, IL-8, bacterial products and fibrin split products

54
Q

2 major pathways in arachidonic acid metabolism

A

cyclooxygenase pathway and lipooxygenase path

55
Q

type of inflammation characterized by epithelioid histiocytes and giant cells

A

granulomatous inflammation

56
Q

what is virchow’s triad?

A

3 influences on thrombus formation: hypercoagulability, venous stasis and endothelial injury

57
Q

5 factors promoting platelet aggregation

A

TXA2, ADP, thrombin, collagen, platelet activating factor

58
Q

product of the COX pathway limiting further platelet aggregation

59
Q

Vitamin K dependent clotting factors (and thus affected by warfarin)

A

factors 2,7,9,10, protein C and S

60
Q

factors inhibited by antithrombin 3

A

thrombin, factors 9-12

61
Q

fibrinolytic protease

62
Q

what converts plasminogen to plasmin

63
Q

what do lines of Zahn indicate?

A

arterial thrombus, the lines are from bloodflow

64
Q

venous thrombus that gains access to arterial circulation through a right-to-left shunt

A

paradoxical embolus

High Yield Comlex (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions