Cognition and Consciousness Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

How does the cognitive perspective of psychology attempt to understand psychology?

A

How people think

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Does the cognitive perspective of psychology oppose or support the idea that an environmental stimulus alone evokes a behavioural response?

A

Opposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What intervening variable does the cognitive perspective of psychology include in the idea that an environmental stimulus alone evokes a behavioural response? What does this allow for?

A

The intelligence serves as an intermediary step; allows for the brain to interpret sensory information and respond accordingly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the information processing model?

A

A conceptual framework to describe how mental processes affect behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is another name for sensory memory?

A

Sensory register

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long does sensory memory record information?

A

Less than a second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where does information enter the sensory registry?

A

Sensory organs such as the eyes, ears, nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where does processed information that entered the sensory memory go?

A

Working memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is attention?

A

The process of concentrating on a select amount of information from a wide range of available information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two types of attention?

A

Selective attention and divided attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is selective attention?

A

A choice is made to concentrate on a particular stimulus and to ignore the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

That is the cocktail party effect?

A

When attending a party, there are many conversations occurring, but due to selective attention, you are able to focus on only one conversation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is searching in selective attention?

A

Scanning the environment for a target stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are distractors in attention?

A

Irrelevant stimuli that divert attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the four theories regarding how easily a target stimulus can be found?

A

Display size effect, feature integration theory, similarity theory, and guided search theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the display size effect?

A

Refers to the relation between the number of distractors in an array and the time required to locate a target stimulus among them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the feature integration theory?

A

States that it is easier to perform a feature search than it is to perform a conjunction search

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a feature search?

A

A target stimulus is found by scanning for a single, distinct feature among the distractors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a conjunction search?

A

The target stimulus is found by scanning for a combination of feature among distractors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the similarity theory of search?

A

The more similar the target stimulus is to the distractors stimuli, the more difficult the search will be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two stages of the guided search theory?

A

1) developing a mental representation of the target

2) evaluating all of the activated energies to find the target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens in divided attention?

A

Your concentration is split between performing two or more tasks or inputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is another term for inattentional blindness?

A

Perceptual blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is inattentional blindness?

A

Refers to the inability to see something in plain sight because of attending to another stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is change blindness?

A

A person’s inability to detect visual changes in a scene that he or she is directly looking at

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the Stroop effect?

A

A phenomenon that demonstrates the problem with selective attention. Once a controlled task becomes automated through practice, there are not only benefits but errors associated with increased processing speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?

A

A psychological condition characterized by a failure to give close attention to details as well as an inability to sustain attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the three main symptoms of ADHD?

A

Hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is another name for spatial neglect?

A

Hemi- neglect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of disorder is spatial neglect? What is this disorder characterised by?

A

Attentional dysfunction; characterized by a lack of attention paid to the contralateral aspect of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Any information that we accumulate is organised in our minds as a?

A

Concept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a concept in our minds?

A

A mental representation through which we understand the world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a category in the mind?

A

Multiple concepts that have similar characteristics are grouped together in the mind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the two types of categories?

A

Natural and artifact categories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are natural categories?

A

Groupings that occur in the natural world and have predictable properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are artifact categories?

A

Human made groupings with ambiguous, imprecise boundaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is an example of a natural category?

A

Trees, clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is an example of an artifact boundary?

A

Furniture, clothes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How are categories labelled? Example?

A

Not too general, not too specific; apples for a red/green/yellow fruit on a tree but not Gala apples or too vague like fruit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the four main theories regarding how a concept becomes a part of a category?

A

Feature based theory, prototype theory, exemplar based theory, and theory based view of meaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the feature based theory?

A

Concepts are placed into categories based on their defining features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How are concepts grouped in the prototype theory?

A

Concepts are grouped together by their degree of similarity to a prototype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the ideal or average model based on what we have previously encountered?

A

Prototype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A concept is considered to be part of the prototype theory if it is part of a category based on its?

A

Graded membership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a graded membership in the prototype theory?

A

An object is a better member if it is more similar to the prototype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How does the exemplar based learning theory group concepts together?

A

Concepts are grouped together based on their degree of similarity to an exemplar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is an exemplar?

A

A specific remembered instance that is most typically thought of when a category is mentioned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How does the theory based view of meaning place concepts into categories?

A

Based on a general idea constructed from an experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Does the theory based view of meaning construct categories based on resemblance?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How is knowledge in the form of concepts and categories organised within the mind?

A

Schema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a broad pattern of what is normal in a given situation?

A

Schema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a general depiction of everything that is supposed to happen in a given situation and how to react?

A

Schema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a fixed generalised belief about a particular concept?

A

Stereotypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is an example of a schema that contains the order in which things should occur?

A

Script

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the series of events that eventually lead to the solution?

A

Problem solving cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the seven steps of the problem solving cycle?

A

1) Identify problem
2) define problem
3) form strategy
4) organise information
5) allocate resources
6) monitor progress
7) evaluate results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the two types of problems?

A

Well structured problems and ill structured problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are well structured problems?

A

Have a specified goal and a path to the solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is another name for a well structured problem?

A

Well defined problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is another name for an ill structured problem?

A

Ill defined problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is an ill structured problem?

A

Problems that do not have a clear path to solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In what ways can ill structured problems be solved?

A

Represented in numerous ways and have various alternative solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Every problem has what?

A

A problem space?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is a problem space?

A

A set of all possible states that can be reached to obtain a solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are examples of paths to problem solving?

A

Algorithms, heuristics, analogy, trial and error, and insight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is an algorithm?

A

A series of steps that always produce the right answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are heuristics?

A

Mental shortcuts that do not guarantee a correct answer, but effectively narrow down the problem space to simplify the problem in order to speed up the process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are two types of heuristics?

A

Hill climbing strategy and means end analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the hill climb strategy of heuristics?

A

Choose the option that leads directly towards the goal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the drawback of the algorithm problem solving strategy?

A

Often time and resource consuming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the drawback of the hill climbing heuristics strategy ?

A

Sometimes you need to go backwards to get forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the means end strategy of heuristics?

A

Compare the current state to the goal state and then try to decrease this distance by available means

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How are problems approached in the means end analysis?

A

The large problem is broken down or simplified into smaller sub problems each with its individual goals to be solved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What happens in the analogy approach to problem solving?

A

A current problem is compared to an already solved problem and the solution is translated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is a trial and error problem solving strategy?

A

A problem solving strategy in which all possible solitons are tried until one works

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When applied strategies fail, what strategy may succeed?

A

Insight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is insight?

A

A sudden novel solution to a problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is another term for insight?

A

The aha moment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are two other names for a problem solving set?

A

Mental set or Einstellung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is a problem solving set?

A

The collection of beliefs and assumptions that a person makes about a problem based on previous experiences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is functional fixedness?

A

Another influence of one’s problem solving set is the tendency to be rigid in how they think about an object’s function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

A type of cognitive tendency in which people search for information that confirms their existing beliefs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is belief perseverance?

A

The tendency to stick with one’s initial beliefs, even in the face of new and contradictory information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is creativity?

A

The process of producing something innovative and valuable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What roles do assumption making and irrelevant information in problem solving?

A

Barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What two types of thinking is associated with his or her creativity?

A

Convergent thinking and divergent thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is convergent thinking?

A

Narrows down the possibilities to find one answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is divergent thinking?

A

Attempts to generate a variety of ideas to a problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are Wallas’ four stages of creativity?

A

1) preparation
2) incubation
3) illumination
4) verification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the preparation stage of Wallas’ stages of creativity?

A

Information is gathered about the problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the incubation stage of Wallas’ stages of creativity?

A

The problem is momentarily set aside and processed unconsciously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the illumination stage of Wallas’ stages of creativity?

A

A key insight into solving the problem is suddenly realised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the verification stage of Wallas’ stages of creativity?

A

The creative thinker confirms the new idea does lead to the problems solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What perspective does the most basic model use to describe the process of decision making?

A

Economic perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

From the economic perspective of cognitive processes, what is subjective utility?

A

Refers to an individuals judged value of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

From the economic perspective of cognitive processes, what is subjective probability?

A

An individual’s estimated likelihood of the events occurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the equation to find the expected value of a choice?

A

Expected value =

Subjective utility) (subjective probability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are heuristics?

A

Mental strategies that sacrifice 100% guarantee of accuracy in exchange for efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are the two types of heuristics?

A

Availability heuristic and representative heuristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is an availability heuristic?

A

A judgment is made based on the perceived frequency or likelihood of an event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is a conjunction fallacy?

A

The mistaken belief that a smaller specific subset of a category is more probable than a larger, more general set

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is a representative heuristics?

A

Ones judgment is based on its similarity to the prototype of the population and its perceived randomness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the base rate in representative heuristics?

A

The prevalence of an event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is gambler’s fallacy in representative heuristics?

A

Gamblers believe their previous wins/losses will influence their percentage chance of winning in subsequent rounds when in fact their percentage chance of winning does not change with each round

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What term describes a tendency to think and perceive something in a particular way?

A

Cognitive biases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the three most common types of biases?

A

Illusory correlation, overconfidence, and hindsight bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is an illusory correlation?

A

Phenomenon by which people perceive a relationship between two unrelated variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is over confidence?

A

A bias in which a person’s evaluation of his or her own judgments is greater than the actual accuracy of those judgements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is another term for hindsight bias?

A

Knew it all along effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is hindsight bias?

A

The idea that when one evaluates a past event, he or she feels that the results were always predictable and should have been obvious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is framing?

A

A change in how the problem is presented that affects decision making

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are the two types of reasoning?

A

Deductive reasoning and inductive reasoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is deductive reasoning?

A

The process of reasoning from a general statement or premise to reach a logical conclusion about specific examples or instances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is inductive reasoning?

A

The process of reasoning from specific experiences or observations to form a general conclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What type of reasoning is based upon hypothetical, abstract thinking rather than concrete events

A

Deductive reasoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What type of reasoning is based on supported evidence, the conclusion is probable but not certain

A

Inductive reasoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the three cognitive theories of intelligence?

A

Multiple intelligences, triarchic theory or intelligences, and the three stratum model of intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is general intelligence? What is its symbol?

A

g; people with a higher intelligence will score higher on verbal reasoning or a spatial mathematical task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the theory of multiple intelligences?

A

Intelligence is a collection of many abilities rather than just one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is it called when a person is exceptionally skilled in one of the areas of intelligence but cannot function in another?

A

Savant syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are the eight types of intelligences?

A

Linguistic, logical mathematical, spatial, musical, bodily kinesthetic, interpersonal, interpersonal, and naturalist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the triarchic theory of intelligence? What are these components?

A

Proposes that three intelligences can contribute to cognitive ability; analytical abilities, creative abilities, and practical ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is another term for analytical abilities in the triarchic theory of intelligence?

A

Componential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is another term for creative abilities in the triarchic theory of intelligence?

A

Experiential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is another term for practical abilities in the triarchic theory of intelligence?

A

Contextual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are analytical abilities in the triarchic theory of intelligence?

A

Refer to the ability to analyse a problem and to evaluate the possible solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are creative abilities in the triarchic theory of intelligence?

A

The ability to generate novel ideas and to act adaptively in unfamiliar situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are contextual abilities in the triarchic theory of intelligence?

A

The ability to fit into a changing environment and perform everyday tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What component of the triarchic theory of intelligence is most often referred to as street smarts?

A

Practical abilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is the three stratum model of intelligence?

A

Intellectual ability is arranged in a hierarchy consisting of three strata: narrow, broad, general

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is the narrow stratum of the three stratum model of intelligence?

A

Includes specific abilities such as reading comprehension and spelling abilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is the broad stratum of the three stratum model of intelligence?

A

Includes Short term memory, retrieval ability and information processing speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What two types of intelligence are included in the broad stratum of the three stratum model of intelligence?

A

Crystallised intelligence and fluid intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is crystallised intelligence?

A

Information acquired over a life time through experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is fluid intelligence?

A

The ability to apply basic information processing skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is included in the general stratum of the three stratum model of intelligence?

A

Contains the g factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is the most common measure of intelligence?

A

Intelligence quotient (IQ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is the equation to find a person’s IQ?

A

IQ= 100* (mental age)/(chronological age)

139
Q

What is the mental age of a person?

A

The chronological age that most typically corresponds with their level of performance

140
Q

What is the average person’s IQ?

A

Between 85 and 115

141
Q

What are the four stages of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?

A

1) sensorimotor stage
2) preoperational stage
3) concrete operational stage
4) formal operational stage

142
Q

How long does the sensorimotor stage last?

A

Birth to acquisition of language (about 2 years old)

143
Q

What happens during the sensorimotor stage of development in Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development?

A

Babies attempt to understand the world through exploring it

144
Q

What is the main developmental phenomenon in the sensorimotor stage of development?

A

Object permanence

145
Q

What is object permanence?

A

The awareness that objects continue to exist even when not perceived

146
Q

During what stage of cognitive development does stranger anxiety develop?

A

Sensorimotor stage

147
Q

What is stranger anxiety? When does it occur?

A

When babies become more socialised (8 months) they begin to show fear, anxiety and distress toward unfamiliar faces

148
Q

During what age does the preoperational stage range?

A

Age 2 to 6 or 7 years old

149
Q

What happens during the preoperational stage of development in Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development?

A

Children are not yet able to perform mental operations such as reasoning and begin to think in terms of images

150
Q

During what stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development do children begin to show signs of pretend and play and assign roles?

A

Preoperational stage

151
Q

During what stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development are children considered egocentric?

A

Preoperational stage

152
Q

What is egocentric?

A

They have difficulty perceiving other’s viewpoints

153
Q

During the preoperational stage of cognitive development, what concept do children have the inability to understand?

A

The concept of conservation

154
Q

What is conservation?

A

The concept that the quantity of a substance remains unchanged despite changes in its shape

155
Q

Near the end of the preoperational stage, what do children begin to develop?

A

Theory of mind

156
Q

What is a theory of mind?

A

An ability to infer another person’s mental state and thus predict their behaviour

157
Q

How long does the concrete operational stage last?

A

From seven years to eleven years old

158
Q

What characterises the concrete operational stage of development in Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development?

A

The ability to think logically about concrete events but the inability to comprehend hypothetical or abstract concepts

159
Q

During what stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development does the concept of conservation develop?

A

Concrete operational stage

160
Q

During what stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development are children first capable of inductive reasoning?

A

Concrete operational stage

161
Q

During what stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development are children capable of inductive reasoning?

A

Concrete operational stage

162
Q

During what stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development are children able to fully envision the perspective of another individual?

A

Concrete operational stage

163
Q

When is the formal operational stage?

A

Age 12 to adulthood

164
Q

During what stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development are children able to use deductive reasoning?

A

Formal operational stage

165
Q

What happens during the formal operational stage of development in Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development?

A

Children are able to think logically about abstract and hypothetical instances; capable of deductive reasoning

166
Q

What describes the directional changes in cognitive development during adulthood?

A

Multidirectional

167
Q

What cognitive abilities tend to decline with age?

A

Attention and memory

168
Q

A person’s ability to attend to the environment is a basic mental process that facilitates other _____ cognitive processes.

A

Higher order

169
Q

A person’s working memory is a cognitive process that allows for the dynamic manipulation of ____

A

Information that is currently on the mind

170
Q

What happens to fluid intelligence with age?

A

It declines

171
Q

What happens to crystallised intelligence with age?

A

It increases

172
Q

What three factors further influence cognitive development?

A

Culture, heredity and environment

173
Q

What does the cultural perspective of cognitive development recognise?

A

Children grow up within a social context surrounded by symbols, language, and material objects

174
Q

How does the cultural perspective suggest that people develop perception, attention, and memory?

A

Infants are born with rudimentary mental processes (perception, attention, and memory) however through culture, these develop into higher order processes

175
Q

How does the cultural perspective of cognitive development suggest we develop mental processes differently?

A

Based on our differences in culture we have different developments of mental processes

176
Q

What are the effects of heredity on cognitive development?

A

The differences in thinking associated with a person’s genetic makeup

177
Q

Does heredity or environment play a larger role in cognitive development?

A

Heredity but environment is very important too and accounts for factors such as economic status and learning opportunities

178
Q

How a person perceives, thinks, evaluates, and plans is believed to originate in structures of the?

A

Brain

179
Q

Describe the structure of the cerebral cortex. What does the cerebral cortex play a role in?

A

A thin layer or tissue that covers both hemispheres of the brain and has numerous folds to increase surface area. Plays a large role in cognition

180
Q

The larger the cerebral cortex the _____ functioning cognition

A

Better

181
Q

What disease is characterized by a loss of neurons and general atrophy leading to a cognitive deficit?

A

Alzheimer’s

182
Q

What is a vascular accident marked by stoppage of blood flow to part of the brain

A

A stroke

183
Q

What is another term for neoplasms?

A

Brain tumours

184
Q

What are growths located in certain areas of the brain that can cause severe cognitive dysfunction?

A

Brain tumours

185
Q

What neurological deficits can strokes cause?

A

Can cause severe cognitive dysfunction leading to problems with memory and attention; changes in perception of vision and hearing

186
Q

If a patient experiences damage to the prefrontal cortex, what types processes can be impaired?

A

Judgement, decision making, and working memory

187
Q

What does language play a role in?

A

Perception, memory, and learning

188
Q

What are the three theories of language development?

A

Learning perspective, nativist perspective, and interactionist perspective

189
Q

Who created the learning perspective of language development?

A

BF Skinner

190
Q

What does the learning perspective of language development suggest?

A

Children develop the use of language through associative conditioning (classical and operant) and observational learning

191
Q

How do children initially learn to speak in the learning perspective of language development?

A

Parents reinforce the babbling of nonsense syllables when they mimic a real word (i.e. Mom coming when a sound resembles mom)

192
Q

How do individuals learn syntax by the learning perspective of language?

A

Observational learning

193
Q

What does the nativist perspective of language development suggest?

A

Language is an innate skill for which people are predisposed

194
Q

What device of the brain did the nativist perspective propose?

A

Language acquisition device (LAD)

195
Q

What is a language acquisition device?

A

An area of the brain with a set of innate transformational grammatical rules

196
Q

What does the interactionist perspective of language development suggest?

A

Language is acquired for social interaction and that children acquire new understandings based on what they want to communicate

197
Q

What area did the interactionist perspective propose?

A

Zone of proximal development (ZPD)

198
Q

What is the zone of proximal development?

A

An area of optimal learning in which a child develops language skills through child-adult interaction

199
Q

In the interactionist perspective of language development, what is scaffolding?

A

The use of superior language by a parent which challenges the child to achieve complex language more quickly

200
Q

What is linguistic relativity?

A

The idea that speakers of different languages utilise different cognitive processes that influence how they think

201
Q

What is another term for linguistic relativity?

A

Sapir-Whorf hypothesis

202
Q

What is linguistic determinism?

A

The idea that language entirely determines how we think

203
Q

What is another term for linguistic determinism

A

Strong Sapir-Whorf hypothesis

204
Q

What is the difference between linguistic relativity and linguist determinism?

A

Relativity–different language speakers use different parts of their brain which influences how they think
Determinism–language entirely determines how we think

205
Q

What are the two areas of the brain that are strongly associated with language production and comprehension?

A

Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area

206
Q

Where is the part of the brain responsible for speech production? What is this area called?

A

Left frontal lobe, Broca’s area

207
Q

What does damage to the Broca’s area region result in? What is still functional?

A

Loss of the ability to speak words, still able to comprehend words

208
Q

What is aphasia?

A

A language disorder associated with brain injury

209
Q

What is Wernicke’s area responsible for?

A

Language comprehension

210
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area located?

A

Left temporal lobe

211
Q

Are Broca’s and Wernicke’s area structures or areas?

A

Areas

212
Q

What is consciousness?

A

The awareness we have of our environment and the mental processes

213
Q

Is consciousness linear or static?

A

Neither, it is always shifting and continuous

214
Q

Naturally occurring consciousness ranges from _____ to _____ and includes ____ and ____.

A

Alertness, sleep, daydreaming, and drowsiness

215
Q

How are the states of consciousness characterized?

A

Brain waves

216
Q

What are brain waves? What are they recorded by?

A

Neural oscillations recorded by an electroencephalograph

217
Q

What are the four brain wave types characteristic of the distinctive states of consciousness

A

Beta waves, alpha waves, theta waves, and delta waves

218
Q

What wave type demonstrates alertness?

A

Beta waves

219
Q

What is alertness as a state of consciousness?

A

State of consciousness characterized by being awake; and fully aware of their environment and thoughts

220
Q

What is the frequency of beta waves?

A

13 Hz and 30 Hz

221
Q

What is daydreaming as a state of consciousness?

A

A state of consciousness in which one is awake but not fully alert

222
Q

What brain waves characterize daydreaming?

A

Alpha waves

223
Q

What is the frequency of alpha waves?

A

8 Hz and 13 Hz

224
Q

What is drowsiness as a state of consciousness?

A

A state of consciousness associated with even less awareness than daydreaming

225
Q

When is drowsiness experiences?

A

is often experienced either just before falling asleep or just after waking up

226
Q

What waves are associated with drowsiness?

A

Theta waves

227
Q

What is the frequency of theta waves?

A

Between 3 and 8 Hz

228
Q

What is sleep as a state of consciousness?

A

Inhibition of most voluntary muscles and sensory activity

229
Q

What is the difference between sleep and a coma?

A

Sleep does not fully close one’s sensory and perceptual windows like a coma does

230
Q

What type of waves characterize sleep?

A

Delta waves

231
Q

What is the wave frequency of delta waves?

A

1 to 3 Hz

232
Q

What are the five distinct stages of sleep?

A

Stage 1, stage 2, stage 3, stage 4 and REM sleep

233
Q

How a person perceives, thinks, evaluates, and plans is believed to originate in structures of the?

A

Brain

234
Q

Describe the structure of the cerebral cortex. What does the cerebral cortex play a role in?

A

A thin layer or tissue that covers both hemispheres of the brain and has numerous folds to increase surface area. Plays a large role in cognition

235
Q

The larger the cerebral cortex the _____ functioning cognition

A

Better

236
Q

What disease is characterized by a loss of neurons and general atrophy leading to a cognitive deficit?

A

Alzheimer’s

237
Q

What is a vascular accident marked by stoppage of blood flow to part of the brain

A

A stroke

238
Q

What is another term for neoplasms?

A

Brain tumours

239
Q

What are growths located in certain areas of the brain that can cause severe cognitive dysfunction?

A

Brain tumours

240
Q

What neurological deficits can strokes cause?

A

Can cause severe cognitive dysfunction leading to problems with memory and attention; changes in perception of vision and hearing

241
Q

If a patient experiences damage to the prefrontal cortex, what types processes can be impaired?

A

Judgement, decision making, and working memory

242
Q

What does language play a role in?

A

Perception, memory, and learning

243
Q

What are the three theories of language development?

A

Learning perspective, nativist perspective, and interactionist perspective

244
Q

Who created the learning perspective of language development?

A

BF Skinner

245
Q

What does the learning perspective of language development suggest?

A

Children develop the use of language through associative conditioning (classical and operant) and observational learning

246
Q

How do children initially learn to speak in the learning perspective of language development?

A

Parents reinforce the babbling of nonsense syllables when they mimic a real word (i.e. Mom coming when a sound resembles mom)

247
Q

How do individuals learn syntax by the learning perspective of language?

A

Observational learning

248
Q

What does the nativist perspective of language development suggest?

A

Language is an innate skill for which people are predisposed

249
Q

What device of the brain did the nativist perspective propose?

A

Language acquisition device (LAD)

250
Q

What is a language acquisition device?

A

An area of the brain with a set of innate transformational grammatical rules

251
Q

What does the interactionist perspective of language development suggest?

A

Language is acquired for social interaction and that children acquire new understandings based on what they want to communicate

252
Q

What area did the interactionist perspective propose?

A

Zone of proximal development (ZPD)

253
Q

What is the zone of proximal development?

A

An area of optimal learning in which a child develops language skills through child-adult interaction

254
Q

In the interactionist perspective of language development, what is scaffolding?

A

The use of superior language by a parent which challenges the child to achieve complex language more quickly

255
Q

What is linguistic relativity?

A

The idea that speakers of different languages utilise different cognitive processes that influence how they think

256
Q

What is another term for linguistic relativity?

A

Sapir-Whorf hypothesis

257
Q

What is linguistic determinism?

A

The idea that language entirely determines how we think

258
Q

What is another term for linguistic determinism

A

Strong Sapir-Whorf hypothesis

259
Q

What is the difference between linguistic relativity and linguist determinism?

A

Relativity–different language speakers use different parts of their brain which influences how they think
Determinism–language entirely determines how we think

260
Q

What are the two areas of the brain that are strongly associated with language production and comprehension?

A

Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area

261
Q

Where is the part of the brain responsible for speech production? What is this area called?

A

Left frontal lobe, Broca’s area

262
Q

What does damage to the Broca’s area region result in? What is still functional?

A

Loss of the ability to speak words, still able to comprehend words

263
Q

When a person initially closes their eyes to sleep, what waves are recorded?

A

Alpha waves (daydreaming) and the person becomes more relaxed

264
Q

How long does stage 1 of the sleep cycle last?

A

20 minutes

265
Q

What wave type characterizes stage 1?

A

Decreases alpha waves and increases theta waves

266
Q

What are people most easily wakened by in stage 1 of the sleep cycle?

A

Hypnic jerks

267
Q

What are hypnic jerks?

A

Involuntary muscle twitches associated with a sense of falling

268
Q

What happens to the body in stage 2 of the sleep cycle?

A

Body temperature decreases and breathing and heart rate slow

269
Q

What type of brain waves characterize stage 2 of the sleep cycle?

A

Theta waves

270
Q

What two types of theta waves characterize step 2 of the sleep cycle?

A

K complexes and sleep spindles

271
Q

What are k complexes?

A

Single, large amplitude, high voltage waves that are believed to suppress cortical arousal and aid sleep based memory consolidation

272
Q

What are sleep spindles?

A

Short bursts of 12 to 24 Hz waves that also suppress cortical arousal

273
Q

What happens to the brain waves in stage three of the sleep cycle?

A

Decreased theta waves and increased delta waves

274
Q

What is the stage of sleep that is deepest for humans?

A

Stage 4

275
Q

What wave type comprises stage 4 of the sleep cycle?

A

Delta waves

276
Q

As one progresses from stage 1 to stage 4 what happens to brain frequency, amplitude, and voltage?

A

Decrease in frequency; increase in amplitude; increased in brain wave voltage

277
Q

After the sleeper reaches stage 4 of the sleep cycle, what stages follow?

A

Stages retreat in reverse order back to but not including stage 1

278
Q

What sleep stage does the sleeper reach when they return from stage 1->4->2?

A

R.E.M.

279
Q

What is rapid eye movement sleep? (R.E.M.)

A

Stage of sleep characterized by low amplitude mixed frequency brain waves similar to those of an alert actively thinking person

280
Q

What is another term for R.E.M. sleep?

A

Paradoxical sleep

281
Q

How long does a single sleep cycle last?

A

90-100 min

282
Q

What is the pattern of a single sleep cycle?

A

1➡️2➡️3➡️4➡️3➡️2➡️1➡️R.E.M.

283
Q

What is the pattern for two sleep cycles?

A

1➡️2➡️3➡️4➡️3➡️2➡️R.E.M. ➡️2➡️3➡️4➡️3➡️2➡️R.E.M.

284
Q

How many sleep cycles does the average adult experience?

A

Four cycles throughout the night

285
Q

As the night progresses, what happens to the length of R.E.M. stage? What about the length of the nREM stage?

A

R.E.M. Stage gets longer nREM gets shorter than (especially stage 4)

286
Q

What are the nREM stages?

A

Stages 1-4

287
Q

When does most dreaming occur?

A

During the R.E.M. stage of sleep

288
Q

What region of the brain are dreams associated with?

A

Prefrontal cortex

289
Q

What happens in the prefrontal cortex?

A

The brain centre where logical thinking and planning take place

290
Q

Since dreams are associated with decreased activity in the prefrontal cortex, what traits are associated with dreaming?

A

Emotionally charged, strange, unorganised, and difficult to remember

291
Q

What does Sigmund Freud believe about dreams?

A

Dreams are the window to our unconscious thoughts and feelings

292
Q

What do evolutionary psychologists believe the function of dreams is?

A

Dreams help us approach problem solving through a different state of consciousness

293
Q

What is the physiological function theory of dreaming?

A

Dreams and R.E.M. sleep provide regular brain stimulation, which helps preserve and develop neural pathways

294
Q

What is the information processing theory of dreaming?

A

Dreams organise the day’s events and consolidate memories

295
Q

What is the neural activation theory of dreaming?

A

R.E.M. Sleep activates neural pathways that contain random visual memories, which the brain connects into the form of dreams

296
Q

Is R.E.M. sleep is physiologically necessary?

A

Yes

297
Q

When subjects were deprived of R.E.M. Sleep, and then allowed to sleep, what did they experience?

A

R.E.M. Rebound

298
Q

Is R.E.M. Sleep regulated together with or separately from the other stages of sleep?

A

Separately

299
Q

What are the three types of theories that suggest why we sleep?

A

Adaptation theories, recuperation theories, and consolidation theories

300
Q

What are adaptation theories of why we sleep?

A

Humans evolved to sleep during the nighttime to conserve energy and to avoid predation

301
Q

Do adaptation theories focus on when or why we sleep to explain the advantages of animal fitness?

A

Focus on when not why we sleep

302
Q

What do recuperation theories suggest about sleep?

A

Argue that being awake disrupts the body’s homeostasis and sleep is necessary to restore it

303
Q

The evidence that muscle growth, protein synthesis, tissue repair, and growth hormone release occur primarily during sleep support which type of sleep theory?

A

Recuperation

304
Q

Since humans are heavily dependent on vision and those who walked at night were more susceptible to predators, what theory of sleep does this support?

A

Adaptation theory

305
Q

Sleep deprived subjects experience decreased immune function eventually leading to death supports which theory of sleep?

A

Recuperation theory

306
Q

What does The consolidation theory suggests?

A

Sleep is essential to maintain proper brain plasticity

307
Q

What is brain plasticity?

A

Changes in the structure and organisation of the brain

308
Q

What type of sleep theory posits that sleep helps process information and experiences learned throughout the day and helps strengthen a memory’s neural network within long term storage

A

Consolidation theory

309
Q

What does sleep allow for according to the consolidation theory?

A

Better stabilized and more readily available for conscious recall

310
Q

What is the circadian rhythm?

A

The internal biological timing mechanism that regulates sleep and other biological processes

311
Q

The biological clock works on what time table? What is it controlled by?

A

24 hours; light

312
Q

What is the circadian control centre?

A

Superchiasmatic nucleus

313
Q

What is the superchiasmatic nucleus composed of? Where is it located?

A

Located in the retina; specialised ganglion cells that respond directly to light and project to a cluster of about 20k neurons in the hypothalamus

314
Q

What does the superchiasmatic nucleus do?

A

Circadian control centre, processes information concerning the length of day and night

315
Q

To what gland does the superchiasmatic nucleus send the information it receives concerning the length of day and night?

A

Pineal gland

316
Q

Where is the pineal gland located in relation to the hypothalamus?

A

Dorsal to the hypothalamus

317
Q

When the superchiasmatic nucleus sends information to the pineal glands, what response does this elicit?

A

Increase or decrease production of the body become more relaxed or sleepy

318
Q

What do increased levels of melatonin cause the body to do?

A

Cause the body to become more relaxed and sleepy

319
Q

What does the presence of light eventually cause the pineal gland to do?

A

Release less melatonin

320
Q

What does the absence of light eventually cause the pineal gland to do?

A

Increases melatonin release

321
Q

What does general sleep deprivation cause?

A

Irritability and impaired learning and memory function

322
Q

What are sleep disorders?

A

Any medical disorder that negatively affects normal, healthy sleep patterns

323
Q

What are the two categories of sleep disorders?

A

Insomnia and hypersomnia

324
Q

What type of sleep disorder encompasses all persistent disorders that cause someone to struggle to fall or remain asleep?

A

Insomnia

325
Q

What type of sleep disorder include disorders of excessive sleepiness or excessive sleep?

A

Hypersomnia

326
Q

What do insomniacs do that exacerbates their problem? How does this occur?

A

Take alcohol/sleeping pills. These reduce R.E.M. sleep; leads to tolerance of drugs and need to take more for the same effects; withdrawal if the drugs are removed

327
Q

What is sleep apnea?

A

A person with sleep apnea will periodically stop breathing then suddenly awake for a gasp of air before falling back asleep

328
Q

How many times per night does the sleep apnea cycle occur?

A

100x per night

329
Q

Which is more common hypersomnia or insomnia?

A

Insomnia

330
Q

Is sleep apnea a type of hypersomnia or insomnia?

A

Insomnia

331
Q

What is the most widely studied hypersomnia disorder?

A

Narcolepsy

332
Q

What is narcolepsy?

A

A disorder characterized by severe daytime sleepiness and brief 5-10 minute bouts of sleep which cause the sleeper to enter slow wave and R.E.M. Sleep

333
Q

How are states of consciousness that cannot be naturally induced formed?

A

Drugs

334
Q

What are the induced states of consciousness?

A

Meditation, hypnosis, and consciousness altering drugs

335
Q

What is a mind body practice that focuses attention and induces relaxation?

A

Meditation

336
Q

Meditation enables one to focus on his or her _____ or _____ processes while ignoring _______ distractors

A

Physical, mental, external

337
Q

What type of brain waves does meditation produce?

A

Alpha and theta waves

338
Q

Is meditation self induced or induced by others?

A

Self induced

339
Q

Is hypnosis self induced or induced by others?

A

Employed by others

340
Q

What induced state of consciousness causes a state of relaxation that opens subjects up to the power of suggestion?

A

Hypnosis

341
Q

What are consciousness altering drugs?

A

A way to induce altered states of consciousness through changing one’s sensory perception, thought process, mood, and behaviour

342
Q

What is another name for consciousness altering drugs?

A

Psychoactive drugs

343
Q

What are the three types of consciousness altering drugs?

A

Depressants, stimulants, and hallucinogens